Previous Year Questions

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QUESTION ID:1

Plants make several hormones that are important for growth and development. Some statements on plant hormones are given below:
A. Auxin is produced primarily in the root apices
B. Cytokinins are a smaller group of related compounds.
C. Gibberellins are a large group of related compounds defined not by their biological functions but by their structures.
D. Brassinosteroids are an important class of plant hormones, which control a broad spectrum of developmental reposes including pollen tube growth.
Which one of the following combination of the above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:2

An action potential was generated on a nerve fibre by a threshold electrical stimulus. When a second stimulus was applied, no matter how strong it was, during the absolute refractory period of the action potential, the nerve fibre was unable to generate second action potential. This observation was explained in the following statements:
A. A large fraction of potassium channel was voltage inactivated
B. The critical number of sodium channels required to produce an action potential could not be recruited.
C. A large fraction of sodium channel was voltage inactivated.
D. The critical number of potassium channels required to produce an action potential could not be recruited.
Which one of the following is true?

QUESTION ID:3

Water and electrolytes like Na+ and cl- are lost from the body in diarrhoea. Oral administration of NaCl solution in this condition does not improve the situation. When glucose is administered with normal NaCl solution through oral route, the absorption of electrolytes along with water occurs and the patient recovers.
A. Glucose enhances ATP production in the mucosal cells of small intestine and thus facilitates sodium absorption.
B. Glucose inhibits the diarrheal toxin induced cAMP production in the mucosal cells of small intestine.
C. Na+ is co-transported with glucose on the apical surface of the mucosal cells of small intestine.
D. The epithelial sodium channels (ENaC) are activated by glucose in colon.
Which one of the following is true?

QUESTION ID:4

A patient has episodes of painful spontaneous muscles contraction, followed by periods of paralysis of the affected muscles. It was identified as primary hyperkalemic paralysis, an inherited disorder. The possible causes of the paralysis are
A. The elevation of extracellular K+ causes hyperpolarization of skeletal muscle cells.
B. The hyperpolarization of the muscle cell membrane inactivates sodium channels.
C. The elevation of extracellular K+ causes depolarization of skeletal muscle cells.
D. The sodium channels are voltage inactivated in depolarized state
Which one of the following is true?

QUESTION ID:5

Myoglobin (Mb) in muscles, Hemoglobin A (HbA) in adult RaC, Hemoglobin C (HbC) in patients with thinner RBC and Hemoglobin S (HbS) in sickle cell disease are four different hemoproteins. Oxygen saturation kinetics of these four proteins is different. Which of the following profile is most plausible?

QUESTION ID:6

Maintaining the salt concentration and volume plasma are two key parameters for physiological processes achieved by kidney. Which of following structural and functional combines the most efficient renal regulatory system mammals?

Combination No.

Structural

Functional

1

Large glomerulus, long proximal and distal tubules, long Henle's

loop

Trans-epithelial in

proximal

countercurrent

multiplier, ADH

responsiveness of distal

tubule

2

Small glomerulus, short

proximal and distal

tubule short Henle's loop

Transepithelial potential

in distal tubule, very high

ADH concentration in

circulation

3

Very large glomerulus,

short proximal tubule,

very ong distal tubule,

long Henle's loop

Very efficient glomerular

filtration, prevention of

solute loss

4

Small glomerulus, long

proximal and distal

tubules, Henle's loop

Preventing water and

solute filtration, excreting

solute, lowering ADH

responsiveness

QUESTION ID:7

Which one of the following graphs best represents the hormone profile in a rat right after matting?

QUESTION ID:8

Which of the following representations of chromosomal arrangement in meiotic metaphase I best explains the Law of Independent Assortment?

QUESTION ID:9

Which of the following statements are true Robertsonian translocations?
A. The size of the homologous chromosome involved in translocation will differ.
B. Genes on the chromosome involved in translocation will show linkage with genes with which it normal independently assorts.
C. There will be change in the physical map, but no change in the genetic map.
D. It can be identified by G-banding chromosomes.
E. It can be identified by C-banding chromosomes.
F. It can lead to Down syndrome
Which one of the following combination is correct?

QUESTION ID:10

Ames test is used to evaluate mutagens in the environment. Which of the following statements, about Ames test are true?
A. The mutagenic effect of a compound tested using an auxotrophic strain of Salmonella typhimurium
B. The mutagenic effect of a compound is tested using His strain of Escherichia coli.
C. Using appropriate strains, compounds causing base substitutions and frame shift
D. Liver enzymes are important as they are activated by test compound to evaluate its mutagenicity potential.
E. Many compounds may have to be converted to bioactive metabolites,
which is carried out by the enzymes from the liver

QUESTION ID:11

The genetic map of three genes in Drosophila melanogaster is given below:

A cross, as given below individuals of the genotype:

The female F1 progeny are test-crossed and 1000 progeny are obtained. Assuming that there has been no double crossover, what is the expected number of progeny with the genotypes:



QUESTION ID:12

The following pedigree shows the inheritance pattern of a rare recessive disorder with complete penetrance.
A child from marriage between individuals II-2 & II-3 will show the disorder only if the parents carry the recessive allele. What is the probability that the child will show the disorder?

QUESTION ID:13

 DNA from a strain of bacteria with genotype a+  b+  c+  d+  e +  was isolated and used to transform a strain of bacteria that was a- b- c- d- e-. The transformed eel  were tested for the presence of donat ed genes. The following genes are found be co-transformed
i. a+ and d+

ii. b+ and e+

iii. c+ and d+

iv. c+ and e+

The order of genes on the bacterial chromosome is

QUESTION ID:14

Coelomates have
A. fluid filled body cavity.
B. a complete lining called peritoneum, derived from mesoderm  covering the body cavity.
C. a complete lining called peritoneum, derived from ectoderm covering the body cavity.
D. Round worm as representative of this group.
E. Flat worm as representative of this group.
Select the correct combination

QUESTION ID:15

Most biologists agree that seaweeds are protists. Some biologists think that at least some seaweeds should be considered plants, not protists. Which of the following would support the latter one?

QUESTION ID:16

Which of following shows the correct systematic hierarchy?

QUESTION ID:17

Match the following

QUESTION ID:18

In the following diagram, two models succession are represented. In this diagram A, C and D are species and arrows indicate replaced by' Based on the above, which statement is correct.
 

QUESTION ID:19

Lindeman's efficiency between trophic levels is depicted by the formula: Efficiency = A/B Where, A and B, respectively are:

QUESTION ID:20

The following matrix shows the relationship between probability of death and duration of species association. In the above, A, B, C and D are:

QUESTION ID:21

An observation was made on a species experiencing three factors A, B and C in order to infer a density dependent population regulation by a factor. The following graph shows the relationship between the adverse effect of the factors in terms of number and population density.

Based on the above observation, which of the following is correct?

QUESTION ID:22

Which of the following biotic provinces are part of Deccan Peninsula biogeographic zone of India?

QUESTION ID:23

Which one of the following plants group combinations reflects the correct increasing order of the number of species it has?

QUESTION ID:24

Micro-evolution is the term used for changes in allele frequencies that occur over time.
A) Within a population at species level
B) within a community at genus level
C) due to appearance of new genes infections
D) due to mutation, natural selection, flow and genetic drift
Which of the following combinations is NOT appropriate?

QUESTION ID:25

The following genotypes were observed in a population Which of the following is the correct frequency of H allele and what will be the expected number of HH in the given population?

QUESTION ID:26

The first vertebrate animal appeared in which of the following geological ages?
A) Paleozoic era

B) Mesozoic era

C) Ordovician period

D) Cretaceous period

E) Mississippian epoch

F) Paleocene epoch
Which of the following combinations give the best answer?

QUESTION ID:27

Fore limb of human and flippers of whale are embryologically homologous structures. What does the study of homologous structures tell us about evolution?
A. This is the example of adaptive radiation, occurred due to similar group of organisms inhabiting different environments
B. This is the example of divergent evolution, occurred due to similar group of organisms inhabiting different environments
C. Similar group of organisms with mutations and variations getting naturally selected in different environments
D. This is the example of convergent evolution, occurred due to similar group of organisms inhabiting different environments
Which of the following is the correct combination?

QUESTION ID:28

Foster pups were presented to a primiparous rat at the mid gestation period. Which of the following behaviour will be found in the pregnant rat?

QUESTION ID:29

Electrons are transferred from reduced c enzymes like NADH, NADPH to pyruvic acid its derivatives during fermentation. Those fin electron acceptors are reduced to the end-product for example latic acid, propionic acid, etc. end products depend on the particular microorganism and the substrate The correct match is


QUESTION ID:30

In resting cells, proteins X and Y are localized in the cytosol. Upon stimulation with lipopolysaccharide (LPS), both of them are phosphorylated and translocate to the nucleus. You have used antibodies against phosphorylated forms of proteins X and Y which are conjugated to either red, or green or blue dye. Keeping optical aberration of light in mind, which one of the following will be the best for visualizing X and Y In the nucleus by fluorescence microscopy?

QUESTION ID:31

A transgenic plant is developed with the following T-DNA construct Which of the above are correct?

In order to analyze the nature of integration, genomic DNA digested with EcoRI was used for Southern hybridization using either probe A or B. The result obtained is as

The following conclusions were made:

A. There are two copies of the T-DNA cassette integrated at one loci and a third copy at another loci.

B. There are two copies of the T-DNA cassette integrated at one loci.

C. Complete T-DNA cassette has been integrated in all cases.

D. In one T-DNA cassette there is a truncation towards the RB

E. In one T-DNA cassette there is a towards the LB

F. The arrangement of the T-DNA cassettes integrated at the same loci is

G. The arrangement of the T-DNA cassette integrated at the same loci is

Which of the above are correct?

QUESTION ID:32

While designing an experiment for Agrobacterium mediated plant transformation, a student noted down the following points:
A. Ti and Ri plasmids induce crown gall and hairy root disease, respectively
B. Enzymes octopine synthase and nopaline synthase involved in the synthesis of octopine and nopaline, respectively are encoded by T-DNA.
C. All the six vir genes, vir A, vir B, vir C, vir D, vir E and vir G are absolutely required for virulence.

D. Almost perfect 25 bp direct repeat sequences flanking all Ti and Ri plasmids in the T-DNA region is essential for T-DNA transfer.
Which one of the following combinations of the above statement is correct?

QUESTION ID:33

The following are certain facts regarding bioremediation:
A. Biodegradable plastics are made using polyhydroxy alkanoates (PHAs) such as polyhydroxybutyrate (PHB).
B. Pseudomonas putida F1 bacterial strain is involved in degradation of aromatic hydrocarbon.
C. The bacterium Deinococcus radiodurans consume and digest toluene and ionic mercury from highly radioactive nuclear waste.
D. Bioaugmentation is a process of improving the microorganisms already existing in the system for degradation of xenobiotic compound.
Which one of the following combination of above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:34

An unknown peptide was isolated from the leaf of a medicinal plant and purified to homogeneity. The peptide did not yield any sequence when subjected to Edman degradation. However, tryptic digest of the peptide produced a unique sequence. The mass of the intact peptide was found to be 18 Da less than that obtained from the trypsin treated sample. The possible interpretation of the above experimental results could be that the
A. the N-terminus of the peptide was blocked by acetylation or methylation.
B. the peptide was cyclic and contained at least one internal arginine or lysine residue.
C. the peptide was cyclic and contained a lysine or arginine residue at the C terminus.
D. the peptide was cyclized by peptide bond formation between α- amino group and α-carboxyl group.
Which of the above statements is true?

QUESTION ID:35

A gene is regulated by a novel transcription factor. The following techniques may be used to identify the cis- regulatory element in the 1 kb promoter sequence of the gene where the novel transcription factor binds:
A. Bioinformatics analysis.
B. Cell based reporter assay.
C. S 1 nuclease assay
D. Electrophoretic mobility shift assay.
E. DNAse-I foot-printing analysis
Which one of the following can help to identify the cis element?

QUESTION ID:36

A protein D is encoded by a gene, which is 5 Kb long and has three Hind III restriction enzyme sites. The first one is 0.5 Kb from the transcription start site, the second one is 2.5 Kb from the first site and the third one is 0.5 Kb internal to the stop codon. The second site is polymorphic. In order to find out whether fetal cells contain the normal or the mutated gene, total genomic DNA from fetal cells was isolated, completely digested with Hind III, separated in an agarose gel, transferred to membrane and detected by a probe against the region between the second and third restriction site. Which one of the following band patterns will be obtained if the fetal cell is heterozygous?

QUESTION ID:37

Given below are the experimental protocols to find out the exact location of repetitive DNA sequence in mitotic chromosome by FISH (fluorescence in situ hybridization). Which one of the protocols will give the correct result?

QUESTION ID:38

At 25°C values of [θ]222, the mean residue ellipticity at 222 nm, are - 33,000 and -3,000 deg cm2 dmol-1 for a polypeptide existing in α- helical (α) and β-structure (β), respectively. If this polypeptide undergoes a two-state heat-induced α→β transition, and a value of [θ]222 = -18,000 deg cm2 dmol-1 is observed at 60°C, then this observation leads to the conclusion that the α helix conversion to β- structure is:

QUESTION ID:39

An EEG was recorded and its power spectrum analyses were done in rats with implant electrode for a long time. The power of the EEG waves decreased two months after electrode implantation. This observation may be due to the following:
A. Glial cells accumulate surrounding exposed tips of electrodes.
B. Degeneration of neurons occur surrounding the electrode tips due metal ion deposition.
C. Coating of electrodes are destroyed with time.
D. The microsocket becomes loose time.
Which one of the following is true?