Previous Year Questions

QUESTION ID:2

The bar chart shows number of seats won by four political parties in a state legislative assembly.Which of the following pie-charts correctly depicts this information?

QUESTION ID:3

The random errors associated with the measurement of P and Q are 10% and 2% , respectively . What is the percentage random error in P/Q?

QUESTION ID:4

In how many distinguishable ways can the letters of the word CHANGE be arranged?

QUESTION ID:5

Find the missing term

QUESTION ID:6

Seeds when soaked in water gain about 20% by weight and 10% by volume. By what factor does the density increase?

QUESTION ID:7

Retarding frictional force, f, on a moving ball, is proportional to its velocity, V . Two identical balls roll down identical slopes (A & B) from different heights. Compare the retarding forces and the velocities of the balls at the bases of the slopes

QUESTION ID:8

A river is 4.1 km wide. A bridge built across it has 1/7 of its length on one bank and 1/8 of its length on the other bank. What is the total length of the bridge?

QUESTION ID:9

OA, OB and OC are radii of the quarter circle shown in the figure. AB is also equal to the radius.What is angle OCB?

QUESTION ID:10

Intravenous (IV) fluid has to be administered to a child of 12 kg with dehydration, at a dose of 20 mg of fluid per kg of body weight, in 1 hour. What should be the drip rate (in drops/min) of IV fluid? (1 mg = 20 drops)

QUESTION ID:11

A hall with a high roof is supported by an array of identical columns such that, to a person lying on the floor and looking at the ceiling, the columns appear parallel to each other. Which of the following designs conforms to this?

QUESTION ID:12

Which of the following graphs correctly shows the speed and the corresponding distance covered by an object moving along a straight line?

QUESTION ID:13

A normal TV screen has a width to height ratio of 4:3, while a high definition TV screen has a ratio of 16:9. What is the approximate ratio of their diagonals, if the heights of the two types of screens are the same?

QUESTION ID:14

Comparing numerical values, which of the following is different from the rest ?

QUESTION ID:15

If a person travels x% faster than normal, he reaches y minutes earlier than normal. What is his normal time of travel?

QUESTION ID:16

A and B walk up an escalator one step at a time, while the escalator itself move up at a constant speed. A walks twice as fast as B. A reaches the top in 40 steps and B in 30 steps. How many steps of the escalator can be seen when it is not moving?

QUESTION ID:17

Two iron spheres of radii 12 cm and 1 cm are melted and fused. Two new spheres are made without any loss of iron. Their possible radii could be:

QUESTION ID:18

A man buys alcohol at Rs. 75/cL, adds water, and sells it at Rs. 75/cL making a profit of 50%. What is the ratio of alcohol to water?

QUESTION ID:19

The sum of digits of a two-digit numbers is 9. If the fraction formed by taking 9 less than the number as numerator and 9 more than the number as denominator is 3/4 , what is the number?

QUESTION ID:20

The distance between X and Y is 1000km. A person flies from X at 8 AM local time and reaches Y at 10 AM local time. He flies back after a halt of 4 hours at Y and reaches X at 4 PM local time on the same day. What is his average speed for the duration he is in the air?

QUESTION ID:21

RNA editing, a post transcriptional process, is achieved with the help of guide RNA (g RNA) which one of the following statement about the process is NOT true?

QUESTION ID:22

Telomerase, a RNA- protein complex which completes the replication of telomeres during DNA synthesis, is a specialized

QUESTION ID:23

Consider a short double-stranded linear DNA molecule of 10 complete turns with 10.5 bp/ turn. The ends of the DNA molecule are sealed together to make a relaxed circle. This relaxed circle will have a linking number of

QUESTION ID:24

In the above signaling cascade, which of the following molecules is denoted by ‘B’?

QUESTION ID:25

The secondary antibodies routinely used for the detection of primary antibodies in western blotting experiment are

QUESTION ID:26

Which of the following events will NOT usually lead to transformation of a normal cell into a cancer cell

QUESTION ID:27

Which of the following a food borne toxin

QUESTION ID:28

Excess oxygen consumed after a vigorous exercise is

QUESTION ID:29

Which one of the following describes the primary function of flipases?

QUESTION ID:30

Mitotic cyclin-CDK activity peaks in M phase. This is because

QUESTION ID:31

Choose the most appropriate pH at which the net charge is 0 for the molecule from the data shown below.

QUESTION ID:32

Choose the correct statement about peptides in Ramchandran plot.

QUESTION ID:33

Equilibrium constant (K’eq) of reaction is a ratio of product to substrate concentration. The reaction between (K’eq) and free energy change in a reaction (ΔG’) is followsΔG’ = -RT lnK’eqReaction A and reaction B have K’eq values of 10 and 100, respectively. Which of the following statement is correct with respect to ΔG’?

QUESTION ID:34

The gel to liquid crystalline phase transition temperature in phosphatidyl choline (PC) lipids compose of dioleoyl (DO), dipalmitoyl (DP), disteroyl (DS) and palmitoyloleoyl (PO) fatty acids in increasing order will be

QUESTION ID:35

Which of the following is NOT an example of trasmembrane transport between different subcellular compartments?

QUESTION ID:36

 Which of the following are NOT transcribed by RNA polymerase II?

QUESTION ID:37

Apical ectodermal ridge induction is essential tetrapod limb development. Which of the following is NOT essential for the formation of a functional limb?

QUESTION ID:38

Which of the following statement is WRONG?

QUESTION ID:39

Certain proteins or mRNAs that are regionally localized within the unfertilized egg and regulate development are called

QUESTION ID:40

Cell to cell communication is important in development of an organism. The ability of cells to respond to a specific inductive signal is called

QUESTION ID:41

Which one of the following compounds is NOT a part of alkaloid class of secondary metabolites?

QUESTION ID:42

Which one of the following best describe the symplast pathway of water flow from the epidermis to endodermis in plant root?

QUESTION ID:43

The herbicide, dichlorophenyldimethylurea, is an inhibitor of

QUESTION ID:44

Vasopressin secretion does NOT increase with

QUESTION ID:45

Which one of the following does NOT occur due to stimulation of baroreceptors?

QUESTION ID:46

Serum has essentially the same composition as plasma EXCEPT that it lacks

QUESTION ID:47

Which type of cells located in gastric glands is responsible for the release of histamine?

QUESTION ID:48

Which one of the following plant derived signalling molecule induces hyphal branching of arbuscularmycorrhizal fungi, a phenomenon that is observed at the initial stages of colonisation of these fungi?

QUESTION ID:49

If non-disjunction occurs in meiosis I, which of the following scenario is most likely to occur?

QUESTION ID:50

Which one of the following is true for cells harbouring F’ plasmid?

QUESTION ID:51

Maternal inheritance of coiling of shell in snail (limnaeaperegra) is well established. The dextral coiling depends on dominant allele D and sinistral coiling depends upon recessive allele d. A female F1 progeny of dextral(Dd) type is crossed with a male sinistral snail. What will be the ratio of heterozygous : homozygous individuals in its F2 progeny?

QUESTION ID:52

Which of the following mutagens is most likely to results in a single amino acid change in a gene product?

QUESTION ID:53

Which one of the following statements supports the concepts of trade-off in the evolution of life history trades?

QUESTION ID:54

A plot of dN/dt as a function of population density yields a

QUESTION ID:55

For a species having logistic growth, if K = 20,000 and r = 0.15, the maximum sustainable yield will be (* question)

QUESTION ID:56

which of the following is a correct ranking of ecosystems based on the roots: shoot ratio of plants?

QUESTION ID:57

Which of the following periods is known as “Age of fishes”?

QUESTION ID:58

Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg model?

QUESTION ID:59

Which of the following geographical periods is characterized by the first appearance of mammals?

QUESTION ID:60

An alga having chlorophyll a, floridean starch as storage product and lacking flagellate cells belongs to the class

QUESTION ID:61

Which of the following is NOT true for monocots?

QUESTION ID:62

Individuals occupying a particular habitat and adapted to it phenotypically but not genotypically are known as

QUESTION ID:63

Different leads are used to record ECG of humans. Which one of the following is NOT unipolar leads?

QUESTION ID:64

The presence and distribution of specific mRNAs within a cell can be detected by

QUESTION ID:65

In which of the following mating systems there is likely to be NO conflict of interest over reproductive success between the sexes?

QUESTION ID:66

Which one of the following analytical techniques does NOT involve an optical measurement?

QUESTION ID:67

Which genes have been introduced in Bollgard II cotton to get resistance against cotton bollworm, tobacco bollworm and pink bollworm?

QUESTION ID:68

An optical measurement of protein is taken both before and after digestion of the protein by a protease. In which of the following spectroscopic measurement the signal change, i.e., before v/s after protease treatment, could be the maximum?

QUESTION ID:69

The tetanus vaccine given to humans in the case of a deep cut is a

QUESTION ID:70

The electrospray ionization spectrum of a mixture of two peptides show peak with m/z values 301, 401, 501 and 601. The molecular weight of the peptides are

QUESTION ID:71

From the following statements,A. For a reaction to occur spontaneously the free energy change must be negativeB. The interaction between two nitrogen molecules in the gaseous state is predominantly electrostaticC. By knowing the bond energies, it is possible to deduce whether the bond is covalent or hydrogen bondD. Hydrophobic interactions are not important in a folded globular protein.Pick the combination with ALL WRONG statements.

QUESTION ID:72

A researcher investigated the a set of conditions for a protein with an isoelectric point of 6.5 and also bind to calcium. This protein was subjected to four independent treatments: (i) pH 6.4, (ii) 10% glycerol, (iii) 10mM CaCl2, (iv) 40% ammonium sulphate. This was followed by centrifugation and estimation of protein in supernatant. The results are depicted in the graph below:Which of the following treatments best represents the results shown in the graph?

QUESTION ID:73

In the biosynthesis of purine:

QUESTION ID:74

from the following statements,

A. Hydrogen, Deuterium and Tritium differ in the number of protons

B. Hydrogen, Deuterium and Tritium differ in the number of neutrons

C. Both Deuterium and Tritium are radioactive and decay to Hydrogen and Deuterium, respectively.

D. Tritium is radioactive and decays to Helium

E. Carbon-14 decays to Nitrogen-14F. Carbon-14 decays to Carbon-13

Pick the combination with ALL correct statements

QUESTION ID:75

The following are four statements on the peptides/proteins conformation:

A. Glycine has a largest area of conformationally allowed space in the Ramachandran plot of Φ and Ψ

B. A 20-residue peptide that is acetylated at the N- terminus and amidated at the C- terminus has Φ = -600 (±5), Ψ= -300(±5) for all the residues. It can be concluded that conformation of the peptide is helix-turn-strand

C. The allowed values of Φ, Ψ for amino acids in a protein are not valid for short peptide

D. A peptide Acetyl-A1 – A2 –A3 –A4-CONH2 (A–A4 are amino acids) adopts well defined β-turn. The dihedral angles of A2 and A3 determined the type of β- turn

Choose the combination of correct statements.

QUESTION ID:76

A researcher was investigating the substrate specificity of two different enzymes, X and Y, on the same substrate. Both the enzymes were subjected to treatment with either heat or an inhibitor which inhibits the enzyme activity. Following are the results obtained where, a= inhibitor treatment, b = heat treatment, c= control.Which of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:77

‘A’ is an inhibitor of chloroplast function. The production of O2 and synthesis of ATP are measured in illuminated chloroplast before and after addition of ‘A’ as shown below.Which statement is correct?

QUESTION ID:78

During cell cycle progression from G1 to S, cyclin D-CDK4 phosphorylates Rb and reduces its affinity for E2F. E2F dissociates from Rb and activates S-phase gene expression. Overexpression of protein ‘A’ arrests G1 phase progression. Which of the following statement is true?

QUESTION ID:79

Cells in S- phase of the cell cycle were fused to cells in the following stages of cell cycle: (a) G1 phase, (b) G2 phase, (c) M phase these cells were then grown in the medium containing tritiated thymidine. The maximal amount of freshly labelled DNA is likely to be obtained in S- phase cells fused with

QUESTION ID:80

Addition of antibiotic cephalexin to growing E. coli cells lead to filamentation of the cells, followed by lysis. Cephalexin is an inhibitor of

QUESTION ID:81

Fluorescently tagged protein was used to study protein secretion in yeast. Fluorescence was observed in:(

a) the Golgi

(b) the secretory vesicles

(c) the rough ER.

Which of the following describes the best sequence in which these events occur?

QUESTION ID:82

In order to ensure that only fully processed mature mRNAs are allowed to be exported to cytosol, pre-mRNAs associated with snRNPs are retained in the nucleus. To demonstrate this, an experiment was performed where the gene coding a pre-mRNA, with a single intron was mutated either at 5’or 3’ splice sites or both the splice site. Given below are a few possible outcomes:

A. Pre-mRNA having mutation at both the splice sites will be retained in the nucleus because of the presence of bound snRNPs

B. Pre-mRNA having mutation at both the splice sites will be exported to cytosol.

C. Pre-mRNA mutated at either 3’ or 5’ splice sites will be retained in the nucleus because of the presence of bound snRNPs

D. Pre-mRNA mutated at either 3’ or 5’ splice sites will be exported to cytosol because of the absence of bound snRNPs

Choose the correct combination of possible outcomes:

QUESTION ID:83

Telomerase, a protein RNA complex, has special reverse transcriptase activity that completes replication of telomerase during DNA synthesis. Although it has many properties similar to DNA polymerase, some of them are also different. Which one of the following properties of telomerase is different from that of DNA-polymerase?

QUESTION ID:84

In eukaryotes, a specific cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) activity is required for the activation of loaded helicases to initiate replication. On the contrary, this CDK activity inhibits the loading of helicases onto the origin of replication. Considering the fact that during each cycle, there is only one opportunity for helicases to be loaded on to origins and only one opportunity for these helicases to be activated, which one of the following graphs best depicts this CDK activity in G1and S phases of cell cycle? (1)

QUESTION ID:85

Polysome profiling of cells treated with three hypothetical translation inhibitors is shown in the plot below. These three inhibitors are

(i) CHP – leaky inhibitor of translation

(ii) LTM – arrests ribosomes at the initiation codon

(iii) PTM – inhibits ribosome scanningMatch the polysome profile to the inhibitor

QUESTION ID:86

In mammals CG rich sequences are usually methylated at C, which is a way for making genes for silencing. Although the promoters of housekeeping genes are often associated with CpG islands yet they are expressed in mammals. Which one of the following best explains it?

QUESTION ID:87

In an experiment, red blood cells were subjected to lysis and any unbroken cells were removed by centrifugation at 600g. The supernatant was taken and centrifuged at 100,000g, the pellet was extracted with 5M NaCl and again centrifused at 100,000g. Which of the following protein will be present in supernatant?

QUESTION ID:88

In order to study intracellular trafficking of protein ‘A’, it was tagged with GFP (A-GFP). Fluorescence microscopy showed that A-GFP co-localizes with LAMP1. In the presence of bafilomycin A, an inhibitor of H+- ATPase, A-GFP does not co-localize with LAMP1. Instead, it localizes with LC3 puncta. Which one of the following statements is true?

QUESTION ID:89

In animals, four separates families of cell – cell adhesion proteins are listed in Column A and their functional characteristics are given in Column BWhich one of the following is the correct combination?

QUESTION ID:90

A student treated cancer cells with an anticancer drug and perform western blot analysis. Which one of the following blots is the best representation under the control (C) and treated (T) samples? (3)

QUESTION ID:91

In Trypanosomes, a 35 base leader sequence is joined with several different transcripts making functional mRNAs. The leader sequence is joined with the other RNAs by

QUESTION ID:92

Following are the list of the pathogens (column A) and the unique mechanisms they employ for invading the immune response (column B).Which of the following is the correct match between the organism and their respective mechanism to evade immune response?

QUESTION ID:93

Two steroid hormone receptors X and Y both contain a ligand binding domain. Using recombinant DNA technology, a modified hybrid receptor H is prepared such that it contains the ligand binding domain of X and DNA binding domain of Y. three sets of cells overexpressing receptors X, Y and H were then treated separately either with hormone X or with hormone Y. assuming that there is no cross– reactivity, which one of the following graphs best represent the receptor – ligand binding in each case?

QUESTION ID:94

A protein X is kept inactive state in cytosol as complexed with protein Y. Under certain stress stimuli, Y gets phosphorylated resulting in its proteasomal degradation. X becomes free, translocates to the nucleus and results in the transcription of a gene which causes cell death byapoptosis. Stress stimuli were given to the following four different cases

Case A: Protein Y has a mutation such that phosphorylation leading to proteasomal degradation does not occur.

Case B: Cells are transfected with a gene which encodes for a protein L that inhibits the translocation of protein Y to the nucleus.

Case C: Cells are transfected only with a empty vector used to transfect the gene for protein L

Case D: Cells are treated with Z-VAD–FMK, a broad spectrum caspase inhibitor. Which of the following graphs best describes the apoptotic state of the cells in the above cases?

Y-axis represents % apoptotic cells.

QUESTION ID:95

Consider the following events which occur during fertilization of sea urchin eggs.

A. Resact/Speract are peptides released from the egg jelly and help in sperm attraction.

B. Bindin, an acrosomal protein interacts in a species specific manner, with eggs.

C. A “respiratory burst” occurs during cross-linking of the fertilization envelope, where a calcium- dependent increase in oxygen level is observed.

D. IP3, which is formed at site of sperm entry, sequesters calcium leading to cortical granule exocytosis.

Which of the above statement(s) is NOT true?

QUESTION ID:96

Following statement were given regarding decisions taken during development of mammalian embryos

A. Pluripotency of inner cell mass is maintain by a core of three transcription factors, Oct 4, Sox 2 and nanog.

B. Prior to blastocyst formation each blastomere expresses both Cdx 2 and the Oct 4 transcription factors and appears to be capable of becoming either ICM or trophoblast .

C. Both ICM and trophoblast cells synthesize transcription factors Cdx 2.

D. Oct4 activates Cdx2 expression enabling some cells to become trophoblast and other cells to become ICM.

Which of the above statement are true?

QUESTION ID:97

Apoptosis during early development is essential for proper formation of different structures. In C. elegans, apoptosis is accentuated by ced-3 and ced-4 genes, which in turn are negatively regulated by ced-9 and eventually Egl-1. When compared to mammals, functionally similar homolog has been identified. Accordingly, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

QUESTION ID:98

Which one of the following statements regarding B cell receptor (BCR) and T cell receptor (TCR) is not true?

QUESTION ID:99

In case amphibians, the dorsal cells and their derivatives are called as “Spemann – Mangold organizer”. Following statements are related to the “organizer” were made:

A. It induces the host’s ventral tissues to change their fates to form neural tube and dorsal mesodermal tissues.

B. It cannot organize the host and donor tissues into a secondary embryo.

C. It does not have the ability to self-differentiate into dorsal mesoderm

D. It has ability to initiate the movements of gastrulation.

E. Both β-catenin and Chordin are produced by the organizer

Which of the above statements are correct?

QUESTION ID:100

Driesch performed famous “pressure plate” experiments involving intricate recombination with 8-celled Sea urchin embryo. This procedure reshuffled the nuclei that normally would have been in the region destined to form endoderm into the presumptive ectoderm region. If segregation of nuclear determinants had occurred, resulting embryo should have been disordered. However, Driesch obtained normal larvae form these embryospossible interpretations regarding the 8-celled sea urchin embryo are:

A. The prospective potency of an isolated blastomere is greater than its actual prospective fate

B. The prospective potency and prospective fate of blastomere were identical

C. Sea-urchin embryo is a “harmoniously equipotential system” because all of its potentially independent parts interacted together to form single embryo.

D. Regulative development occurs where location of a cell in the embryo determines its fate.

Which of the interpretation(s) is/are true?

QUESTION ID:101

Read the following statements related to plant pathogen interaction

A. Systemic acquired resistance is observed following infection by compatible pathogen

B. Induce systemic resistance is activated following infection by compatible pathogen

C. A bacterial infection can induce effector triggered immunity (ETI) leading to hypersensitive response locally

D. NPR1 monomers that are released in cytosol due to salicylic acid accumulation is rapidly translocated to nucleus

Which combination of above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:102

Given below are statements describing various features of solute transport and photoassimilate translocation in plants:

A. Apoplastic phloem loading of sucrose happens between cells with no plasmodesmatal connections.

B. Growing vegetative sinks (e.g. young leaves and roots) usually undergo symplastic phloem unloading

C. Movement of water between the phloem and xylem occurs only at the source and sink regions

D. Symplastic loading of sugars into the phloem occurs in the absences of plasmodesmatal connections

Select the option that gives combination of correct statements:

QUESTION ID:103

 Given below are names of phytohormones in column I and their associated features/effects/function in column II.Select the correct set of combinations from the options given below;

QUESTION ID:104

If in a blood transfusion, type A donor blood is given to recipient having type B blood, the red blood cells (RBC) of donor blood would agglutinate but the recipients RBCs would be least affected. These observations can be explained in the following statements.

A. Agglutininins in recipient’s plasma caused agglutination by binding with type Aagglutinogens.

B. The agglutinins of donor blood was diluted in recipient’s plasma resulting in low agglutination.

C. Low titre of anti-A agglutinins is the cause of low agglutinations of recipients RBC’s.

D. High agglutination of donor RBC’s is the outcome high titre of anti-B agglutinins

Which of the above statement(s) is/are INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:105

The arterial pressure usually raises and falls 4 to 6 mm Hg in a wave like manner causing “respiratory waves”. The probable mechanism of these waves has been proposed in the following statements:

A. The more negative intrathoracic pressure during inspiration reduces the quantity of blood returning to the left side of the heart causing decreased cardiac output.

B. The changes of intrathoracic pressure during respiration can excite vascular and atrial stretch receptors which affect heart and blood vessels.

C. The activity of medullary respiratory centers can influence the vasomotor center.

D. The “respiratory waves” are outcome of the oscillation of the central nervous system ischemic pressure control mechanism.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are NOT appropriate?

QUESTION ID:106

The uptake of nitrous oxide (N2O) and carbon monoxide (CO) in the blood of lung alveolar capillary relative to their partial pressure and the transit time of red blood cell in capillary is shown in the figure below:The reason for difference in the pattern of alveolar gas exchange of N2O and CO have been proposed in the following statements:A. N2O does not chemically combine with proteins in blood but equilibrate rapidly between alveolar gas and blood.B. CO has high solubility in the bloodC. CO has high solubility in the alveolar capillary membrane.D. The dispersion of N2O between alveolar gas and blood is considered as diffusion limited.Which of the above statement(s) is/are INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:107

Individual and overlapping expression of homoeotic genes in adjacent whorls of a flower determine the pattern of floral organ development. In an Arabidopsis mutant, floral organs are distributed as follows:Whorl 1 (outer most) – carpelWhorl 2 – stamensWhorl 3 - stamensWhorl 4 (inner most) – carpelLoss of function mutation in which one of the following genes would have caused the above pattern of floral organ development?

QUESTION ID:108

In photosynthetic electron transport, electrons travel through carriers organized in the “Z-scheme”. The following are indicated as directions of electron flow:

A. P680 → PQA→ PQB→Cytb6f → Pheo →PC→ P700

B. P700 → A0→A1→FeSx→FeSA→FeSB→Fd

C. P680→Pheo→PQA→ PQB→Cytb6f →PC →P700

D. P700 →A1→A0→FeSB→FeSA→FeSX→Fd

Which of the following combinations is correct?

QUESTION ID:109

Phytochrome-mediated control of photomorphogenesis is linked to many other gene functions. The following statements are made on the mechanism of phytochrome action:

A. Phytochrome function requires COP1, an E3 ubiquitin ligase that brings about protein degradation.

B. COP1 is slowly exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm in the presence of light.

C. HY5 is targeted by COP1 for degradation in the presence of light.

D. HY5 is a transcription factor involved in photomorphogenetic response.

Which of the following combinations is correct?

QUESTION ID:110

The C4 carbon cycle is a CO2 concentrating mechanism evolved to reduce photorespiration. The following are stated as important features of the C4 pathway:

A. The leaves of C4 plants have Kranz anatomy that distinguishes mesophyll and bundle sheath cells.

B. In the peripheral mesophyll cells, atmospheric CO2 is fixed by phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase yielding a four-carbon acid.

C. In the inner layer of mesophyll, NAD-malic enzyme decarboxylates four-carbon acid and releases CO2.

D. CO2 is again re-fixed through Calvin cycle in the bundle sheath cells.

Which one of the following combinations is correct?

QUESTION ID:111

External pressure given on a mixed nerve causes loss of touch sensation while pain sensation remains relatively intact. On the other hand, application of local anesthetics on the same nerve, induces loss of pain sensation keeping touch sensation least affected. These observations can be explained by the following statements:

A. External pressure causes loss of conduction of impulses in small diameter sensory nerve fibres.

B. Local anesthetics depress the conduction of impulses in large diameter sensory nerve fibres.

C. Touch-induced impulses are carried by fibre Type A

D. Fibre type C is responsible for pain sensation

Which of the above statement(s) is/are INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:112

The probable effects of lesion of left optic tract on the vision of a human subject are given below. Identify the correct statement.

QUESTION ID:113

Inversions are considered as cross-over suppressors because:

QUESTION ID:114

Three met- E. coli mutant strains were isolated. To study the nature of mutation these mutant strains were treated with mutagens EMS or proflavins and scored for revertants. The results obtained are summarized below:(+ stands for revertants of the original mutants and – stands for no revertants obtained).Based on the above and the typical mutagenic effects of EMS and proflavin, what was the nature of the original mutation in each strain?

QUESTION ID:115

The following pedigree shows the inheritance pattern of a trait.From the following select the possible mode of inheritance and the probability that the daughter in generation III will show the trait.

QUESTION ID:116

A pair of alleles govern seed size in a crop plant. ‘B’ allele responsible for bold seed is dominant over ‘b’ allele controlling small seed. An experiment was carried out to test if an identified dominant DNA marker (5kb band) is linked to alleles controlling seed size. A plant heterozygous for the marker and the alleles was crossed to a small seeded plant lacking the 5kb band. 100 progeny obtained from the cross were analysed for the presence and absence of the DNA marker. The result are tabulated below: Based on the above observations which one of the following conclusions is correct?

QUESTION ID:117

The following diagram represents steroidogenic pathway in the Zona Glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex:What do A, B and C represents, respectively?

QUESTION ID:118

The following scheme represents deletions (1-4) in the rII locus of phage T4 from a common reference point:Based on the above the predicted order of the point mutations is:

Four point mutations (a to d) are tested against four deletions for their ability (+) or inability (-) to give wild type (rII+) recombinants. The results are summarized below:

Based on the above the predicted order of the point mutations is

QUESTION ID:119

Following are the plots representing biological rhythms at different time points depicted as: SR = Sunrise ; N= Noon ; SS = Sunset ; MN = MidnightWhich of the plot(s) represents the ultradian biological rhythm(s)?

QUESTION ID:120

The Population of the Non-poisonous butterflies have the same the color pattern as some highly poisonous butterflies. Assume that the population of non-poisonous butterflies is higher than the poisonous butterflies. Given this, what will be the impact of this mimicry on the fitness of the population of the poisonous butterflies in the presence of the predator?

QUESTION ID:121

The given below is the graphical representation of the changes in morphological features over a period of the geological time scale, where population A accumulates heritable morphological features and give rise to distinct species B. Population B splits in to a distinct species B2Which of the following lineage represent the pattern of speciation by cladogenesis?

QUESTION ID:122

Red hair is a recessive trait in human. In a randomly mating population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium approximately 9% of individuals are red- haired. What is the frequency of the heterozygotes?

QUESTION ID:123

Interrupted mating experiments were performed using three different Hfr strains (1-3). The three strains have different combinations of selectable markers. The time of entry for markers for each strain is shown is shown in the table given.Using the above data, predict the correct sequence of markers on the E. coli chromosome.

QUESTION ID:124

Paripatus is an interesting living animal having unjointed legs, nephridia, haemocoel, trachea, dorsal tubular heart, claws, jaws, continuous muscle layers in body wall. This is considered as a connecting link between

QUESTION ID:125

The following schematic diagram represents secondary growth in angiospermsBased on above scheme which of the following option represents correct identity of the cambia labelled as A, B, C and D

QUESTION ID:126

The table below list the major fungal groups and their characteristics:Fungal Groups                          CharacteristicsWhich of the following represents the appropriate match between the fungal group and their characteristics?

QUESTION ID:127

As a biologist you want to classify three taxa, A, B and C. You have the information of the three traits, p, q and r. The trait that is ancestral is counted “0” and the trait that is derived is counted as “1”. The distribution of the trait found in the three taxa given belowBased on the above table the following cladograms were drawn:Based on the trait distribution and the principle of parsimony select the correct option:

QUESTION ID:128

Given below are some pathogens and diseases of humans, animals and plants.Pathogen                                                         DiseaseWhich of the following is the match between the pathogen and the disease caused?

QUESTION ID:129

Given below are statements pertaining to organisms belonging to three domains of life. Identify INCORRECT statement.

QUESTION ID:130

You observed the two species of barnacles, species 1 and species 2, occupy upper and lower strata of intertidal rocks, respectively. Only when species 2 was removed by you from the lowers strata, species 1 could occupy both the upper and lower strata. From the choice given below what would be your inference from these observations.

QUESTION ID:131

In natural system, a species producing large number of offsprings with little or no parental care generally exhibits which one of the following kind of survivorship curve (2)

QUESTION ID:132

Match the correct local names of temperate grasslands with their geographical range

QUESTION ID:133

Following is the hypothetical life table for speciesWhich one of the following is the correct net reproductive rate (R0)

QUESTION ID:134

Which one of the following statements is true for trends of the dissolved oxygen (DO) and biological oxygen demand in water stream receivingpollutants from point source

QUESTION ID:135

Following are the graphical representation of various hypothesis proposed for explaining the possible relationship between the species richnesson (X) axis and community services on (Y) axis.Which of the following is the correct match between the graphical representation and the hypothesis

QUESTION ID:136

Agobacterium Ti plasmid vectors are used to generate transgenic plants. The following are examples of vir gene encoded proteins that are important for transfer of T-DNA in to plants.

A- vir E, single stranded DNA binding protein

B- virD2 that generates T-strands

C- vir A that sense plant phenolic compounds

D- vir F which directs T complex proteins for destruction in proteasome

Which one of the following combination of the proteins functions inside the plant cell?

QUESTION ID:137

Researcher is investigating structural changes in protein by following tryptophan fluorescence and by Circular dichorism. Fluorescence and CD spectraof pure protein were obtaining the absence of any treatment (a), in the presence of 0.5 molar urea (b), upon adding acrylamide, a quencher of tryptophan(c) and upon heating (d) the data are shown below.Which one of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:138

Polynucleotide kinase (PNK) is frequently used for radio labeling DNA or RNA by phosphorylating 5’ end of non-phosphorylated polynucleotide gene.Which of the following statements about PNK is NOT true?

QUESTION ID:139

A gene encoding for protein X was cloned in an expression vector under the T7 RNA polymerase promoter and lac operator. Cells were incubated bythe addition of 1 mM IPTG at 370 c for 6 h. Cells were lysed and fractionised into insoluble bodies. Which one of the following strategies would you use to express protein X in the soluble fraction (cell free supernatant)?

QUESTION ID:140

Engineering of metabolic pathways in plants can be achieved by introduction and overexpression of appropriate candidate gene(s) using transgenictechnology. The figure given below represents a biochemical pathway in plants where a precursor molecule ‘A’ is converted in to products ‘T’ and ‘X’through a series of enzymatic reactions. Enzymes 1- 5 are involved in this pathway. Scientists attempted to increase the levels of ‘X’ by introducing additional copy of the gene for enzyme ‘5’ under transcriptional control of a strong constitutive promoter. However, the developed transgenic plants did not display a proportionate increase in the level of ‘X’.The following statements were proposed for explaining the above results: A- Enzyme ‘4’ has greater affinity for D than enzyme ‘3’B- Feedback inhibition of enzyme ‘5’ by compound X C- Substrate limitation for enzyme ‘5’Which of the above statement could represent probable reasons for NOT obtaining proportionate increase in the amount of ‘X’ in the transgenic plants?

QUESTION ID:141

A single copy homozygous transgenic plant containing the transgene 'A ' for fungal resistance was subsequently re-transformed with another gene' B' for conforming resistance to salt stress. The selection marker genes used for both the transformation experiment were different.Transgenic plant obtained following the retransformation experiment were screened for salt stress resistance and single copy event were identified by southern hybridization. These single copy event were self - pollinated. In the event of the two T-DNA (containing the A and B transgenes) getting integrated in unlinked location in all transgenic plants, the phenotypic ratios among the T1 progeny would be:

QUESTION ID:142

You are inserting a gene of 2 kb length in to a vector of 3kb to make a GST fusion protein the gene is being inserted at the E. coli site and the insert hasa Hind III site 500bp downstream of the first codon. You are screening for the clone with the correct orientation by a restriction digestion of the plasmidusing Hind III plus Bam HI (H+P) and Hind iii plus PSTI (H+P) the map of the relevant region of the vector is shown belowWhich of the plasmid shown above represents the clone in the correct orientation?

QUESTION ID:143

The frequency of M-N blood types in a population of 6129 individuals is as follows:The frequency of LN allele in this population is

QUESTION ID:144

Mayfair genes (HYPOTHETICAL) consist of a superfamily of transcription factors. They are found in 4 clusters in mammals; in 2 clusters in insects; andin a single cluster in an ancestor to insects. These data consistent with all of the following explanations EXCEPT:

QUESTION ID:145

Fluorescence recovery after photo bleaching (FRAP) is a method to estimate the diffusion of molecules in a membrane. Fluorescently labelled in a membrane such asi) a receptor tagged with green fluorescent protein (GFP)ii) a receptor labelled with GFP which interacts with cytoskeletoniii) a labelled lipidiv) a labelled protein that binds to the membrane surfaceare photo bleached and the recovery profiles ( a-d) were obtained to estimate their diffusion coefficientsThe following data were obtained.Which one of the combination is correct?