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Previous Year Questions

TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

In a group of students, 30% play only cricket, 20% play only football and 10% play only basketball. 20% of the students play both football and cricket, 15% play both basketball and cricket, 10% play both football and basketball. 15 students play no games, while 5% of the students play all three games. What is the total number of students?

QUESTION ID:2

Five persons A, B, C, D, and E are sitting in a row with C in the middle of the group. If D is at an extreme end and there are at least two persons between B and E, then which of the following statements is incorrect?

QUESTION ID:3

A sphere G of radius b is fixed mid-air and several spheres identical to the first one are shot at it with their velocities parallel to each other. If the shot spheres fall within an imaginary cylinder of radius a (b ≪ a) then the fraction of spheres that will hit G is

QUESTION ID:4

The distance from Nehrunagar to Gandhinagar is 27 km. A and B start walking from Nehrunagar towards Gandhinagar at speeds of 5 km/hr and 7 km/hr, respectively. B reaches Gandhinagar, returns immediately, and meets A at Indiranagar. What is the distance between Nehrunagar and Indiranagar? (assume all three cities to be in one straight line)

QUESTION ID:5

A leaf appears green in daylight. If this leaf were observed in red light, what colour would it appear to have?

QUESTION ID:6

Approximately how much blood flows per  day through a normal human heart beating 70 times per minute, having a relaxed volume of 110 cc and compressed volume of 70 cc?

QUESTION ID:7

The molar fraction of hydrochloric acid in an extremely dilute aqueous solution is doubled. The pH of the resulting solution is

QUESTION ID:8

The bar chart above shows number of seats won by four political parties A, B, C and D. Which party won the largest proportion of seats it contested?

QUESTION ID:9

Find the missing number

QUESTION ID:10

When Ramesh was at the age of 8 years, he hammered a nail into a large tree to mark his height. If the tree g much higher would the nail be after 5 years?

QUESTION ID:11

Find the next pattern in the following sequence:

QUESTION ID:12

For which of the following numbers is its positive square root closest to the number itself?

QUESTION ID:13

There are two gas parcels of equal volume, A and B at the same temperature and pressure. Parcel A is one mole of water vapour, while parcel B is one mole of dry air. Which of the following is TRUE?

QUESTION ID:14

Which one of the following graphs represents  

QUESTION ID:15

The number of three English letter words, having at least one consonant, but not having two consecutive consonants, is

QUESTION ID:16

A buys n copies of a book at 20% discount. B gets the same book at 30% discount. What is the minimum value of n for which B can buy one extra copy of the book, spending the same amount as A?

QUESTION ID:17

A bird flies along the three sides of a field in the shape of an equilateral triangle at speeds of 2, 4, 8 km/hr, respectively. The average speed of the bird is

QUESTION ID:18

The average staff salary of a company is ₹ 8000/-. A new guard and a new manager are recruited with salaries of ₹ 5000/- and ₹ 20000/-, respectively. What is the current staff strength if the new average salary is ₹ 4000/- more than that of the guard?

QUESTION ID:19

A 100 m long fence is to be made by fixing a wire mesh on steel poles. Each pole has a 1 m vertical portion and a 1 m portion tilted at 45° to the vertical. What will be the area of wire mesh required?

QUESTION ID:20

DRQP is a small square of side a in the corner of a big square ABCD of side A. What is the ratio of the area of the quadrilateral PBRQ to that of the square ABCD, given A/a =3?

QUESTION ID:21

Choose the correct statement from the following:

QUESTION ID:22

Indicate the INCORRECT statement from the following:

QUESTION ID:23

What is the effect of sudden increase in the levels of ATP and citrate on an erythrocyte undergoing glycolysis?

QUESTION ID:24

The and values of a beta -strand composed of all D-amino acids will mainly occupy which quadrant in the Ramachandran plot?

QUESTION ID:25

In a signalling event, binding of an extracellular ligand activates G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) that eventually activates phospholipase C-beta Which one of the following statements truly reflects the function of phospholipase C-beta ?

QUESTION ID:26

Select a cellular body which is NOT a part of the nuclear bodies:

QUESTION ID:27

Which one of the following statements about chromatin is NOT true?

QUESTION ID:28

During eukaryotic cell division, metaphase to anaphase transition is regulated by degradation of

QUESTION ID:29

One of the mechanisms used by bacteria for adaptation to changed environment is altering transcription of their genes. In this regard, which one of the following responses is NOT found in bacteria?

QUESTION ID:30

Which one of the following lambda proteins acts both as an activator and repressor of transcription?

QUESTION ID:31

A highly specific inhibitor that targets the phosphorylation activity of TFIIH is added to an in vitro transcription reaction. Which one of the following steps is most likely to be affected?

QUESTION ID:32

During eukaryotic protein synthesis, stress conditions result in activation of specific kinases leading to phosphorylation of a key translation initiation factor that inhibits protein synthesis from a large number of cellular mRNA. Which one of the following factors is the target of the kinase?

QUESTION ID:33

Proteins with cytoplasmic domains having tyrosine kinase activity do NOT act as receptors for

QUESTION ID:34

Which one of the following is a group of signalling molecules that act as morphogens during development of an organism and its effects are mediated through the receptor Patched and its binding partner Smoothened?

QUESTION ID:35

Junctions which tether cytoskeletal filaments inside the cell are known as

QUESTION ID:36

Which one of the following human serum immunoglobulins takes part in classical complement fixation pathway?

QUESTION ID:37

Match the following cleavage patterns with the species in which they occur.

QUESTION ID:38

Which one of the following statements regarding limb development in mice is true?

QUESTION ID:39

Based on ABC model during flower development, loss of class A activity results in the formation of only stamen and carpel. Which of the following floral organ identity genes controls the class A activity?

QUESTION ID:40

In a given experiment, transplantation of micromeres from the vegetal pole of a 16-cell sea urchin embryo onto the animal pole of a host 16-cell sea urchin embryo would initiate:

QUESTION ID:41

Which one of the following is NOT a phenotype of dark-grown seedlings that are etiolated?

QUESTION ID:42

Which one of the following is the correct function of JAZ (JASMONATE ZIMDOMAIN) protein family, a key regulator of Jasmonic Acid (JA) signalling response?

QUESTION ID:43

The plant hormone, Gibberellic Acid is generally NOT associated with

QUESTION ID:44

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for Casparian strip?

QUESTION ID:45

Which one of the following is NOT involved with the absorption of iron in the intestine?

QUESTION ID:46

In which one of the body fluids is K+ concentration higher than that of Na+?

QUESTION ID:47

Mammillary bodies are present in

QUESTION ID:48

Reflex ovulation does NOT occur in

QUESTION ID:49

Two mutant plants, both bearing white flowers, were crossed. All F1 plants had red coloured flowers. When an F1 plant was selfed it produced progeny with either red or white coloured flowers in 9:7 ratio. Based on this information, which one of the following conclusions is correct?

QUESTION ID:50

In a linkage map, two genes A and B, are 70 cM apart. If individuals heterozygous for both the genes are test crossed number of progeny with parental phenotype will be:

QUESTION ID:51

A researcher exposed Drosophila larvae to 37°C during their growth. One of the adult flies that emerged had a crossveinless phenotype. Crossveinless is a known mutantin Drosophila. When this crossveinless fly was crossed to a known crossveinless mutant fly all the progeny had normal phenotype. The observed phenotype can be best explained as an example of

QUESTION ID:52

Phages are collected from an infected E. coli donor strain of genotype  and used to transduce a recipient of genotype cys+ leu- thr+ cys- leu- thr-  The treated recipient population is plated on a minimal medium supplemented with leucine and threonine. Many colonies grew. Which one of the following combination of genotypes are appropriate for the colonies that grew?

QUESTION ID:53

Given below are growth equations where dN/dt is defined as
A. rN/K
B. rN
C. rN[(K-N)/N]
D. rN[(K-N)/K]
With reference to the above equations, which one of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:54

Among the following statements which is the correct one that refers to a Holotype?

QUESTION ID:55

Which one of the following statements is true about xylem in plants?

QUESTION ID:56

Identify the plant species from which artemisinin, an anti-malarial drug, is extracted.

QUESTION ID:57

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about a keystone species?

QUESTION ID:58

A species whose life history strategies allow for high intrinsic rates of increase (rstrategist) will also exhibit the following EXCEPT

QUESTION ID:59

In the context of diversity patterns of species, which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:60

Given below is an ecological pyramid. The above pyramid represents:

QUESTION ID:61

Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE about the Neutral Theory as proposed by Motoo Kimura?

QUESTION ID:62

Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE about homologous characters?

QUESTION ID:63

Which one of the following trees represents a fully resolved phylogram?

QUESTION ID:64

The rank/abundance plot given below illustrates three well known species abundance curves (a, b, c). Based on the shapes of the curves select the correct option.

QUESTION ID:65

Which one of the following microscopes would you use to visualize a protein fused to an appropriate reporter in a living cell?

QUESTION ID:66

Which one of the following statements regarding use of hybrid nucleases for plant genome engineering is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:67

Which one of the following statements regarding proteins is CORRECT?

QUESTION ID:68

Which of the following host systems is best suited to express large amounts of glycosylated protein for structural studies?

QUESTION ID:69

Which of the following statements about YACs is FALSE?

QUESTION ID:70

In an intact cell patch-clamp experiment,

QUESTION ID:71

Match the coenzymes in column I serving as transient carriers of specific atoms or functional groups in column II Select correct combinations from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:72

Out of the statements mentioned below
A. L-threonine and L-allo-threonine interact identically with plane polarized light.
B. van der Waals’ interactions are always attractive.
C. Poly (pro) II-helix is not stabilized by intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
D. The folding of a protein is associated with an overall positive change in free energy and negative change in entropy.
E. Lysine acetylation on histone is associated with loosening of the histone complex from DNA.
Which of the following combinations is CORRECT?

QUESTION ID:73

The following statements are made:
A. alpha and beta  anomers of glucose are interconvertible and the ratio of their abundance is 1:2, respectively.
B. Single chain lipids (≥C14) form micelles and double chain lipids form bilayers in water.
C. Proline is energetically favoured at the C-  termini of an alpha-helix than at the N-termini.
D. Major groove of DNA readily accommodates several common structural motifs in protein 􀀊 than the minor groove.
E. Replacement of a canonical Watson-Crick pairing by Wobble base pairs does not change 􀀊the surface properties in t-RNA.
Which one of the following combinations is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:74

From the following statements
A. Enzymes enhance reaction rates by a factor of 2 to 10.
B. The activation energy for a reaction is lowered by enzymes.
C. The interactions between enzymes and substrates are hydrogen bonding, hydrophobic and ionic.
D. Substrate concentration does not affect the rate of enzyme catalyzed reactions.
Pick the combination with all INCORRECT statements.

QUESTION ID:75

Match the chemical agents that interfere in oxidative phosphorylation process with their respective mode of action. Choose the correct combination from below:

QUESTION ID:76

A polymer is synthesized from an achiral amino acid. Conformation of the polymer can be investigated by the following techniques.
A. Fibre diffraction
B. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy
C. Circular dichroism spectroscopy
D. Differential scanning calorimetry
Choose the combination which would indicate that the polymer adopts a helical conformation

QUESTION ID:77

Sphingolipids (S) and cholesterol (C) molecules of the lipid bilayer aggregate into multiple tiny rafts instead of a single one. Considering that size of a lipid raft depends on the affinity of S and C for one another and other lipids in the membra choose the option that best describes this property.

QUESTION ID:78

To understand the microtubule-dependent motor activity of a freshly purified motor protein from budding yeast, a researcher set up microtubule based gliding assay. In such an assay where microtubules are fluorescently tagged at its (+) end, the researcher observed that this motor protein moves the microtubule in the direction of its (+) end as shown below The newly identified motor protein is

QUESTION ID:79

Given below are organelles (column A) and properties associated with the organelles (column B). Choose the option that matches the organelles with the most appropriate property.

QUESTION ID:80

Cell cycle checkpoints are surveillance mechanisms that ensure order and fidelity of events of the cell cycle. Given below are some of the checkpoint proteins and their functions.
Match the checkpoint protein with its function.

QUESTION ID:81

You have discovered a new transposon, TnX, and would like to identify its mode of replication. A heteroduplex of the TnX sequence is made with a few mismatches and introduced into bacteria. The newly transposed genomic loci are sequenced. You find that the sequence of the transposon matched exactly with one of its parent strands. This suggests that

QUESTION ID:82

To assess the impact of a newly identified drug when added to a culture of subconfluent HeLa cells, a researcher analyzes the fluorescence activated cell sorting (FACS) profile of untreated (- Drug) versus treated (+ Drug) cells.
Based on the FACS profile shown above, this drug inhibits

QUESTION ID:83

Following table lists the two major forms of DNA duplexes, conformation of base attached to the sugar and the nature of major and minor grooves.
Which of the following combination correctly depicts the types of DNA duplexes and their properties (numbered within bracket)?

QUESTION ID:84

Imagine the following RNA sequence is translated in the mammalian cytosol and mitochondria. RNA sequence:
AUG AUA CUG UGA CUU AGG CUC UAA
Following are some putative peptide sequences Find out the correct combination of peptides made in the cytosol and mitochondria.

QUESTION ID:85

In all organisms, it is critical that replication initiation be tightly controlled to ensure that chromosome number and cell number remain appropriately balanced. Given below are several statements regarding regulation of replication in E. coli.
A. Hemimethylation and sequestration of oriC (origin of replication) by a protein called SeqA prevents initiation of replication.
B. Availability of DnaA protein is an important requirement for initiation of replication.
C. The ratio of ADP : ATP is important as high level of ADP is required for initiation of replication.
D. Recruitment of Hda protein by sliding clamp inhibits ATP hydrolysis required for initiation of replication.
Which of the above statements are NOT true?

QUESTION ID:86

In E. coli, though DNA polymerase I (Pol I) plays an essential role in the replication process, it is not the major polymerase. Instead, the enzyme responsible for advancement of replication fork is Pol III. From the four DNA structures (A, B, C and D) given below, students made several interpretations about the shorter arm being extended by Pol I and/or Pol III
Which one of the interpretation written below is correct?

QUESTION ID:87

tRNA genes of a Gram positive bacteria were sequenced. While some of the genes possessed sequence corresponding to the –CCA end of the tRNA, others did not. Interestingly, even the genes that lacked the sequence corresponding to the –CCA end of the tRNA were found to code for a functional tRNA. This is because

QUESTION ID:88

A construct (shown below) was generated to access the activity of bidirectional promoter (A and B) which has a common regulatory DNA element (X). The construct was used to transform E. coli.
The activity of the promoter (as shown in the graph below) is recorded in the presence of increasing levels of an E. coli encoded regulatory protein which binds to DNA
element X.
The above experiment is repeated in a mutant E. coli with mutation which abolishes binding of the regulatory protein to element X. Which one of the following graphs best depicts the activity of the reporter genes in the mutant strain?

QUESTION ID:89

In a type of signal transduction pathway, ligand binding to a receptor triggers activation of a receptor-associated kinase. This kinase may be an intrinsic part of the receptor protein or tightly bound to the receptor. Receptors in which the tyrosine kinase is an intrinsic part of it’s polypeptide
chain are called the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK). Which one of the following statements regarding RTK is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:90

Two classes of genes - proto-oncogene and tumor suppressor gene usually contribute to the development of cancer. Following are some of the statements regarding both the genes.
A. Proto-oncogenes result in the development of cancer by gain-offunction mutation whereas tumor suppressor gene leads to cancer development by loss-of-function mutation.
B. Proto-oncogenes result in development of cancer by loss-of-function mutation whereas tumor suppressor gene leads to cancer development by gain-of-function mutation.
C. Mutation in both the alleles of a proto- oncogene is required for induction of cancer whereas mutation in one of the two alleles in tumor suppressor gene is sufficient for promoting tumorigenesis.
D. Mutation in one of the two alleles in proto-oncogene is sufficient for induction of cancer whereas mutation in both the alleles of a tumor suppressor gene is required for promoting tumorigenesis

Which combinations of the above statements are true for both the genes?

QUESTION ID:91

Two important features which aid the development of a tumor and its metastasis are epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition and angiogenesis. A student tested four cell lines to determine their invasiveness and proliferation capability by checking the expression of VEGF-A, TWIST and Cyclin
D1. Which one of the following figures is most likely to exhibit the characteristics of a highly metastatic cancer cell?

QUESTION ID:92

Several types of molecules including the transmembrane glycoproteins can function as matrix receptors and co-receptors. However, the principal receptors on animal cells for binding most extracellular matrix proteins are the integrins. Which of the following statements is NOT true for integrins?

QUESTION ID:93

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules are encoded by a cluster of genes called MHC locus. There are several reasons why an MHC molecule on the surface of a cell is important. Which one of the following reasons is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:94

Oncogenic viruses could have either DNA or RNA genomes. Listed below are some oncogenic viruses (Column A), their genome types (Column B) and the cancers caused by these viruses (Column C). Find out the correct combination.

QUESTION ID:95

Identification of genes that are associated with the development of male and/or female gametophyte and embryogenesis in plants is facilitated by T-DNA mediated insertional mutagenesis. In an experiment, a transgenic plant was generated by insertion of T-DNA (containing a Kanamycin-resistance gene) into a gene “A”. Self pollination of the T0 plant generated F1 progeny that segregated in a 2:1 ratio for resistance:sensitivity to Kanamycin. These observations indicate that

QUESTION ID:96

During vulva development in C. elegans, the anchor cell produces Lin-3 protein which interacts with the Let-23 protein present on the six vulval precursor cells (VPCs) that form an equivalence group. The central lineage cell (P6.p) adopts the primary fate, the adjacent VPCs (P5.p and P7.p) adopt the secondary fate and the rest VPCs adopt the tertiary fate. Few mutants (Column A) and phenotypes (Column B) are listed in the table given below.
Match the correct mutant with the observed phenotype.

QUESTION ID:97

C. elegans embryo uses both autonomous and conditional modes of specification. Conditional specification at the 4-cell stage can be seen in the development of the endoderm cell lineage and also in the establishment of dorsal-ventral axis. Following are few statements regarding this:
A. If the P2 cell is removed at the early 4-cell stage, the EMS cell will divide into two MS cells and no endoderm will be made.
B. In pop-1 deficient embryos, both EMS daughter cells become E cells.
C. When the position of ABa and ABp was reversed, their fates get reversed and no normal embryo forms.
D. In embryos whose mother have mutant glp-1, ABp is transformed into ABa cell.
Which of the above statements are true?

QUESTION ID:98

Following are the events that might take place during dorso-ventral axis specification in early embryonic development of Drosophila:
A. ‘Torpedo’ receptor activation
B. ‘Pipe’ synthesis
C. A cascade of protease activity
D. ‘Cactus’ dephosphorylation
E. Entry of ‘Dorsal’ in the nuclei of syncytial  blastoderm stage embryo.
Which combination of the above events will occur in the presumptive dorsal side of the embryo deficient in maternal gurken?

QUESTION ID:99

What would be the effect on newt limb regeneration, if more than 90% of the nerve supply is severed before amputation?

QUESTION ID:100

Fertilization in sea urchin involves interaction of sperm Bindin with its receptor EBR1, a 350 kDa glycoprotein on the egg vitelline membrane. The plot given below shows the status of membrane potential and levels of EBR1, Na+ and K+ in an unfertilized egg

Which one of the following graphs best represents the condition within an egg 1-3 seconds after fertilization?

QUESTION ID:101

A specific Mitogen Activated Protein Kinase (MAPK) cascade comprising MEKK1(a MAP3K), MKK1 (a MAP2K) and MPK6 (a MAPK) is activated sequentially in that order in Arabidopsis plants upon perceiving certain abiotic stress stimuli. The activated MPK6 phosphorylates and activates a
transcription factor ‘X’, thereby making plant tolerant to the abiotic stress. Two different variants of MKK1 protein, a kinase inactive (KI) and a constitutively active (CA) forms were expressed independently in mkk1 mutant Arabidopsis plant. Considering
above facts, which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

QUESTION ID:102

Given below are some statements on secondary metabolites in plants.
A. Glucosinolates are synthesized by elongation in the length of side chains of their precursor amino acids.
B. All terpenes produced in herbs and spices are sticky, oily liquids which reduces the palatability (edible value) of these plants.
C. Cyanogenic glycosides are produced and stored in a toxic form in plants and are therefore more effective in defense against invading pathogens and herbivores.
D. The defense molecules, alkaloids (or their precursors), are gathered from plants and used by some insects for their own protection against predators.
Which one of the following represents correct statements?

QUESTION ID:103

A researcher developed quadruple mutant that disrupted the function of all phytochrome interacting factor (PIF) family members. The following hypotheses were proposed regarding the phenotype of the mutant plants when grown in dark:
A. Plants would show short hypocotyls
B. Plants would be etiolated
C. Light induced genes would be activated
D. The cotyledons would be open
Which one of the following combinations of the above hypotheses is correct?

QUESTION ID:104

The photon intensity captured by green plants is used in the following processes:
(i) Photosynthesis
(ii) Generation of heat
(iii) Production of toxic products such as superoxide, singlet oxygen etc.
(iv) Damage to D1 protein of PSII
Based on the above facts, photoinhibiton will happen when the

QUESTION ID:105

With reference to plant biotic interactions, match the terms of Column I with the most appropriate term of Column II

QUESTION ID:106

Transgenic tobacco plants over-expressing isopentenyl transferase (IPT) under the control of promoter region of Senescence- Associated Receptor kinase (PSARK) were exposed to drought for 15 days followed by re-watering for 7 days. The following hypotheses were proposed regarding changes in the transgenic plants at the end of 7 days of re-watering:
A. The plants would be wilted and fail to survive.
B. The plants would be healthy and survive.
C. The plants would show higher production of cytokinin compared to wild type plants.
D. The plants would show higher production of absicic acid compared to wild type plants.
Which one of the following combinations of the above hypotheses is correct?

QUESTION ID:107

The following statements describe the possible functions of the outer hair cells (OHC) of organ of Corti:

A. The outer hair cells (OHC) are depolarized or hyperpolarized depending on the direction of movement of stereocilia.

B. The OHC are lengthened in depolarization and shortened in hyperpolarization

C. The OHC decrease the amplitude and clarity of sound by shortening and lengthening.

D. The efferent nerve fibers of olivocochlear bundle modulate the sensitivity of the OHC

E. The effect of stimulation of olivocochlear bundle on the OHC is excitatory.

Which one of the options given below represents the correct statements?

QUESTION ID:108

The pacemaker cells of sinoatrial node (SA node) are inhibited by the stimulation of vagus nerve. The probable mechanisms of this inhibition are stated as follows:

A. The acetylcholine- regulated K+ channels are activated

B. The outward K+ causes hyperpolarization of pacemaker cells

C. The inward “funny current” of pacemaker potential is increased

D. The increased intracellular cAMP, induced by activation of M2 muscarinic receptors, slows the opening of Ca++ channels

Choose the answer with correct statements. 

QUESTION ID:109

In the glomerular capillary (GC), fluid moves into Bowman’s capsule through its almost entire length. But in the muscle capillary (MC), fluid moves into interstitial space at its arteriolar end. The difference between these two capillaries is explained in the following proposed statements:

A. Afferent and efferent arterioles are present on the two ends of GC, but in MC, arteriole and venule are present on two ends.

B. The hydrostatic pressure in GC is higher than that in MC.

C. The efferent arteriole in GC has a relatively low resistance, but venules in MC has a high resistance.

D. The difference of hydrostatic pressure between two ends of GC is relatively more but it is negligible in MC.

E. The difference of oncotic pressure between two ends of MC is negligible but it is relatively more in GC.

F. The net filtration pressure falls to zero at the efferent end of GC but it is 9 mm Hg inward at the venular end of MC.

Which of the above statements are INCORRECT? 

QUESTION ID:110

When a skeletal muscle was passively stretched, it contracted reflexly. However, when the muscle was over stretched in this way it showed sudden cessation of contraction followed by relaxation. The following statements provided the possible explanation of these observations:

A. The passive stretching of muscle caused stretching of muscle spindle

B. The over stretching of muscle stimulated Golgi tendon organ

C. Group 1b sensory nerve fibers were stimulated by stretching of muscle spindle

D. Group 1b sensory nerve fibers stimulated Alpha -motor neurons that supplied the muscle from which these fibers arose.

E. Group 1a sensory nerve fibers were connected to Golgi tendon organ.

F. The stimulation of group 1a sensory fibers led to the production of IPSP on the Alpha - motor neurons that supplied the muscle from which these fibers arose.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? 

QUESTION ID:111

Relative rates of red blood cells production in bone marrow of different bones of different ages are shown below: Identify the correct figure.

QUESTION ID:112

The above figure depicts the regulation of hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. Changes in cortisol level in Addison’s disease can lead to 

QUESTION ID:113

The following table shows mapping data from three interrupted mating experiments using three different Hfr strains and an F- strain

(Time is represented in minutes) The following answers are derived: The order of genes is

A. e g b d c f

B. f g b d c e

The distance between

C. f and g is 32 min and between f and b is 30 min

D. c and e is 28 min and between b and c is 20 min

The correct combination of answers is 

QUESTION ID:114

The inheritance of a given disorder is recorded in three small families shown below: Based on the above limited information, which one of the following inheritance pattern best explains the observations?

QUESTION ID:115

A new mutant called early ripening (EL) is identified in a plant. The wild type phenotype is late ripening (LR). Further DNA marker(s) is/are observed to be polymorphic between EL and LR plants. A cross was made between pure lines of LR and ER. The F1 progeny was test crossed and its progeny was analyzed. The parental, F1 and progeny of test cross were also analyzed for the DNA marker. The table below summarizes the phenotype of the progeny and the pattern of DNA marker observed in each case:

Based on the above information, the following statements were made:

A. LR is dominant to ER

B. The DNA marker used is a dominant marker

C. The DNA marker is linked to the phenotype

Which of the above statements are correct? 

QUESTION ID:116

In Burkitt’s Lymphoma a reciprocal translocation between chromosome 8 and 14 is observed. If an individual is heterozygous for this translocation, the consequence in meiosis will be as follows:

A. Four chromosomes, i.e., normal chromo- some 8 and 14, and translocated chromosome 8 and 14, pair together

B. The two normal chromosomes 8 and 14, and two translocated chromosomes pair separately

C. All gametes produced from this meiosis are non-viable as they have deletions and duplications

D. In one of the cross configurations called "alternate segregation" all gametes having normal or translocated chromosomes, survive

E. The gametes having normal chromosomes only survive while all gametes having translocated chromosomes are non-viable, hence the translocations are used as crossover suppressors

Which of the following combinations best describes the meiotic consequences for the translocation described above?

QUESTION ID:117

In Drosophila, Bar eye (B) is a dominant mutation while miniature wing (m) and yellow body colour (y) are recessive mutations. Heterozygous females for these mutations were crossed to normal eyed miniature winged and yellow body coloured males. Assume the following progeny was obtained: 

Based on the results obtained, the order of genes will be:

A. B m y

B. m B y

The genetic distance between B and y will be:

C. 40 cM

D. 17.1cM

The correct combination of answer is 

QUESTION ID:118

Two inbred lines of beans were intercrossed. In F1 the variance in bean length was measured as 2.0. The F1 was selfed to obtain F2 and the variance in bean length in F2 was 7.0. The broad heritability of bean length in the F2 population will be:

QUESTION ID:119

Euphorbiaceae generally represents milky sap bearing plants but there are also some non-milky sap bearing plants that belong to this family. Identify the correct combination of the following given plants which belong to family Euphorbiaceae.

QUESTION ID:120

Given below are statements on key characteristics of two fungal lineages.

(A) Microsporidia do not have true mitochondria

(B) Most chytrids produce flagellated gametes

(C) Microsporidia are usually free-living

(D) Chytrids reproduce sexually without a dikaryon stage

Choose the combination with correct statements

QUESTION ID:121

Match the two columns that represent plant organs (I) and parts within these organs (II). 

QUESTION ID:122

Given below are larval stages and phylum to which they belong. Select the INCORRECT combination.

QUESTION ID:123

During the course of evolution, the jawbones got modified into three ear ossicles in mammals. Which one of the following is a correct match of all three ear ossicles and their jawbones? 

QUESTION ID:124

Three species M, N and O when grown independently in a laboratory showed typical logistic growth curves. However, when grown in pairs, the following growth curves were observed.  What interpretation regarding the interspecific relationship between M, N and O can be deduced from the above observations?

QUESTION ID:125

Temporal isolation in breeding seasons between closely related species leads to reproductive isolation. Given below are breeding seasons of different species of frogs.

Which of the above plots represents temporal isolation in breeding seasons among closely related sympatric species? 

QUESTION ID:126

Given below are the population pyramids of three different populations A, B and C depicting the relationship between birth and death rates in each. Based on the population pyramids given above, which one of the following is INCORRECT? 

QUESTION ID:127

Given below are names of some of the National Parks of India and their key protected animals. Based on the table given above, which of the following options represents the correct match? 

QUESTION ID:128

Given below are two patterns of ecological succession. Four species are represented by A, B, C and D. An arrow indicates “is replaced by”.

In the context of ecological succession, which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to the figures given above.


QUESTION ID:129

Given below are the species accumulation curves and rarefaction curves measured in an ecological community Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT about the two curves? 

QUESTION ID:130

A gene ‘X’ in Drosophila contributes to inviability of hybrids. The phylogeny below shows the evolutionary history of gene ‘X’ and on each branch the numbers indicate the non-synonymous/synonymous substitutions.

Based on the above information, select the correct statement from the choices below: 

QUESTION ID:131

When the electrical response of the two receptors A1 and A2 in a noctuid moth that was exposed to a variety of sounds was measured, it produced the following patterns:   Given this, which one of the following statements is INCORRECT: 

QUESTION ID:132

A barn owl sits on its perch 10m above ground. It hears a mouse underneath on the ground at an angle alpha as shown in the figure below. The error range with which it can locate the mouse on the ground is given by


QUESTION ID:133

A 20-week old infant was exposed to the following stimuli and the responses were measured.  Based on the response patterns shown above to the given stimuli, select the correct theory that best describes the observed responses. 

QUESTION ID:134

When James R Brown and W Ford Doolittle (1997) reconstructed the tree of life using a variety of different genes, they found that different genes gave fundamentally different phylogenies as shown below. Note that the genes are unique to the specific trees.

From the given options select the process that best explains the observed discrepancies between the trees. 

QUESTION ID:135

Orchids of the genus Cryptostylis are known to maintain reproductive isolation because their flowers look and smell like females of the wasps of genus Lissopimpla. When the male wasp visits and attempts to mate with the flower, the shape of anther and stigma allows correct placement and transfer of pollen to the wasp, which then transfers the pollen to species specific flower that it next attempts to mate with. This prezygotic barrier that prevents inter-species cross-pollination in Cryptostylis is best explained by: 

QUESTION ID:136

Some of the following transgenic approaches could be used for functional characterization of endogenous genes in plants:

A. Transformation using a binary vector containing a strong enhancer element and lacking the right border of T-DNA

B. Transformation using a binary vector containing a promoter-less reporter gene sequence and a selction maker gene cassette within the T-DNA.

C. Transformation using a binary vector containing only a strong enhancer element and a selection marker gene cassette within the T-DNA.

D. Transformation using a binary vector lacking a reporter gene as well as both the left and right borders of T-DNA.

Which one of the following combinations can be used?

QUESTION ID:137

Match the following Vir proteins with their correct function during Agrobacterium mediated transfer of T-DNA to plant cells.

QUESTION ID:138

Match the technique with its appropriate application/use from the list of options given below

QUESTION ID:139

A researcher attempted to clone a 630bp coding sequence of a gene downstream to a bacterial promoter (500bp in length) for over expression and purification of the encoded protein. The gene sequence was isolated as a SmaI fragment (Recognition sequence: CCCGGG; arrow indicates the site of restriction) and cloned at a SmaI site located downstream to the promoter. The gene sequence contained a single site for EcoRI located 30bp downstream to the start codon. A schematic representation of the plasmid along with locations(s) of some restriction enzyme sites of the vector is given below.

The researcher screened the obtained colonies by a double digestion using HindIII and EcoRI. Which one of the following restriction digestion patterns would represent the restriction profile of the desired clone that could be used for overexpression?

QUESTION ID:140

To achieve a best resolution using a fluorescence microscope, what combination of wavelength of emitted light (λ), refractive index and the angle (2θ) by which light enters into the microscope would be the best choice for the user: 

QUESTION ID:141

Given below are spatial and temporal techniques (column I) used to detect brain activity (column II)  Select the correct set of combination 

QUESTION ID:142

Following observations are made regarding a peptide sequence.

- The peptide is inert to Ellman’s reagent. However, on reacting with beta-mercaptoethanol, the peptide gives a positive Ellman’s test.

- The peptide sequence gives a broad minimum around 211 nm in the CD spectrum.

- With increasing concentration of the peptide, the melting temperature of the peptide increases.

- On treating the peptide with D2O, half the total number of amides get exchanged.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:143

If a metabolically active cell is challenged with 55Fe radioisotope label, which of the following proteins CANNOT be detected by autoradiography?

QUESTION ID:144

Diagnosis of influenza virus infections can be done using some of the following techniques:

A. Western blot and Southern blot

B. Northern blot and western blot

C. ELISA and RT-PCR

D. PCR and electron microscopy

Choose the combination of techniques that correctly lists the detection methods. 

QUESTION ID:145

From the following statements:

(A) Coloured images can be obtained by transmission electron microscopy by fluorescent labelling of the specimen

(B) Scanning electron microscopy requires sectioning of the sample

(C) Confocal microscopy uses optical methods to obtain images from a specific focal plane and excludes light from other planes

(D) Differential-interference microscopy relies on interference between polarized light due to differences in the refractive index of the object and surrounding medium

(E) Visualization in epifluorescence microscopy requires staining by heavy metal atoms

Choose the combination with two correct and one incorrect statements.