QUESTION ID:2

At a birthday party, every child gets 2 chocolates, every mother gets 1 chocolate, while no father gets a chocolate. In total 69 persons get 70 chocolates. If the number of children is half of the number of mothers and fathers put together, then how many fathers are there? 

QUESTION ID:3

QUESTION ID:4

The curves of y = 2x2 and y = 4x intersect each other at:

QUESTION ID:5

The diameters of the pinholes of two otherwise identical cameras A and B are 500 µm and 200 µm, respectively. Then the image in camera A will be

QUESTION ID:6

If D = ABC + BCA + CAB where A, B and C are decimal digits, then D is divisible by

QUESTION ID:7

 For the following set of observed values:

{60, 65, 65, 70, 70, 70, 70, 82, 85, 90, 95, 95, 100, 160, 160}, Which of the statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:8

QUESTION ID:9

In an examination 100 questions of 1 mark each are given. After the examination, 20 questions are deleted from evaluation, leaving· 80 questions with a total of 100 marks. Student A had answered 4 of the deleted questions correctly and got 40 marks, whereas student B had answered 1O of the deleted questions correctly and got 35 marks. In this situation

QUESTION ID:10

A tourist drives 20 km towards east, turns right and drives 6 km, then drives 6 km towards west. He then turns to his left and drives 4 km and finally turns right and drives 14 km. Where is he from his starting point?

QUESTION ID:11

If 'SELDOON' means 'NOODLES' then what does 'SPUOS' mean?

QUESTION ID:12

An ideal pendulum oscillates with angular amplitude of 30° from the vertical. If it is observed at a random instant of time, it’s angular. Deviation from the vertical is most likely to be

QUESTION ID:13

In the context of tiling a plane surface, which of the following polygons is the · odd one out?

QUESTION ID:14

Scatter plots for pairs of observations on the variables x and y in samples A and B are shown in the figure.

Which of the following is suggested by the plots?

QUESTION ID:15

QUESTION ID:16

Find the missing figure in the following sequence?

QUESTION ID:17

QUESTION ID:18

Areas of three parts of a rectangle are given in unit of cm2, what is the total area of the rectangle?

QUESTION ID:19

A student is free to choose only Chemistry, only Biology or both. If out of 32 students, Chemistry has been chosen by 16 and Biology by 25, then how many students have chosen Biology but not Chemistry?

QUESTION ID:20

The lift (upward force due to air) generated by the wings and engines of an aircraft is

QUESTION ID:21

Which one of the following statements is true?

QUESTION ID:22

Which one of the following statements on 'protein conformation is NOT true?

QUESTION ID:23

Choose the correct answer from the following statements on biosynthesis.

QUESTION ID:24

Which one of the following statements on nucleic acids is NOT true? 

QUESTION ID:25

If one of the two fatty acyl chains is removed from the  phosphoglyceride by hydrolysis in solution, such phospholipids will form:

QUESTION ID:26

In metazoan cell cycle, metaphase to anaphase transition is regulated by the activity of:

QUESTION ID:27

Which one of the following statements is true about human chromosomes?

QUESTION ID:28

Which one of the following activities is NOT involved in protein folding in the endoplasmic reticulum?

QUESTION ID:29

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

QUESTION ID:30

What would be the tripeptide produced by translation of the transcript produced by the following DNA sequence? 3'-AAGTA CTCT-5'

QUESTION ID:31

Which one of the following statements is generally true about RNA polymerase II?

QUESTION ID:32

Viruses adopt different strategies to suppress immune response of the host. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

QUESTION ID:33

Which one of the following inactivates the serine/threonine protein kinase, mTOR, related to cell growth in mammalian system?

QUESTION ID:34

Match the following tumor cell origin with their nomenclature

QUESTION ID:35

Many cytotoxic T lymphocytes initiate killing of target cells via delivery of molecules that could induce targetcell damage directly. Which one of the following is the most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:36

Membrane-bound, Golgi-derived structures containing proteolytic enzymes in sperms of sea urchin are called

QUESTION ID:37

In case of Hydra, the major head inducer of the hypostome organizer is a set of Wnt proteins acting through the canonical β- catenin pathway. What would be the result, if a transgenic Hydra is made to globally mis-express the downstream Wnt effector β- catenin?

QUESTION ID:38

Both TGF β and Sonic hedgehog signals play important roles in both neurulation and cell-fate patterning of the neural tube. Which one of the following statements is true?

QUESTION ID:39

In which stage of Arabidopsis embryogenesis is hypophysis first observed?

QUESTION ID:40

Which one of the following mineral deficiency will first be visible in younger leaves?

QUESTION ID:41

The CO2 compensation point for C3 plants is greater than C4 plants because in C3 plants

QUESTION ID:42

Which one of the following best describes the function of Casparian bands during the translocation of nutrients and water across the root?

QUESTION ID:43

Which one of the following components is expected to be most abundant in the phloem sap of a plant?

QUESTION ID:44

Which one of the following is NOT secreted by capillary endothelium?

QUESTION ID:45

The "Mayer waves" in the blood pressure originate due to

QUESTION ID:46

The maturation of red blood cells does not depend on

QUESTION ID:47

Which one of the following is NOT a function of angiotensin II?

QUESTION ID:48

The pedigree below represents the inheritance of an autosomal recessive trait. What is the probability that individual '6' is a heterozygote?

QUESTION ID:49

The allele l in Drosophila is recessive, sex- linked and lethal' when homozygous or hemizygous. If a female of the genotype Ll is crossed with a male, what is the ratio of females : males in the progeny?

QUESTION ID:50

Deamination of bases is a common chemical event that produces spontaneous mutation. Which one of the following bases will be formed by deamination of 5- methylcytosine?

QUESTION ID:51

In a· population of 2000 individuals of a plant species, genetic difference at a single locus leads to different flower colours. The alleles are incompletely dominant. The population has 100 individuals with the genotype rr (white flowers), 800 individuals with the genotype Rr (pink flower) and the remaining have. genotypeRR (red flowers ). What is the frequency of the r allele in the population?

QUESTION ID:52

Which of the following plastid coding region(s) have been recommended as a core barcode by Plant Working Group of the consortium for the Barcode of Life?

QUESTION ID:53

Given below are some statements related to · lower eumetazoans. Select the INCORRECT statement.

QUESTION ID:54

Based on the type of excretion of nitrogenous waste, animals can be categorized as ammonotelic, ureotelic and uricotelic. Given below are combinations of groups of organisms and type of excretion. Select the correct combination.

QUESTION ID:55

Basal angiosperms are NOT represented by the members of:

QUESTION ID:56

Which of the following is the correct increasing order for the daily net primary productivity (NPP) per unit leaf area in different ecosystems?

QUESTION ID:57

The equilibrium model of island biogeography proposed by MacArthur and Wilson assumes that the number of species on an island represents a balance between

QUESTION ID:58

A population grows according to the logistic growth equation,

Where, dN/dt is the rate of population growth, r is the intrinsic rate of increase, N is population size and K is the carrying 'capacity of the environment. According to this equation, population growth rate is maximum at

QUESTION ID:59

What is the significance of upwelling zone for marine ecosystems?

QUESTION ID:60

Given below in Column A are schematic representations of three types of pairwise species interactions and the name of some interactions are in Column B

Select · the best match for interaction between column A & B in each schematic ·

QUESTION ID:61

Consider a single locus with 2 alleles which are at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency of one of the homozygous genotypes is 0.64, what is the frequency of heterozygotes in the population?

QUESTION ID:62

Competition for mates and variance in fitness is higher among females than among males in which of the following animal mating systems?

QUESTION ID:63

Which one of the following will have the least impact on allele frequencies in small populations?

QUESTION ID:64

Given below is a marker profile for two parental lines (P1 and P2) and their derived F1 progeny:

The marker that is represented in the above figure is most likely to be

QUESTION ID:65

DNA vaccines offer several advantages over other existing vaccine approaches. Which one of the following statements related to DNA vaccine is NOT correct? ·

QUESTION ID:66

The following cassette was designed to create estrogen receptor knock-out mice:

SoH: site of homology; GoI: gene of interest

What would ensure that proper recombination has taken place?

QUESTION ID:67

Detergents at low concentration generally do not denature proteins and are thus used for extracting proteins in their folded and active form. For isolation of Porins, an E. coli membrane protein, which one of the following purification approaches will be most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:68

Choose the correct answer from the statements indicated below:

QUESTION ID:69

Which one of the following statements regarding restriction/modifying enzymes used in recombinant. DNA technology is correct?

QUESTION ID:70

Which one of the following is used as a source of excitation in a confocal microscope?

QUESTION ID:71

Following are statements on β-turns:

A. All the 20 coded amino acids have equal propensity to form β -turns.

B. Pro cannot occur in β-turns.

C. Pro-Gly sequence strongly favours β-turns.

D. InAsn-Gly β-turns, Asn can have positive φ, Ψ values. Choose the combination with all correct statements

QUESTION ID:72

DNA melting temperature (Tm) was found to be 47°C and enthalpy measured at Tm was 0.032 kJ. The entropy change would be:

QUESTION ID:73

Match the following bonds with their approximate energies:

QUESTION ID:74

The following are some statements regarding glycolysis:

A. Glycolysis is not regulated by pyruvate kinase.

B. Lactate can be an end product of glycolysis.

C. Glycolysis cannot function anaerobically.

D. In erythrocytes, the second site in glycolysis for ATP generation can be bypassed.

From the above, choose the combination with both INCORRECT statements:

QUESTION ID:75

For a reversible non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme, choose· the plot that you would use to determine Km

QUESTION ID:76

An investigator expresses a GFP-fused protein that localizes to the outer membrane of Golgi apparatus. Upon visualising GFPsignal in the fluorescence microscope, it was noted that GFP is pericentrosomal in its localization (Fig A). Treatment of such GFP expressing cells with a newly identified drug disrupted the Golgi into small vesicles (Fig B).

Following is a list of potential targets of the drug:

A. Dynein complex

B. Myosin

C. Microtubules

D. Dicer

Choose the combination with all correct targets:

QUESTION ID:77

Following observation was made when a mammalian cell in one phase of cell cycle was fused with a cell in another phase of cell cycle:

A. Fusion of a cell in G1 phase with S phase caused the G1 nucleus to enter S phase.

B. Upon fusion of a G2 cell with an S phase cell, G2 cell does not enter S phase.

C. Upon fusion of a G1 cell with G2 cell, G1 nucleus enters G2 phase.

D. Fusion of an S phase cell with a M phase causes the S phase cell to immediately enter mitosis.

Choose the combination with all correct statements.

QUESTION ID:78

In an experiment, intact chromatin was isolated and digested with micrococcal nuclease in independent tubes for 30 min, 1 h, 2h, and 4h. Further, the DNA was purified from each tube, separated on agarose gel and Southern hybridization was performed with rRNA gene probe and a centromeric DNA probe.

Which one of the following patterns of signal intensity from both of the probes is likely to be obtained following Southern hybridization?

QUESTION ID:79

Which one of the following proteins is most likely to be found in the inter-membrane space of mitochondria? A protein containing

QUESTION ID:80

A single protofilament of microtubule grows at the speed of 2 μm/min. Considering that there is no catastrophe in the microtubule nucleation and the size of the tubulin unit is of the order of 5 nm, how many tubulin units are added to the growing microtubule per minute? 

QUESTION ID:81

mRNA of a gene was depleted in human cells using siRNA that arrest cells in the G2 phase of the cell cycle. In order to test whether the G2 arrest is due to an off-target or all on-target effect of siRNA mediated mRNA depletion, an investigator can:

A. re-introduce an ectopic copy ofthe gene coding for the wild-type mRNA and protein

B. re-introduce an ectopic copy of the gene that is different in its mRNA sequence at the siRNA target site but encodes for the same protein

C. re-introduce an ectopic copy of the gene that codes for-different mRNA and protein

D. utilize few more siRNAs targeting different regions of the mRNA in question

Choose the combination with correct statements:

QUESTION ID:82

Presence of selenocysteine in proteins in E. coli is a consequence of:

QUESTION ID:83

A DNA segment was cloned into the active site region of lacZgene and the recombinant plasmid introduced into lac Z- strain of E. coli and plated on a medium containing X-gal. The colonies showed blue color. Which one of the following statements is correct? ·

QUESTION ID:84

An intron in a yeast reporter gene carries a mutation in the splice site branch point (UACUAAC to UACA*AAC). To suppress the mutation, a library of point mutants of snRNAs was introduced into the mutant strain. The suppressor is most likely to have a point mutation in:

QUESTION ID:85

A researcher wanted to identify the enhancer· sequences of a newly discovered gene. Shown below are the relevant regions of some of the reporter constructs the researcher designed to identify the enhancer.

Which of the above constructs can be used to identify the enhancer?

QUESTION ID:86

In a genetic assay, randomly generated fragments of yeast DNA were cloned into a bacterial plasmid containing gene 'X' essential for yeast viability on minimal media. The recombinant plasmid was used to transform a yeast strain deficient in recombination and lacking 'X' gene. Transformants, which survive on minimal media and form colonies should essentially have: 

QUESTION ID:87

Following statements have been made about recombination in a diploid organism:

A. Recombination could be identified by genotyping parents and offsprings for a pair of loci.

B. Recombination frequency does not exceed 0.5, and therefore, 50cM would be the maximum distance between two loci.

C. Recombination is a reciprocal process. However, a non-reciprocal exchange may cause gene conversion.

D. Occasionally non-homologous recombination happens and this functions as a source of chromosomal rearrangement.

Select the combination with all correct statements.

QUESTION ID:88

Bacteria adopt different strategies to evade host defense mechanisms. From the lists of various different mechanisms and bacterial strategies against host defense given below, select the option representing all correct pairing. 

QUESTION ID:89

Bacterial chemotaxis response is mediated by histidine-kinase-associated receptors that activate a two component signalling pathway which enables chemotaxis receptors to control the flagellar motors. When bacteria move towards attractant, they produce smooth swimming by rotating flagella counter-clockwise, whereas when bacteria move away from repellent, they produce increased tumbling by rotating flagella clockwise. Which of the following characteristics regarding chemotaxis receptor is NOT true? ·

QUESTION ID:90

Following are a list of extracellular matrix proteins (Column A) along with their functional characteristics (Column B):

Which one of the following is the correct match?

QUESTION ID:91

A western blot analysis after treating cancer cells with a prospective anti-cancer drug is shown below:

The following assumptions were made:

A. The drug may have arrested the growth of cells at the G1 phase.

B. The drug targeted the JAK-STAT signalling pathway.

C. The drug led to apoptosis of the cells.

D. Drug-induced apoptosis was through the extrinsic or mitochondrial-independent pathway.

Which one of the following combination is correct?

QUESTION ID:92

Which one of the following statements regarding clonal selection hypothesis is NOT CORRECT?

QUESTION ID:93

Susceptible individuals were infected with pathogen A and pathogen B separately. Pathogen A has a very short incubation period and disease symptoms are already underway by the time memory cells are activated. Pathogen B on the other hand has a long incubation period which allows the memory cells to be activated and respond.

Which one of the following will be the most appropriate vaccination strategy against both pathogens A and B?

QUESTION ID:94

Human sperms are allowed to fertilize ova having non-functional ovastacin. The following possibilities may be of significance in the fusion of these gametes:

 A. The sperms will not fertilize ova.

 B. The sperms will bind and penetrate the zonapellucida but will not be able to fuse with ovum membrane.

 C. ZP2 will not be clipped by cortical granule protease. D. CD9 protein of egg membrane microvilli will not be able to interact with sperm membrane proteins in the absence of ovastacin.

 E. Polyspermy may occur frequently.

 Which combination of statements represent the outcome of the above event?

QUESTION ID:95

Temporal expression of N-cadherin is extremely important during early development of the mammalian embryos. Accordingly, which one of the following statements about N-cadherin is true?

QUESTION ID:96

The zygote of C. elegans exhibits rotational cleavage. When the first two blastomeres formed (P1 and AB) are experimentally separated, the following outcomes may be possible:

A. The P1 cell in isolation generates all the cells it would normally make, showing autonomous specification.

B. The P1 cell in isolation generates all the cells it would normally make, showing conditional specification. ·

C. The AB cell in isolation generates a small fraction of cell types it would normally make, showing conditional specification.

D. The AB cell in isolation generates a small fraction of cell types it would normally make, showing autonomous specification.

Which one of the above combination of statements is true?

QUESTION ID:97

Given below are some of the statements regarding regeneration: A. The type of regeneration characteristic of mammalian liver is considered as compensatory regeneration.

B. Regrowth of hair shaft from follicular cells exemplifies stem cell mediated regeneration.

C. Regeneration occurring through the re-patterning of existing tissues with little new growth is known as morphallaxis.

D. Adult structures undergoing dedifferentiation forming a blastema, that then re-differentiates to form the lost structure is called epimorphosis.

Choose the most appropriate combination of correct statements:

QUESTION ID:98

Following are certain statements regarding apomixis in plants:

A. Apomixis cannot be used to maintain hybrid vigor over many generations in plants.

B. In sporophyticapomixis maternal genotype is maintained.

C. There is an event of meiosis during gametophyticapomixis and is also referred as apomeiosis.

D. In diplospory, meiosis of the megaspore mother cell is aborted, resulting in two unreduced spores, out of which one forms the female gametophyte.

Which one of the following combinations is correct?

QUESTION ID:99

The following assumptions were derived from the above experiment:

A. Medium A contained FGF and PDGF.

B. Medium B contained retinoic acid.

C. Cells cultured in Medium B were determined to become functional neurons prior to addition of the medium.

Which one of the following combinations represents correct statements?

QUESTION ID:100

Following statements were made with respect to symbiotic association of rhizobia with legumes:

A. nod D is a regulatory gene.

B. Nod factors are lipochitin oligosaccharides.

C. Nod factors predominantly have α 1- 4 linked Nacetyl-D-glucosamine backbone.

D. Receptors (or Nod factors are protein kinases with extracellular sugar-binding Lys M domain.

Which one of the following combinations represents all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:101

A quadratic check of gene combinations and disease reaction types in a host-pathogen system where the gene-for-gene concept operates is represented below:

The following statements were made about. the above genotypes:

A. AR genotype had incompatible (resistant) reactions.

B. Ar genotype had compatible (susceptible) reactions.

C. ar genotype had compatible (susceptible) reactions.

D. aR genotype had incompatible (resistant) reactions.

Choose the combination with all correct statements.

QUESTION ID:102

Following observations were recorded while studying physiological parameters of sorghum and wheat under similar conditions:

A. Sorghum RUBISCO exhibits relatively higher affinity for CO2 compared to that of wheat.

B. Light saturation of net photosynthetic flux is relatively lower for sorghum compared to that of wheat.

C. Warburg effect is difficult to record for sorghum and could be said as "not measurable" whereas it could be easily recorded for wheat.

D. Temperature optimum for net photo- synthesis is lower for sorghum compared to that of Wheat.

E. 13C/12C ratio of assimilate is relatively higher for sorghum compared to that of wheat.

Which one of the following combination of the above observation is correct?

QUESTION ID:103

Following are certain statements regarding respiratory metabolism in plants:

A. Respiratory quotient during partial breakdown of carbohydrate (alcoholic fermentation) will be infinity.

B. Respiratory quotient indirectly provides information about (i) nature of the substrate used for respiration and (ii) the relative rate of competing respiratory processes.

C. Breakdown of organic acids in mature fruit will exhibit a respiratory quotient value of more than one since organic acids are relatively oxygen-rich compared to other common substrates.

D. Anabolic metabolism can influence respiratory quotient by removing reduction equivalents for respiration leading to decrease in oxygen uptake.

Which one of the following combination of the above statement is correct?

QUESTION ID:104

Sieve elements of phloem conduct sugars and other organic materials throughout the plant. The following statements were made about characteristics of sieve elements in seed plants:

A. Angiosperms contain sieve plate pores.

B. There are no sieve plates in gymnosperms.

C. P-protein is present in all eudicots and many monocots.

D. There is no P-protein in angiosperms.

Which of the following combination is correct?

QUESTION ID:105

The plant hormones, auxins and cytokinins, and their interactions play an important role in regulating apical dominance. The following figure represents an experiment related to the study of gene interactions that influence axillary bud outgrowth or dormancy. Q, Z and M represent genes involved in phytohormone pathway. Based on the above figure, the following statements were made:

A. 'X' is an auxin that maintains expression of 'Q' and 'Z' and represses 'M'.

B. 'Y' is a cytokinin that promotes axillary bud growth and is induced by 'M'.

C. Decapitation (removal of apex) activates

D. 'X' is a cytokinin that represses 'M'. 'X'

Which one of the following options represents correct statement(s)?

QUESTION ID:106

The conduction velocity of action potential in a myelinated nerve fibre was much greater than that of an unmyelinated fibre of the same diameter. The following statements were proposed to explain this observation:

A. The speed of conduction in a nerve fibre is determined by the plasma membrane resistance and axial resistance of axonal cytoplasm.

B. The electrical properties of myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibres are not similar.

C. The myelin sheath decreases theeffective membrane resistance.

D. The magnitude of an electrotonic potential decreases more with distance along the axon in myelinated nerve fibres than that of unmyelinated fibres.

E. The voltage-gated Na+ channels are highly concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier.

Choose one of the following combinations with both INCORRECT statements.

QUESTION ID:107

A four year old boy was brought to hospital for weak bones in spite of sufficient intake of calcium in his diet. The attending doctor examined the functioning of the following organs:

A. Liver

B. Kidney

C. Lung

D. Pancreas

Which one of the following options represents a combination of probable malfunctioning organs?

QUESTION ID:108

The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve illustrates the relationship· between pO2 in blood and the number of O2 molecules bound to haemoglobin. The 'S' shape of the curve has been explained in the following proposed statements:

A. The quaternary structure of haemoglobin determines its affinity to O2.

B. In deoxyhaemoglobin, the globin units are tightly bound in a T-configuration.

C. The interactions between globin subunits are altered when O2 binds with deoxyhaemoglobin.

D. The affinity to O2 in T-conflguration of haemoglobin is increased.

E. In the relaxed configuration of haemoglobin, the affinity to O2 is reduced. Choose one of the following combinations with both INCORRECT statements.

QUESTION ID:109

The changes in left atrial, left ventricular and aortic pressure in a cardiac cycle are shown below in the figure

Given below are the events of cardiac cycle (column A) associated with marked points (A, B, C, D) in the figure (column B).

Choose the option that matches the events with marked points in the figure.

QUESTION ID:110

A person recovered from a moderate degree of haemorrhagic shock. The participating physiological mechanisms in this recovery process are proposed in the following statements.

A. The decrease in arterial pressure after haemorrhage causes inhibition of sympathetic-vasoconstrictor system.

B. After haemorrhage, the angiotensin II level in blood is increased which causes increased re-absorption of Na+ in renal tubules.

C. The increased secretion of vasopressin after haemorrhage increases water retention by the kidneys.

D. After haemorrhage, the reduced secretion of epinephrine and nor-epinephrine from adrenal medulla induces decreased peripheral resistance.

E. In haemorrhage, the central nervous system ischemic response elicits sympathetic inhibition.

Choose one of the following combinations with both the correct statements.

QUESTION ID:111

A healthy individual was immersed in water up to neck in an upright posture for3h. The plasma concentration of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), renin and aldosterone were measured for 5 h at 1 h intervals including the immersion period. The results are graphically presented below.

The results of this experimental condition (EC) are explained in the following proposed statements which may be correct or incorrect.

A. ANP secretion is proportional to the degree of stretch of atria.

B. The decreased plasma renin concen-tration in EC is due to increase in sympathetic activity.

C. The decreased aldosterone level in EC is the effect of plasma renin level.

D. The effect of gravity mi the circulation is counteracted in EC. E. The central venous pressure is decreased in EC.

Choose one of the following combinations with all correct statements.

QUESTION ID:112

Several mutants (1-4) are isolated, all of which require compound E for growth. The compounds A to D in the biosynthetic pathway to E are known; but their order in the pathway is not known. Each compound is tested for its ability.to support .the growth of each mutant (l-4). In the following table, a plus sign indicates growth and a minus sign indicates no growth.

What is the order of the compounds (A to E) in the pathway?

QUESTION ID:113

Following is the picture of an inversion heterozygote undergoing a single crossing- over event 

The following statements are given towards · explaining the consequences at the end of meiosis.

A. The resultant two chromosomes will have deletions and duplications.

B. A dicentric and an acentric chromosome will be formed.

C. The inversion does not allow crossing over to occur, so even if a crossing over is initiated, it will fail to occur.

D. The crossing over is considered suppressed by inversion as the acentric chromosome will not segregate normally.

E. All the gametes formed with cross-over chromatids at the end of meiosis will be non-viable as they carry large deletion or duplication.

F. The gametes having non-crossover (parental) chromatid will survive.

Which combination of statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:114

Polymorphic DNA sequences are used for molecular identification. Short tandem repeats (STRs) and Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNPs) are used· as polymorphic markers.

The table below summarizes the status of autosomal. SNP, autosomal STR, mitochondrial SNP, Y- linked STR for four individuals related to each other, representing parents and their two children.

Based on the above data, identify the individuals representing the two parents.

QUESTION ID:115

An autosomal recessive condition affects 1 newborn in 10,000 in a random mating population without any disruptive acting force. What is the approximate expected frequency of carriers in this population?

QUESTION ID:116

Angelman syndrome (AS) and Prader-Willi Syndrome (PWS) have very distinct symptoms. Factors responsible for the occurrence of these syndromes are given below:

B. Uniparental disomy of maternal . chromosome 15.

C. Lack of functional maternal copy of , ubiquitin ligase E3A.

D. Lack of SNURF-Sl'-t'RPN transcript, which is produced only from paternal chromosome.

E. Deficiencies of small nucleolar RNAs, which are encoded from the introns of SNURF'-SNRPN transcript from paternal chromosome.

Which of the following combination of answers is correct for Angelman and Prader- Willi Syndromes

QUESTION ID:117

Using interrupted mating, four Hfr strains were analysed for the sequence in which they transmitted a number of different genes to a F- strain. Each Hfr strain was found to transmit its genes in a unique order as summarized in the table [Only the first five genes were scored].

Which one of the following correctly represents the gene sequence in the original strain from which the Hfr strains were derived as well as the place of integration and polarity of the F plasmid?

QUESTION ID:118

Given below is a list of bacteria either functioning as methanogens or methanotrophs:

A. Methanobacterium sp

B. Methanococcus sp

C. Methylomonas sp

D. Methylosinus sp

Which of the following options classifies the above list correctly?

QUESTION ID:119

The table given below provides a list of groups of Arthropods (A-D) and some features (I -V): 

Which one of the following options represents the correct match between the arthropod groups with these features?

QUESTION ID:120

In the following table, a list of threat categories and animals of India is given in an alphabetical order:

Which of the following options show correct combination of animals and their threat category as per Red Data list of IUCN?

QUESTION ID:121

Following table shows presence (+) and absence (-) of selected distinguishing characters of different plant taxa:

Based on the above, which of the following shows correct identity of taxa A, B, C and O?

QUESTION ID:122

Following table shows an alphabetical list of certain domesticated crops and places of origin:

Based Number of grass species on the above, which one of the following options represent the correct match between crops and their place of origin?

QUESTION ID:123

 A list of floral formulae and plant families are given in the following table

Which of the· following options most appropriately matches given plant families with their representative floral formulae?

QUESTION ID:124

Grassland plots with varying number of grass species were cultivated for 10 years. At the end of the experiment, total plant cover was measured. Soil nitrogen was also measured to assess its utilization by plants. The relationships are shown in the following plots.

Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above experiment? 

QUESTION ID:125

Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate option. Global analysis of a large number of plant species traits showed that with increase in leaf lifespan,

QUESTION ID:126

Forest fragments in an agricultural landscape can be viewed as islands of habitat in an ocean of non-habitat.

MacArthur and Wilson's island biogeography model can be used to predict patterns of species richness in these forest fragments which are represented ill the graphs below.

Which one of the following combinations of the graphs correctly represents predictions from the model?

QUESTION ID:127

In order to estimate population size of a fish species in a lake, a researcher captures 100 fish from the lake and marks them with coloured tags a week later, the researcher return to the lake and catches 150 fish of the and finds that 25 of them are tagged ones. Assuming no immigration or emigration occurred, the total population size of the fish species in the lake will be:

QUESTION ID:128

Given below is a graphical representation of plant life histories based on Grime's model in which disturbance and competition are the important factors. 

Which of the following options correctly represents A, B and C, respectively in the figure above?

QUESTION ID:129

Following table shows attributes of selected species A, B, C and D:

Based on the above information, which of the following is most likely to become invasive if climate matches between its site of origin and site of colonization?

QUESTION ID:130

Four drugs (A,B,C,D) were used to disrupt a biological rhythm in experimental animals. The changes in the pattern of the biologic. Four drugs (A,B,C,D) were used to disrupt a biological rhythm in experimental animals. The changes in the pattern of the biological rhythm as compared to untreated are shown below. The solid line represents the biological rhythm of the untreated and broken line represents that of the treated animalsal rhythm as compared to untreated are shown below. The solid line represents the biological rhythm of the untreated and broken line represents that of the treated animals

Which of the following interpretations from the above experiment is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:131

The phylogenetic tree below shows evolutionary relationships among 8 species. Males of these species are either blue (b) or red (r) in colour, the colour being indicated next to each species name.

Based on the principle of parsimony, which of the following statements best represents, the evolution of male body colour in this set of species?

QUESTION ID:132

An alphabetical list of tropical rainforest mammals from South America and Africa is given below:

Pair the species in the list to demonstrate the concept of convergent evolution between the two continents.

QUESTION ID:133

A study tested the importance of learning mechanisms in the development of antipredator escape responses in tadpoles of a frog species. Tadpoles hatched from eggs in the lab were kept individually either with predator chemical cues (PRIOR EXPOSURE) or without predator chemical cues (NAIVE) for 1 week.

These individuals were tested for their escape response when exposed to a live predator. They were tested either alone or together with 3 older experienced tadpoles. The graph below shows the escape response of the test individuals in the four different treatments.

Some of the inferences drawn are given below:

A. Prior exposure to predator cues is necessary for the development of escape response.

B. Prior exposure to predator cues positively influences the development of escape response.

C. The presence of older experienced individuals is necessary for the development of escape response.

D. The presence of older experienced individuals positively influences the development of escape response.

E. An individual with prior exposure and with older and experienced individuals showed the strongest escape response.

Which one of the following combination of statements represents the correct inference from the experiment?

QUESTION ID:134

Beak shape in birds has evolved in response to their diet. The table listing bird species and food type is given below:

Match the bird species shown above to their main food resource. 

QUESTION ID:135

Given below are four statements related to Agrobacterium-mediated transfer of T-DNA into plant cells:

A. Production of single-stranded T-DNA by VirD1 and VirD2 proteins.

B. Interaction of VirE2 with VIP1 and VirE3.

C. Use of VirB/VirD4 type IV secretion system.

D. Activation of VirA-VirG complex.

The correct sequence of events (from earliest to latest) is:

QUESTION ID:136

Construction of knockout mice may be performed using the Cre-LoxP system. Eventually, the Cre recombinase of the bacteriophage P1 mediates sitespecific recombination at a 34 bp sequence, lox P. From the following statements, choose the INCORRECT event:

QUESTION ID:137

Monoclonal antibodies can be modified for better research and therapeutic applications. Several such approaches are mentioned below (Column A) along with their possible applications (Column B). 

Which one of the following options represents a correct combination of terms in Column A and Column B?

QUESTION ID:138

Given below is a table comprising various terms associated with plant tissue culture in Column A and Column B.

Which one of the following options represents the most appropriate match between all the terms of Column A and Column B?

QUESTION ID:139

In an attempt to increase the yield of a commercially important enzyme from natural isolate several strategies were adopted as follows:

A. Genome was selectively modified to increase yield.

B. Reappraisal of culture requirements of the modified organism to increase yield.

C. Induced mutants were screened and selected for organism synthesizing improved levels of the enzyme.

D. Organism was genetically modified, so that it produces a factor that enhances stability of the enzyme.

Which one of the following options represents strategies that are appropriate for the purpose?

QUESTION ID:140

Given below are names of techniques (Column A) and their characteristic features/applications (Column B):

Which one of the following represents a correct match between Column A and Column B:

QUESTION ID:141

Three proteinsBlm 1, Blm 2, Blm 3 were shown to be involved in repair of DNA double strand breaks. A chromatin immunoprecipitation experiment was performed for the three proteins. The pattern of results obtained is shown below:

Based on the above figure, choose the option that correctly interprets the data.

QUESTION ID:142

The most important property of any microscope is its resolution (D). Which one of the following wavelengths (nm) would be used to achieve the best resolution using a light microscope with lenses having numerical aperture (NA) of 1.4?

QUESTION ID:143

Detailed NMR spectra of a 20-residue peptide were recorded using a 600 MHz instrument. If the peptide adopts an αhelical conformation, which one of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:144

Given below are names of statistical distribution (Column I) and their characteristic features (Column II) 

Which one of the following represents a correct match between columns I and II?

QUESTION ID:145

Highly purified peptides Pl, P2 and P3 were subjected to MALDI mass spectral analysis. The following observations were made: P1: Showed a m/z of 16 more than the expected value. P2: Showed a m/z of 80 more than the expected value. MS/MS spectra of the peptide resulted in a precursor ion with m/z 98 less than the expected m/z. P3: Showed a m/z that was double the expected value. [Note: z = + 1 for all the mass spectra.] 

Which one of the options given below comprises all correct interpretations?