Previous Year Questions

QUESTION ID:2

It takes 5 days for a steamboat to travel from A to B along a river. It takes 7 days to return from B to A. How many days will it take for a raft to drift from A to B (all speeds stay constant)?

QUESTION ID:3

"My friend Raju has more than 1000 books", said Ram. "Oh no, he has less than 1000 books", said Shyam. "Well, Rajucertainly has at least one book', said Geeta. If only one of these statements is true, how many books does Raju have?

QUESTION ID:4

Of the following, which is the odd one out?

QUESTION ID:5

A student appearing for an exam is declared to have failed the exam if his/her score is less than half the median score. This implies

QUESTION ID:6

Find the next figure 'D"

QUESTION ID:7

N is a four digit number. If the leftmost digit is removed, the resulting three digit number is 1/9th of N. How many such Nare possible?

QUESTION ID:8

 AB and CD are two chords of a circle subtending 60° and 120° respectively at the same point on the circumference of thecircle. Then AB : CD is

QUESTION ID:9

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above graph?

QUESTION ID:10

What is the minimum number of moves required to transform figure 1 to figure 2? A move is defined as removing a coin and placing it such that it touches two other coins in its new position.

QUESTION ID:11

The relationship among the numbers in each comer square is the same as that in the other comer squares. Find the missing number.

QUESTION ID:12

Which of the following best approximates sin(0.5°)?

QUESTION ID:13

What comes next in the sequence?

QUESTION ID:14

Which of the following statements is logically incorrect?

QUESTION ID:15

How many times starting at 1:00 pm would the minute and hour hands of a clock make an angle of 40° with each other in the next 6 hours?

QUESTION ID:16

Brothers Santa and Chris walk to school from their house. The former takes 40 minutes while the latter, 30 minutes. One day Santa started 5 minutes earlier than Chris. In how many minutes would Chris overtake Santa?

QUESTION ID:17

The set of numbers (5, 6, 7, m, 6, 7, 8, n) has an arithmetic mean of 6 and mode (most frequently occurring number) of 7. Then m x n=

QUESTION ID:18

The diagram shows a block of marble having the shape of a triangular prism. What is the maximum number of slabs of 10 x 10 x 5 cm3 size that can be cut parallel to the face which the block is resting?

QUESTION ID:19

A solid contains a spherical cavity. The cavity is filled with a liquid nd includes a spherical bubble of gas. The radii-of cavity and gas bubble are 2 mm and 1 mm, respectively. What proportion of the cavity is filled with liquid?

QUESTION ID:20

Fill in the blank: F2, _, D8, C16, B32, A64

QUESTION ID:21

The solubility of gases in water depends on their interaction with water molecules. Four gases i.e. carbon dioxide, oxygen, sulphur dioxide and ammonia are dissolved in water. In terms of their solubility which of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:22

Penicillin acts as a suicide substrate. Which one of the following steps of catalysis does a suicide inhibitor affect?

QUESTION ID:23

Which of the following ii NOT true for cholesterol metabolism?

QUESTION ID:24

Predominant interactions between phospholipids that stabilize a biological membrane include

QUESTION ID:25

Entry of enveloped viruses into its host cells is mediated by:

QUESTION ID:26

 Lateral diffusion of proteins in membrane can be followed and diffusion rate calculated by

QUESTION ID:27

Histone deacytalase (HDAC) catalyses the removal of acetyl group from N-terminal of histones. Which amino acid of histone is involved in this process?

QUESTION ID:28

Labelling of membrane spanning domain of any integral membrane protein in a given plasma membrane vesicle (without disrupting its structure) is successfully carried out by

QUESTION ID:29

E. coli is being grown in a medium containing both glucose and lactose. On depletion of galactose, expression of β-galactoside will

QUESTION ID:30

Error-free repair of double strand breaks in DNA is accomplished by

QUESTION ID:31

The -COOH group of cellular amino acids can form which of the following bonds inside the cell?

QUESTION ID:32

RNA interference is mediated by both siRNA and miRNA. Which one of the following statement about them is NOT true?

QUESTION ID:33

Following are some of the characteristics of MHC class I and class II molecules except one which is applicable only for MHC class I. Identify the appropriate statement.

QUESTION ID:34

Which of the following bacteria has subcellular localization in Iysosomes?

QUESTION ID:35

Which one of the following best defines an oncogene?

QUESTION ID:36

Which one of the following statements about receptor - enzyme is FALSE?

QUESTION ID:37

Bones of vertebrates embryonic are derived from

QUESTION ID:38

During development, if a cell has committed to a particular fate, it is said to be

QUESTION ID:39

The initial dorsal-ventral axis in amphibian embryos is determined by

QUESTION ID:40

Sperm cell behaviour during double fertilization in Arabidopsis can be stated as follows. Identify the INCORRECT statement:

QUESTION ID:41

Rhizobial genes that participate in legume nodule formation are called nodulation (nod) genes. The nodD-encoded protein

QUESTION ID:42

Which one of the following plant hormones use the two-component histidine kinase receptor system for signal transduction?

QUESTION ID:43

Which one of the following photoreceptors plays a role in day length perception and circadian rhythms?

QUESTION ID:44

Which one of the following is the correct order of electron transport during light reaction in the thylakoid membrane of chloroplast?

QUESTION ID:45

Insulin increases facilitated diffusion of glucose in muscle cells by:

QUESTION ID:46

The transport of fructose into the enterocytes is mediated by:

QUESTION ID:47

The cell bodies of sympathetic-preganglionic neurons are located in:

QUESTION ID:48

The di- and tripeptides are transported in the enterocytes by peptide transporter I that

QUESTION ID:49

Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:50

A mouse carrying two alleles of insulin-like growth factor II (lgf2) is normal in size; whereas a mouse that carries two mutant alleles lacking the growth factor is dwarf. The size of a heterozygous mouse carrying one normal and one mutant allele depends on the parental origin of the wild type allele. Such pattern of inheritance is known as

QUESTION ID:51

Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:52

What is the genotype of a male Drosophila fly that has yellow body colour and red eyes. Brown (Y+) is dominant over yellow (Y) and red (W+) is dominant over white (W). Both are carried on X chromosome.

QUESTION ID:53

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the closer affinity of Archaea to Eukarya than to Bacteria?

QUESTION ID:54

Match the following larval forms with phyla that they occur in

QUESTION ID:55

Which of the following National parks has the highest density of tigers among protected area in the world?

QUESTION ID:56

Which of the following is NOT a prediction arising out of Wilson-MacArthur's -Theory of Island Biogeography?

QUESTION ID:57

During which of the following major mass extinction events, over 95% of the marine species disappeared from the planet Earth?

QUESTION ID:58

Which of the following global hotspots of biodiversity has the highest number of endemic plants and vertebrates?

QUESTION ID:59

Fossils of the same species of fresh water reptiles have been found in South America and Africa. Based on the current understanding. Which of the following is the best possible explanation for this pattern?

QUESTION ID:60

In which ecosystem is the autotroph-fixed energy likely to reach the primary carnivore level in the shortest time? '

QUESTION ID:61

The utilization or consumption efficiency of herbivores is highest in

QUESTION ID:62

Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a species that makes it vulnerable to extinction?

QUESTION ID:63

TILLING is a reverse genetics approach used in functional genomics. Which' one of the following is used for TILLING?

QUESTION ID:64

Which one of the following will be observed when auxin to cytokinin ratio is increased in the culture medium during organogenesis from tobacco pith callus?

QUESTION ID:65

Which of the following is wild relative of wheat?

QUESTION ID:66

A and B are two enantiomeric helical peptides. Their chirality can be determined by recording their

QUESTION ID:67

The use of Kruskal Wallis test is most appropriate in which of these cases?

QUESTION ID:68

Which one of the following can be analysed using Surface Plasmon Resonance method?

QUESTION ID:69

Which one of the following statements is correct for amplified-fragment length polymorphism (AFLP)?

QUESTION ID:70

The standard free energy change (ΔGo) per mole for the reaction A → B at 30°C in an open system is - 1000 cal/mole. What is the approximate free energy change (ΔG) when the concentration of A and B are 100 micromolar and 100 millimolar, respectively?

QUESTION ID:71

Indicate which one of the following statements about nucleic acids and protein structures is correct.

QUESTION ID:72

In a mitochondrial respiration experiment, a researcher observed the following profile of oxygen consumption upon addition of following compounds at times I, II and III.(a) ADP + Pi(b) Dinitrophenol, an uncoupler(c) Oligomycin, an ATPase inhibitor(d) Cyanide(e) SuccinateWhich of the following describes the profile appropriately?

QUESTION ID:73

A researcher has developed a program to evaluate the stability of a protein by substituting each amino acid at a time by the other 19 amino acids. For a protein, a researcher has observed the following changes in stability upon substitution of amino acids in loops, helices, sheets, protein core and on the protein surface. Substitutions in

a) loops are more tolerant

b) sheets are more tolerant

c) core is less tolerant

d) helices are less tolerant

e) surface is more tolerant

Which of the above statements are correct?

QUESTION ID:74

Indicate the names of the following molecules

QUESTION ID:75

The turnover number and specific activity of an enzyme (molecular weight 40,000 D) in a reaction (Vmax= 4μmol of substrate reacted/ min, enzyme amount = 2 μg) are

QUESTION ID:76

Both sphingomyelin and phosphoglycerides are phospholipids. Which one of the following statements is NOT  correct?

QUESTION ID:77

E coli was grown in three different experimental conditions. In one, it was grown in medium containing glucose as carbon source; in the second in medium containing both glucose and galactose; and in third was infected with phage. . Match the curves shown below to the treatment

QUESTION ID:78

Microsatellite are used as marker for identifying individuals via DNA fingerprinting as the alleles may differ in the number of repeals. From the Southern blot shown below identify the progeny (A, B, C and D) for the given parents (M= mother, F= father).

QUESTION ID:79

It is well established that "Band 3" protein of red blood cell membrane is solely responsible for Cl- transport across membrane. A lysine group in the Cl- binding site of "Band 3" is crucial for this event. Keeping this in mind what is the most appropriate way to load and retain a small anionic fluorescentprobe (x) inside the red blood cells (RBCs) suspended in phosphate buffered saline (PBS), pH 7.4

QUESTION ID:80

Influenza virus (IV), a well known enveloped animal virus, enters its host cells through membrane fusion process catalyzed by haemagluttinin (HA) protein inside endosomes at 37°C. HA is localized in the lipid bilayer membrane of the IV as an integral membrane protein and is responsible for binding and fusion of IV membrane with the endosomal membrane of host cells. Upon binding, IV is internalized into host cells through receptor mediated endocytosis followed by fusion of the IV membrane with endosome membrane catalyzed by HA. In a situation, if we wish to fuse IV membrane with its host cells(deficient in endocytosis) at the plasma membrane, mention the correct condition out of the following:

QUESTION ID:81

Glycophorin of red blood cell (RBC) membrane spans the membrane only once and the N-terminal is projected extracellularly and the C-terminal is exposed to the cytosolic side with the help of antibodies (labelled with fluorophors) against N-terminal and C- terminal peptides, orientation ofglycophorin across membrane can be verified. Which one of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:82

 Each amino acyl-tRNA synthetase is precisely able to match an amino acid with the tRNA containing the correct corresponding anticodon., Most organisms have 20 different tRNA synthetases, however some bacteria lack the synthetase for charging the tRNA for glutamine (tRNAGln) with its cognate amino acid. How do these bacteria manage to incorporate glutamine in their proteins? Choose the correct answer.

QUESTION ID:83

As topoisomerases play an important role during replication, a large number of anticancer drugs have been developed that inhibit the activity of these enzymes. Which of the following statements is NOT true about topoisomerases as a potential anticancer drug target?

QUESTION ID:84

Transposons can be primarily categorized into two types, DNA transposons and retrotransposons. Given below is some information regarding the above

A. Eukaryotic DNA transposons excise themselves from one place in the genome and integrate into another site.

B. Retrotransposons are RNA sequences that are, first reverse transcribed into cDNA and then integrate into the genome.

C. Retrotransposons move by a copy and paste mechanism through an RNA intermediate.

D. As DNA transposons move via a cut and paste mechanism, there can never be an increase in the copy number of a transposon.

Which of the statement(s) is/are true?

QUESTION ID:85

Some errors occur during DNA replication that are not corrected by proof reading activity of DNA polymerase. These are corrected by specialized repair pathways. Defect in the activities of some of the following enzymes impair this process.

A. DNA polymerase III and DNA ligasea.

B. AP endonuclease and DNA glycosidase

C. MutS and Mut L

D. Rec A and Rec F

Defect in which of the above enzymes impair the process?

QUESTION ID:86

One of the cellular events that TOR, a kinase, positively regulates is the rate of rRNA synthesis. TOR regulates the association of a transcription factor to a Pol I subunit. When TOR is inhibited by the drug rapamycin, the transcription factor dissociates from Pol I. A yeast strain is engineered, whichexpresses a fusion of the transcription factor and the Pol I subunit. The level of rRNA synthesis is monitored in these cells using pulse labelling following rapamycin addition for the times indicated below. The transcript profile of rRNA observed for the wild type cells is given below:

QUESTION ID:87

Immunoglobulins have therapeutic applications in cancer treatment, infection clearance and targeted drug delivery. For this reason, immunoglobulins are briefly cleaved by the enzyme pepsin. Following are some of the statements regarding the brief digestion of irnmunoglobulin by pepsin.

(i) F(ab)2 fragment is generated which retains the antigen binding activity.

(ii) F(ab) fragment having antigen binding activity and the crystallisable Fe fragment are generated.

(iii)The fragment generated on incubation with a proper antigen forms a visible precipitate.

(iv)The fragment generated is incapable of forming a visible precipitate on incubation with a proper antigen.

Which of the above statements are correct?

QUESTION ID:88

In an experiment peritoneal macrophages were isolated from strain A of guinea pig. These cells were then, incubated with an antigen. After the antigen pulsed macrophages processed the antigen and presented it on their surface, these were mixed with T cells from (i) strain A or (ii) strain B (a different strain of guinea pig) or (iii) F1 progeny of strain A X B. T cell proliferation was measured in response to antigen pulsed macrophages. T cells of which strain of guinea pig will be activated?

QUESTION ID:89

An eukaryotic cell undergoing mRNA synthesis and processing was incubated with 32P labelled ATP, with the label at the β-position. Where do you think the radioactive isotope will appear in the mature mRNA?

QUESTION ID:90

Virus infects a particular cell type, integrates its genome into a site that contains a proto-oncogene, transforms the cell and increases the level of a protein 'X' ,which increases cellular proliferation. A compound 'P' is known to increase the level of tumor suppressor proteins in that cell type whereas a compound 'Q’ helps in stimulating a protein Z .that can bind to 'X' rendering it inactive. Which one of the following graphs correctly represents the mode of action of 'P' and 'O'?

QUESTION ID:91

Which one of the following combinations is t e correct pairing of ligands with their receptors? 

QUESTION ID:92

Cancer is often believed to arise from stem cells rather than fully differentiated cells. Following are certain views related to the above statement. Which one of the following is NOT correct?

QUESTION ID:93

Given are certain facts which define 'determination' of a developing embryo.

A. Cells have made a commitment to a differentiation program.

B. A phase where specific biochemical actions occur in embryonic cells.

C. The cell cannot respond to differentiation signals.

D. A phase where inductive signals trigger cell differentiation.

Which of the above statements best define determination?

QUESTION ID:94

Cadherins mediate Ca2+-dependent cell-cell adhesion and play an important role in embryonic development by changing the adhesive properties of cell. Aggregation of nerve cells to form an epithelium is correlated with the appearance of N-cadherins on cell surface and vice versa. N-CAM (neural cell adhesion molecules) belongs to Ig-SF (immunoglobulin super family) and involved in fine tuning of adhesive interaction. In order to see the effect of mutations of N-cadherin and N-CAM, two sets of mice were generated. Set A - mice with' /nutation in N-cadherin and set B - mice with mutation in N- CAM. Which of the following results is most likely to occur?

QUESTION ID:95

What would happen as a result of a transplantation experiment in a chick embryo where the leg mesenchyme is placed directly beneath the wing apical ectodermal ridge (AER)?

QUESTION ID:96

If you remove a set of cells from an early embryo, you observe that the adult organism lacks the structure that would have been produced from those cells. Therefore, the organism seems to have undergone

QUESTION ID:97

Dose-dependence of retinoic acid treatment supports the notion that a gradient of retinoic acid can act as a morphogen along the proximo-distal axis in a developing limb. Following are certain facts related to the above notion.

A. Treatment with high level of retinoic acid causes a proximal blastema to be respecified as a distal blastema and only distal structures are regenerated.

B. Treatment with high level of retinoic acid causes a distal blastema to be respecified as a proximal blastema and regeneration of a full limb may be initiated.

C. Treatment with retinoic acid affects only distal blastemas and causes them to form only proximal structures.

D. Treatment with high level of retinoic acid causes any blastema to form only distal structures.

Which one of the following is correct?

QUESTION ID:98

Match the two columns following asexual reproduction of plants and apomixes:

QUESTION ID:99

According to the ABC model of floral development in Arabidopsis as shown belowSeveral genes/transcription factors e.g. AP 1, AP2, AP3, AG etc., are involved. Which one of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:100

Following are certain statements that describe plant-pathogen interactions:

A. Hemibiotrophic pathogens are characterized by initially keeping host cells alive followed by extensive tissue damage during the later part of the infection.

B. Effectors are molecules present in host plants that act against the pathogen attack.

C Plants possess pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) that perceive microbe-associated molecular patterns (MAMPs) present in specific class of microorganisms but are absent in the hosts.

D. Phytoalexin production is a common mechanism of resistance to pathogenic microbes in a wide range of plants.

Which one of the following combinations is correct?,

QUESTION ID:101

Constitutive photomorphogenesis (COP 1) protein, an E3 ubiquitin ligase, regulates the turnover of proteins required for photomorphogenic development. Following are certain independent statements related to the function of COP 1 protein:

A. In light, COP1 along with SPA1 adds ubiquitin tags to a subset of nuclear proteins.

B. The proteins ubiquinated by COP1 and SPA1 are targeted for degradation by the 26S proteasome.

C. In dark COPI is slowly exported to the cytosol from nucleus.

D. The absence of COP 1 in the nucleus permits the accumulation of transcriptional activators necessary for photomorphogenic development.

Which one of the following combinations is correct?

QUESTION ID:102

The following statements are made to describe auxin signal transduction pathway, from receptor binding to the physiological response:

A. Auxin response factors (ARFs) are nuclear proteins that bind to auxin response elements (Aux REs) to activate or repress gene transcription.

B. AUX/IAA proteins are secondary regulators of auxin-induced gene expression. Binding of AUX/lAA proteins to the ARF protein blocks its transcription regulation. .

C. Auxin binding to TIRI/AFB promotes ubiquitin-mediated degradation and removal of AUX/lAA proteins.

D. Auxin binding to auxin response factors (ARFs) causes their destruction by the 26S proteasome pathway.

Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:103

Light reactions of photosynthesis are carried out by four major protein complexes: Photosystem I (PSI), photosystem II (PSII), the cytochrome b6f complex and ATP synthase. The following are certain statements on PSI:

A. PSI reaction centre and PSII reaction centre are uniformly distributed in the granal lamellae and stromal lamellae.

B. The electron donor for the P700 of PSI is plastocyanin and electron acceptor of P700* is a chlorophyll known as A0.

C. The core antenna and P700 are bound to two key proteins PsaA and PsaB.

D. Cyclic electron flow occurs from the reducing side of PS I via plastohydroquinone and b6f complex. This supports ATP synthesis but does not reduce NADP+.

Which one of the following combinations of the above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:104

Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase (Rubisco) catalyzes both carboxylation and oxygenation of ribulose-1, 5-bisphbsphate. The latter reaction initiates a physiological process known as 'photorespiration'. The following are certain statements on photorespiration:

A. The active sites on Rubisco for carboxylation and oxygenation are different.

B. One of the steps in photorespiration is conversion of glycine to serine.

C. 50% of carbon lost in chloroplast due to oxygenation is recovered through photorespiration.

D. The pathway of photo respiration involves chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria.

Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:105

Several transport steps are involved in the movement of photosynthate from the chloroplasts. Following are certain statements regarding the transport of photosynthate:

A. Pentose phosphate formed by photosynthesis during the day is transported from the chloroplast to the cytosol, where it is converted to sucrose. .

B. Carbon stored as starch exits the chloroplast at night primarily in the form of maltose and is converted to sucrose in cytosol.

C. During short distance transport, sucrose moves from producing cells in the mesophyll to cells in the vicinity of the sieve elements in the smallest veins of the leaf.

D. In the process of phloem loading, sugars are transported into phloem parenchyma cells.

Which one of following combinations of above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:106

A majority of humans with normal colour vision was found to be more sensitive to red light in Rayleigh match, where the subject mixed variable amount of red and green light to match monochromatic orange. Which one of the following statements is NOT true to explain the observation?

QUESTION ID:107

The membrane potential in a giant squid axon recorded intracellularly at the resting condition (-70 mV) was reversed at the peak of action potential (+35 mV) after stimulation of the nerve fibre with a threshold electrical stimulus. This overshoot of the membrane potential has been explained in the following proposed statements:

A. The rapid increase in Na+-conductance during early phase of action potential uses membrane potential to move toward the equilibrium potential of Na+ (+45 m V).

B. The Na+-conductance quickly decreases toward resting level after peak in the early phase and Na+-ions are not able to attain its equilibrium potential within this short time.

C. The conductance of K+ at the early phase of action potential is increased and that leads to the reversal of membrane potential.

D. The increase of K+-conductance due to stimulation of nerve occurs before the changes of Na+ -conductance is initiated and thus causes overshoot at the peak of action potential.

Which one of the following is correct?

QUESTION ID:108

A person showed the symptoms of diarrhea, gas and pain whenever milk was consumed. The doctor advised the person to take curd instead of milk and subsequently the symptoms mostly disappeared due to this change of dairy product. The following statements are proposed to explain this observation: .

A. The person has deficiency in the intestinal sucrase-maltase

B. Curd is not deficient in sucrose and maltose

C. The person has deficiency in the intestinal lactase

D. The bacteria in curd contain lactase

Which one of the following is true?

QUESTION ID:109

A diabetic patient has a high blood glucose level due to reduced entry of glucose into various peripheral tissues in addition to other causes. There is no problem of glucose absorption, however, in the small intestine of these patients. The following statements are put forward to explain this observation:

B. Glucose is transported into the cells of muscles by glucose transporters (GLUTs) which are influenced by insulin receptor activation. Glucose transport into the enterocytes is mediated by sodium-dependent glucose transporters (SGLTs) which are not dependent on insulin.

C. Glucose molecules are transported in the small intestine by facilitated diffusion.

D. The secondary active transport of glucose occurs in muscles.

Which one of the above statement(s) is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:110

Action potentials were recorded intracellularly from different parts of mammalian heart and these are shown below. Which one-of these has been recorded from sinoatrial node?

QUESTION ID:111

Which one of the following options correctly relates the source gland/organ with its respective hormone as well as function?          

QUESTION ID:112

Poplar is a dioecious plant. A wild plant with genes AABBCC was crossed with a triple recessive mutant aabbcc. The F1 male hybrid (AaBbCc) was then back crossed with the triple mutant and the phenotypes recorded are as follows:AaBbCc 300aaBbCc 100aaBbcc 16AabbCc 14AaBbcc 65aabbCc 75aabbcc 310Aabbcc 120The distance in map unit (mu) between A to B and B to C is

QUESTION ID:113

Fruit colour of wild Solanum nigrum is controlled by two alleles of a gene (A and a). The frequency of A, p=0.8 and a, q=0.2. In a neighbouring field a tetraploid genotype of S. nigrum was found. After critical examination five distinct genotypes found; which are AAAA, AAAa, AAaa, Aaaa and aaaa. Following Hardy Weinberg principle and assuming the same allelic frequency as that of diploid population the numbers of phenotypes calculated within a population of 1000 plants are close to one of the following:AAAA : AAAa : AAaa : Aaaa ; aaaa

QUESTION ID:114

A three point test cross was carried out in Drosophila melanogaster involving three adjacent genes X, Y and Z. arranged in the same order. The distance between X to Y is 32.5 map unit (mu) and that between X to Y is 20.5 map. The coefficient of coincidence = 0.886. What is the percentage of double recombinants in the progeny obtained from the testcross? 

QUESTION ID:115

Two interacting genes (independently assorting) were involved in the same pathway. Absence of either genes function leads to absence of the end product of the pathway. A dihybrid cross involving the two genes is carried out. What fraction of the F 2 progeny will show the presence of the end product?

QUESTION ID:116

A male mouse cell line has a large translocation from X chromosome into chromosome I. When a GFP containing transgene is inserted in this chromosome I with translocation, it is often silenced. However when inserted in the other homologue of chromosome 1 that does not contain the translocation, it is almost always expressed. Which of the following phenomenon best describes this effect?

QUESTION ID:117

Five bacterial markers were followed for a co-transduction experiment. The following table documents the observations of this experiment.'+ ' denotes co-transduction and '-'denotes lack thereof; 'ND' stands for not determinedPick the correct order in which the genes are arranged on the bacterial chromosome

QUESTION ID:118

Based on the table given below, which of the following option represents the correct match?

QUESTION ID:119

With reference to the phylogenetic tree resented above, which of the following statements is true?

QUESTION ID:120

 For the following invertebrate structures/organs, identify their major function and the animal group in which they are found: ematocyst (A), Protonephridia (B) Malpighian Tubules (C) Radula (D)

QUESTION ID:121

 Match major events in the history of life with Earth's geological period.

QUESTION ID:122

Following is a cladogram showing phylogenetic relationships among a group of plants;In the above representation. A. B, C and D respectively represent

QUESTION ID:123

Match the following human diseases with their causal organisms

QUESTION ID:124

If gypsy moth egg density is 160 at time t and 200 at t + 1, what will be its value at time t + 3, assuming that egg densitycontinues to increase at constant rate?

QUESTION ID:125

The approximate P:B (Net Primary Production: Biomass) ratios in four different ecosystems (A, B, C, D) are A - 0.29; B - 0.042, C - 16.48; D - 8.2. The four ecosystems are

QUESTION ID:126

The following table shows the mean and variance of population densities of species A, B and C.Based on the above, which of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:127

Match the following associations involved in dinitrogen fixation with their representative genera Associations Genera

QUESTION ID:128

 A- Cyanobacterial biomass, B - Biological Oxygen Demand, C -Green algal biomass, D - Dissolved Oxygen concentrationThe parameters A, B, C, D are

QUESTION ID:129

The birth rates (b) and death rates (d) of two - species 1 and 2 in relation to population density (N) are shown in the graph. Which of the following is NOT true about the density dependent effects on birth rates and death rates?

QUESTION ID:130

For two species A and B in competition, the carrying capacities and competition coefficients areKA = 150 KB = 200α= 1 β = 1.3According to the Lotka-Volterra model of interspecific competition, the outcome of competition will be

QUESTION ID:131

Consider an autosomal locus with two alleles A1 and A2 at frequencies of 0.6 and 0.4 respectively. Each generation, A1 mutates to A2 at a rate of μ = 1 x 10-5 while A2 mutates to A1 at a rate of υ = 2 x 10-5. Assume that the population is infinitely large and no other evolutionary force is acting. . The equilibrium frequency of allele A1 is

QUESTION ID:132

With reference to the graph given below, identity the optimal territory size.

QUESTION ID:133

A particular behavioural variant affects fitness of an organism. The relationship between the frequency of the variant in the population and fitness are plotted below. In which of these cases is the behavioural variant most likely to reach a frequency of 1?

QUESTION ID:134

The coefficient of relatedness between individuals A and B, A and D, and between D and C is

QUESTION ID:135

One hundred independent populations of Drosophila are established with 10 individuals in each population, of which, one individual is of Aa genotype and the other nine are of AA genotype. If random genetic drift is the only mechanism acting on these populations, then, after a large number of generations, the expected number of populations fixed for the "a" allele is

QUESTION ID:136

Performance of biosensor is evaluated by their response to the presence of an analyte. The physiological relevant concentration of analyte is between 10μM and 50μM. Which among the following biosensor responses is best?

QUESTION ID:137

Molecular polymorphic markers are already known with respect to tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) resistance in tobacco. Among these, which marker system you will select that will be simple, economic and less time consuming:

QUESTION ID:138

In an effort to produce gene knockout mice, a gene targeted homologous recombination was tried, with the exogenous. DNA containing neor gene (confer G-4l8 resistance) and tkHsv gene (confers sensitivity to the cytotoxic nucleotide analog ganciclovir). If the neor gene was inserted within the target gene in the exogenous DNA and considering that both homologous and non-homologous recombination (random integration) is taking place, which one of the following statements is NOT correct about the possible outcome of the experiment?

QUESTION ID:139

In a typical gene cloning experiment, by mistake a researcher introduced the DNA of interest within ampicillin resistant gene instead of lac Z gene. The competent cells were allowed to take up the plasmid and then plated in the media containing ampicillin, X-gal and IPTG and subjected to blue-white screening. Considering all plasmids were recombinant which one of the following statements correctly describes the outcome of the experiment?

QUESTION ID:140

In a typical gene cloning experiment, by mistake a researcher introduced the DNA of interest within ampicillin resistant gene instead of lac Z gene. The competent cells were allowed to take up the plasmid and then plated in the media containing ampicillin, X-gal and IPTG and subjected to blue-white screening. Considering all plasmids were recombinant which one of the following statements correctly describes the outcome of the experiment?

QUESTION ID:141

The sequence of the peptide KGLITRTGLIKR can be unequivocally determined by

QUESTION ID:142

From statements on protein structure and interactions detailed below, indicate the correct statement

QUESTION ID:143

Radioimmuno assay (RIA) can be employed for the detection of insulin in blood plasma. For this, 125I labelled insulin is mixed and allowed to bind with a known concentration of anti-insulin antibody. A known volume of patients' blood plasma is then added to the conjugate and allowed to compete with the antigen binding sites of antibody. The bound antigen is then separated from unbound ones and the radioactivity of free antigen is then measured by gamma counter. Following are some of the statements made about this assay.

(i) The ratio of radioactive count for unbound antigen to the bound one is more at the end of reaction.

(ii) The ratio of radioactive count for unbound antigen to the bound one is less at the end of reaction.

(iii) For a diabetic patient, the radioactive count for free antigen is less than that for a normal individual.

(iv) For a diabetic patient, the radioactive count for free antigen is more than that for a normal individual.

Which of the above statements are true?

QUESTION ID:144

It is hypothesized that the mean (μ0) dry weight of a female in a Drosophila population is 4.5 mg. In a sample of 16 female with ̅ = 4.8 mg and s = 0.8 mg, what dry weight values would lead to rejection of the null hypothesis at p = 0.05 level? (take t0.05=2.1)

QUESTION ID:145

A researcher wants to obtain complete chemical information, i.e., head groups and fatty acids of phospholipids from liver tissues. Phospholipids have fatty acids of different lengths and unsaturation and also the head groups are of different chemistries. Which of the following combination of techniques would provide complete chemical description of phospholipids?