Previous Year Questions

QUESTION ID:2

A precious stone breaks into four pieces having weights in the proportion 1:2:3:4. The value of such a stone is proportional to the square of its weight. What is the percent loss in the value incurred due to breaking?

QUESTION ID:3

Two runners starting together run on a circular path taking 6 and 8 minutes, respectively, to complete one round. How many minutes later do they meet again for the many minutes later do they meet again for the first time on the start line, assuming constant speeds?

QUESTION ID:4

The distribution of grades secured by students in a class is given in the table below.

What is the least possible population of the class?

QUESTION ID:5

QUESTION ID:6

Which among the following diagrams represent women, mother, human beings ?

QUESTION ID:7

QUESTION ID:8

How many quadrilaterals does the following figure have?

QUESTION ID:9

12 balls, 3 each of the colour red, green, blue and yellow are put in a box and mixed. If 3 balls are picked at random, without replacement, the probability that all 3 balls are of the same color is

QUESTION ID:10

Some aliens observe the roosters call before sunrise every day. Having no other information about roosters and sunrises, which of the following inferences would NOT be valid?

QUESTION ID:11

Twenty-one litres of water in a tank is to be divided into  three equal parts using only 5, 8 and 12 litre capacity cans. The minimum number of transfers needed to achieve this is 

QUESTION ID:12

Of four agents Alpha, Beta, Gamma and Delta, three have to be sent together on a mission. If Alpha and Beta cannot go together and Gamma and Delta cannot go together, then which of the following holds?

QUESTION ID:13

An open rectangular box is made by excluding the four identical corners of a piece excluding the four identical corners of a piece of paper as shown in the diagram and the folding it along the dotted lines

The capacity of the box in (cm³) is

QUESTION ID:14

Which of the following is the largest?

QUESTION ID:15

A monkey climbs a tree to eat fruits. The amount of energy gained after eating fruits and the energy spent in climbing on the different branches have a relationship shown in the figure

The ratio of energy gained to energy spent will be maximum

QUESTION ID:16

The length of a cylinder is measured 10 times yielding 10 distinct values. For this set of values, consider the following statements.

A.  Five of these values will lie above the mean and is below it

B.   Five of these values will lie above the median and five below it

C.  At least one value will lie above the mean

D.  At least one value will lie at the median

Which of the following are necessarily correct?

QUESTION ID:17

In a given circle, O is the centre, LPAO=40^o, LPBQ=30^o and the outer angle LAOB=220⁰

Then LAQB is

QUESTION ID:18

A canal system iis shown in the figure

Water flows from A and B through two channels. Gates G₁ and G₂ are operated independently to regulate the flow. Probability of G₁ to be open is 20%. The probability that water will flow from A to B is

QUESTION ID:19

A long ream of paper of thickness t is rolled tightly. As the roll becomes larger, the length of the paper wrapped in one turn exceeds the length in the previous turn by

QUESTION ID:20

Point A on a wheel of radius r touches the horizontal plane at point P. It rolls without slipping, till point A is at the highest position in the first turn. What is the final distance AP?

QUESTION ID:21

Which one of the statements on protein conformation, detailed below is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:22

Choose the INCORRECT statement from the following statements made for an enzyme- catalyzed reaction

QUESTION ID:23

 On sequence analysis of a double stranded DNA, the results showed the content of cytosine, C was 20%. What is the amount of A and T put together?

QUESTION ID:24

The first step in glycogen breakdown releases glucose units as

QUESTION ID:25

The Na+/K+ ATPase pump is found on the plasma membrane of most animal cells. A mutation in the intrinsic phosphorylation site of the pump is most likely to affect

QUESTION ID:26

The site of the division plane during cytokinesis of animal cells is determined

QUESTION ID:27

To prepare individual tissue cells from a primary culture, the cell-cell and cell-matrix interaction must be broken. To achieve this would NOT use:

QUESTION ID:28

Which one of the following statements is NOT true about nucleosomal organization of core particle?

QUESTION ID:29

During replication, RNaseH removes all of the RNA primer except the ribonucleotide directly linked to the DNA end. This is because

QUESTION ID:30

In a human cell line, a large fraction of double-strand DNA breaks are repaired by non-homologous end joining (NHEJ). An inhibitor of FLAP endonuclease will affect

QUESTION ID:31

Sugar puckering in double stranded nucleic acids is exclusively

QUESTION ID:32

Eukaryotic mRNA are modified to possess a 5’ cap structure. Which one of the following is an INCORRECT statement about the function of the 5’ cap structure?

QUESTION ID:33

Which one of the following does NOT belong to human antimicrobial proteins and peptides at epithelial surface forming part of innate immunity?

QUESTION ID:34

Which one of the following best describes death-upon-detachment?

QUESTION ID:35

Fruit bats are known to harbor and spread several viruses that can infect other animals and humans. Which one of the following viruses NOT reported to spread by fruit bats?

QUESTION ID:36

In a type I hypersensitivity- mediated asthmatic response, which one of the following is thought to contribute significantly to the prolonged bronchospasm and build-up of mucous seen in asthmatics?

QUESTION ID:37

QUESTION ID:38

In Xenopus embryos, β-catenin plays an important role in the Dorsal/Vental axis development. What would you expect if the endogenous glycogen synthase kinase 3 (GSK3) is knocked out by a dominant negative form of GSK3 in the ventral cells of the early embryos?

QUESTION ID:39

Homeobox transcription factor (Hox proteins), play important roles in specifiying wheather a particular mesenchymal cell will become stylopod, zeugopod or autopod. Based on the expression patterns of these genes, a model was proposed wherein these HOX genes specify the identity of a limb region. What would be the observed phenotype for human homozygous for a HOXD13 mutation?

QUESTION ID:40

Which one of the following describes the function of silicon in plants?

QUESTION ID:41

Most of the plant disease resistance (R) gene products contain:

QUESTION ID:42

Out of several gibberllins identified in plants, which one of the following is NOT bioactive

QUESTION ID:43

Nitrogenase, a complex metal containing enzyme is involved in conversion of N2 to NH(3) Which one of the following metal is NOT involved in the activity of nitrogenase?

QUESTION ID:44

Which one of the following agents cause relaxation of mesengial cells?

QUESTION ID:45

A patient comes to the hospital complaining of vomiting and diarrhea. The doctor suggested that the patient take glucose and electrolyte solution orally. Which one of following membrane prtoeins is likely to be involved in rehydrating the patient?

QUESTION ID:46

Which one is required for vitamin B12 absorption in small intestine?

QUESTION ID:47

Which one is the correct sequence of events that takes place during phototransduction when light falls onto the retina?

QUESTION ID:48

A Lod score of 3 represents a Recombination Frequency (RF) that is

QUESTION ID:49

Assuming that the A, B, C and D genes are not linked. The probability of a progeny being AaBBccDd from a corss between AABbccDd and aaBBccDD parents will be

QUESTION ID:50

The newborn baby of a mother having blood group AB, Rh+ and father having blood group O, Rh-, got mixed with other babies in the hospital. The baby with which of the following blood groups is expected to be of the said couple?

QUESTION ID:51

Which one of the following DNA markers can be used to distinguish between a homozygote and heterozygote ?

QUESTION ID:52

Which one of the following is a fungal disease of plants?

QUESTION ID:53

Which one of the following influenza A virus subtypes caused severe avian flu and was responsible for disease outbreak in the year 1997 in Hong Kong ?

QUESTION ID:54

Depicted below is a phylogenetic tree of selected taxa:

QUESTION ID:55

Which of the following describes the identification features of non-poisonous snakes?

QUESTION ID:56

A road is constructed, through a wet tropical forest, following which the population of a species of forest butterfly declines. Which of the following is NOT a possible explanation for the road causing a decline in the forest butterfly population?

QUESTION ID:57

Which one of the following statements regarding normal distribution is NOT correct?

QUESTION ID:58

Tropical regions may have more species diversity because of the following possible reasons, EXCEPT

QUESTION ID:59

Which one of the following statement is correct?

QUESTION ID:60

Which one of the following statement is correct for the process of speciation?

QUESTION ID:61

Which one of the following does NOT contribute to micro-evolutionary change?

QUESTION ID:62

According to Hamilton’s rule, altruistic behaviour can evolve when rb>c, where b is the extra benefit gained by the recipient as a result of the altruistic act, c is the cost to the actor arising from performing the altruistic act and r is the relatedness between the:

QUESTION ID:63

Analyses of nucleotide sequences of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) are particularly useful for evolutionary studies of living organisms because of the following reasons EXCEPT

QUESTION ID:64

Which one of the following is the most appropriate definition of ‘Gene Pyramiding’ in plants?

QUESTION ID:65

To test the impact of cAMP on protein kinase A conformation in cells, an investigator made FRET biosensor by fusing two fluorescent protein at the N and C terminus of protein Kinase A. In the absence of cAMP in the cellular milieu, no FRET signal was detected. However, upon c-AMP addition, a strong emission at 530 nm was observed. What could be the best configuration of fluorophores that were used by the investigator?

QUESTION ID:66

In bioremediation by microorganisms detailed below, choose INCORRECT option?

QUESTION ID:67

A multimeric protein when run on SDS gel showed 2 bands at 20 kDa and 40kDa. However, when the protein was run on a native gel, it showed a single band at 120 k Da. The native form of the protein would be

QUESTION ID:68

A solution contains NADH and NAD+, BOTH AT 0.1 mM concentration. If NADH has a molar extinction co efficient of 6220 and that of NAD+ is negligible, the optical density measured in a cuvette of 5mm path length will be

QUESTION ID:69

 Orientation of a cloned DNA fragment (gene) in a plasmid vector can be checked by

QUESTION ID:70

The emission maximum of tryptophan fluorescence in a protein is ~ 335 nm. This suggests that tryptophan

QUESTION ID:71

Equal volumes of pH 4.0 and pH 10.0 solutions are mixed. What will be the approximate pH of the final solution?

QUESTION ID:72

The inborn error of amino acid metabolism, alkaptonuria. is due to the lack of one of the following enzymes:

QUESTION ID:73

The structure of a protein with 100 residues was determined by X-ray analysis at atomic resolution and NMR spectroscopy. The following observations are possible.

 A. The dihedral angles determined from the X-ray structure and NMR will be identical.

 B. The dihedral angles determined from the X-ray structure will be more accurate.

 C. β-turns can be determined only by NMR.

 D. β-sheets can be more accurately determined from the X-ray structure.

 Indicate the combination with ALL correct answers

QUESTION ID:74

The different arms in the tRNA structure are shown in Column A. The specific signatures associated with the different arms are shown in Column B.

Choose the correct matches from the following:

QUESTION ID:75

Some coenzymes that serve as transient carriers of specific chemical groups are shown below;

Choose the combination with all correct matches

QUESTION ID:76

Thermodynamics of protein folding is depicted as a free energy funnel below. 

Gives below are regions in the diagram (Column X) and their representation (Column)Y

QUESTION ID:77

Table below shows the list of organelles (column A) AND the signals (Column B) that target proteins to the organelle.

Choose the option that shows all correct matches

QUESTION ID:78

Following statements are made about chromatin remodelling in human cells:

A. Local chromatin conformation may play more important role than the local DNA sequence of the promoter.

B. Histones in nucleosome can undergo many different covalent modifications, which in turn, alter the chromatin architecture locally.

C. Chromatin remodelling is a developmentally regulated passive process which does not require ATP.

D. Several histone variants exist, which replace the standard histones in specific types of chromatin.

Select the option that has the combination of all correct answers.

QUESTION ID:79

In an experiment, the student has infected mammalian host cell with cytoplasmic RNA virus. The virus growth was monitored by measuring the intracellular viral RNA at different time intervals. It was observed that viral RNA titre progressively went down with time, particularly 12 hours post infection.

Following are few possibilities which can explain this observation.

A. The virus infection triggered upregulation of miRNAs that might have down-regulated the host factor critical for viral RNA replication.

B. The virus might encode miRNAs that regulate (inhibits) its own replication.

C. One of the viral proteins inhibits replication of the viral RNA to restrict rapid proliferation.

D. Viral RNA goes to nucleus with time and thus not detectable in the cytoplasm 12 hour post infection.

Which one of the following options has all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:80

Irrespective of the chromosomal configuration, a single X chromosome remains active in all diploid human somatic cell lines. Which one of the following mechanisms best accounts for the above phenomenon.

QUESTION ID:81

In eukaryotic cells, replication initiation from a replication origin occurs only once per cell cycle and S- phase CDKs play a vital role in the regulation of DNA replication. In budding yeast a protein complex known as the origin recognition complex (ORC) is associated with DNA replication origin during G1; however origins fire only once at the beginning of S-phase. DNA replication does not start in G1 because:

A. MCM helicases are inactive in G1.

B. Spindle checkpoint is active in G1.

C. DNA polymerase is not recruited in G1.

D. ORC and initiation factors Cdc6 and Cdt1 do not recruits MCM helicases to the site of replication initiation in G1.

Which of the above statements are correct.

QUESTION ID:82

Measurements of the rate of actin treadmilling in vivo show that it can be several times higher than can be achieved with pure actin in vitro. The tread milling in vitro can be enhanced by providing

A. Profilin that binds G-actin on the site opposite the nucleotide binding cleft.

B. co-filin binds specifically to the ADP containing F-actin and destabilizes the actin filament.

C. buffer with ATP and low levels of cations.

D. buffer with ADP and low levels of cations.

Which of the above statements are correct

QUESTION ID:83

In a strain of E. coli, a fusion between the lac and trp operon took place and the new locus structure is shown below. The strain lacks the wild-type trp operon.

Given below are some of the potential scenarios:

A. Tryptophan will be synthesized in a medium containing lactose and tryptophan.

B. Tryptophan synthesis will be repressed in a medium containing glucose.

C. Tryptophan synthesis will take place only in the absence of sufficient tryptophan in the medium.

Choose the option that correctly describes the behaviours of the fusion operon.

QUESTION ID:84

Following statements have been made about removal of supercoiling produced by DNA unwinding at the replication fork:

A. Accumulation of supercoils is the result of DNA helicase activity during unwinding of DNA

B. Problem of DNA supercoiling is valid only for circular chromosomes of bacteriaand not for the linear chromosomes

C. Supercoiling of DNA is removed by topoisomerases by breaking either one or both strands of DNA on the unreplicated DNA in front of replication fork.

D. Both topoisomerase I and topoisomerase can remove positive super-coiling during replication

Which one of the following options has all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:85

Phosphorylation of the α-subunit of elF2 at Ser 51position in Saccharomyces cerevisiae leads to sequestration of eIF2B, guanosine exchange factor. This phenomenon is

QUESTION ID:86

E. coli mutants isolated from a genetic screen showed following classes of mutations

A. Point mutations in lacI

B. Deletions immediately downstream of the transcription

start site of the lacZYA mRNA

C. Duplications of part or whole of lacY

D. Duplications of part or whole of Lac A

Choose the option which is likely to result in constitutive expression of the lac operon?

QUESTION ID:87

For Escherichia coli chromosomal DNA replication, which one of the following statements is true?

QUESTION ID:88

Following observations were made about variations among genomes of eukaryotic organisms:

 A. Single nucleotide polymorphisms are the numerically most abundant type of genetic variants

 B. Both. interspersed and tandem repeated sequences can show polymorphic variation

 C. Mitotic recombination between mispaired repeats causes change in copy number and generates minisatellite diversity in population

 D. Smaller variable segments in the genome can be identified by paired end mapping technique

Select the option with all correct statements

QUESTION ID:89

There are number of specific T cell surface molecules involved in various functions ofadaptive immune response. Column X represents a list of T cell surface molecules and Column Y with the possible functional characteristics:

Which of the following option has all correct matches?

QUESTION ID:90

In an experiment it was observed that a protein was upregulated in cancer tissues (compared to control tissues) that showed correlation with disease progression. Following are a few possibilities, which can explain the above observation.

A. A mutation could be located in the 3'UTR of the corresponding mRNA at a miRNA binding site.

B. A mutation changes the conformation of the protein, resulting in its better stability.

C. A mutation in the corresponding mRNA promotes ribosome read-through of the termination codon resulting in increased synthesis of the protein.

D. A mutation in the corresponding mRNA increased the stability of the RNA due to change in secondary structure.

Which one of the following combinations represents the most likely explanations?

QUESTION ID:91

The extracellular matrix contains a number of non-collagen proteins that typically have multiple domains, each with specific binding sites for other matrix molecules and cell surface receptors. These proteins therefore contribute to both organizing the matrix and helping cells attach to it. The most well characterized matrix protein of this kind is fibronectin. Which one of the following characteristics is NOT TRUE for fibronectin?

QUESTION ID:92

Following are the list of some cellular receptors (Column X) and with possible functional characteristics (Column Y):

Which one of the following is the correct match?

QUESTION ID:93

In a laboratory experiment it was observed that both 'Virus A' and 'Virus B' could infect a mammalian host cell, when infected individually. Interestingly, if the cell were first infected with Virus A (with large MOI), Virus B failed to infect the same cell. If the Virus B (with large MOI) is added first followed by Virus A, both the virus can infect the cells. However, infection with 'Virus A' was found to be in lesser extent. Considering X and Y are the receptors/co-receptors. Which may be involved for the virus entry, following are few possibilities that can explain the observation.

A. 'Virus A' uses 'X' as receptor and Y as coreceptor.

B. 'Virus B' uses exclusively 'Y' as receptor for entry:

C. Both 'Virus A' and 'Virus B' need X as receptor.

Choose the option with all correct statements.

QUESTION ID:94

While testing the effect of several potent anti-cancer compounds on cycling human oral cancer cells, a student observed that a major percentage of cells showed dose-deep cell death after 12 hours of drug treatment. However the remaining cells repopulated the culture dish once the compounds were removed and the cells were cultured in complete medium. The student made the following assumptions:

A. Not all cells were equally affected by the compounds as they were not synchronized before treatment.

B. The compound selectively killed cells which were in Go phase.

C. The cancer stem cells were impervious to the effects of the compounds and therefore repopulated the culture.

D. The cancer cells differentiated into a mesenchymal phenotype and grew in fresh culture medium containing inhibitors of epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT).

Which one of the following combination of assumptions would best justify the results?

QUESTION ID:95

When 8-cell embryo of tunicates is separated into 4 blastomere pairs and allowed to grow independently in culture medium, then each blastomere pair can form most the cell types; however, cells for nervous system are not developed. The following statements are formed from the above observations:

A. Nervous system development demonstrated autonomous specification.

B. The other tissue types are formed due to conditional specification.

C. All the tissue types, except nervous tissues that developed demonstrated autonomous specification.

D. Nervous system development demon strated conditional specification.

The correct combination of statements that explains the above result is:

QUESTION ID:96

During wing development in chick, if Apical Ectodermal Ridge (AER) is removed, the limb development ceases, on the other hand placing leg mesenchyme directly beneath the wing AER, distal hindlimb structures develop at the end of the wing, and if replaced by non-limb mesnchyme sheath AER, the AER regresses. This may demonstrate that:

A. the limb mesenchyme cells induce and sustain AER.

B. the mesenchyme cells specify the type: wing or limb.

C. the AER is responsible for specifying the type: wing or limb.

D. the AER is responsible for sustained outgrowth and development of the limb

E. the AER does not specify the type: wing or limb.

Which combination of above statements is demonstrated by the experiment?

QUESTION ID:97

The following statements regarding the generation of dorsal/ventral axis in Drosophila was made:

A. Gurken protein moves along with the oocyte nucleus and signals follicle cells to adopt the ventral fate.

B. Maternal deficiencies of either the gurken or torpedo gene cause ventralization of the embryo.

C. Gurken is active only in the oocytes, Torpedo is active only in the somatic follicle cells.

D. The Pipe protein is made in the dorsal follicle cells.

E. The highest concentration of Dorsal is in the dorsal cell nuclei, which becomes the mesoderm.

Which one of the following combination of the above statements is true?

QUESTION ID:98

A specialized area of teratogenesis involves the misregulation of the endocrine system. Which one of the following statements regarding endocrine disruptors is true?

QUESTION ID:99

Given below are statements related to different aspects of plant growth and development.

A. Leaf longevity is increased in ethylene insensitive mutants eir1-1 and ein2 of Arabidopsis.

B. Programmed cell death (PCD) is responsible for the formation of prickles, thorns and spines in plants.

C. Senescence and PCD occur only in the development of vegetative tissues and does not occur in reproductive tissues

D. Redifferentiation of organelles is an integral component during initial stages of senescence in plants.

Which one of the following represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:100

The following demonstrates proposed functions of different genes which determine the decision to become either trophoblast or inner cell mass (ICM) blastomere during early mammalian development:

Based on the above figure, which one of the following assumptions is correct?

QUESTION ID:101

Jasmonate is known to inhibit root growth while auxin facilitates root growth. Upon infection with pathogenic bacteria that produce coronatine, we may expect the following in plants:

A. Upregulation of COI-1 gene and inhibition of root growth.

B. Upregulation of Auxl-1 gene and inhibition of root growth.

C. Inhibition of AuxI-1 gene and promotion of root growth.

D. Inhibition of COI-1 gene and promotion of root growth.

Which one of the following is correct?

QUESTION ID:102

Following are certain statements with regard to plant respiration:

A. Metabolism of glucose into pyruvate through glycolysis generates NADH and not NADPH.

B. Metabolism of glucose through oxidative pentose phosphate cycle does not produce NADPH.

C. Cyanide forms a complex with haem iron of cytochrome oxidase leading to prevention of change in valency, which in turn stops electron transport in therespiratory chain.

D. Alternative oxidase is insensitive to cyanide and has higher Km than that of cytochrome oxidase.

Which one of the following combinations is correct?

QUESTION ID:103

Blue light receptor cry1 binds to COP1 and SPA1 complex by interacting with C-terminal region of cry1 (CCT) in a light dependent manner and regulates photomorphogenesis via transcription factor HY5. Read the following statements:

A. cry 1 binds to COP 1 and SPA1 complex leading to degradation of HY5.

B. cry1 binds to CON and SPA1 complex and prevents degradation of HY5.

C. CCT is overexpressed and the plant are kept in dark.

D. CCT is overexpressed and the plants are kept in light.

Which of the following combination of above statements will result in photo-morphogenesis?

QUESTION ID:104

After absorbing light, chlorophyll molecules in green plants exist in singlet and triplet states.

Following are certain statement on singlet and triplet states of chlorophyll molecules:

A. Singlet state is short lived compared to triplet state.

B: Singlet state is long lived compared to triplet state.

C. Singlet state contains electrons with anti parallel. spins while triplet state has electrons with parallel spins.

D. Singlet state contains electrons with parallel spins while triplet state has electrons with anti-parallel spins.

Which one of the following combinations is correct

QUESTION ID:105

Only members of the plant kingdom and many bacteria have capability of biological nitrogen reduction. In this regard following statements are given:

A. Nitrogen is normally taken by the plant in their fully

oxidized form but needs to be reduced before incorporation in organic molecules.

B. Conversion of oxidized nitrogen into reduced nitrogen

needs energy in the form of NAD(P).

C. The metal associated with the enzyme nitrate reductase is Magnesium.

D. Nitrate reduction takes place in the cytoplasm,whereas

nitrite reduction takes place in chloroplast.

Which one of the following combinations of the above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:106

During interaction with host, phytopathogens are known to deliver effector is directly into the host cells. The following statements were made regarding the role of these effector proteins.

 A. May promote pathogen virulence.

 B. May elicit avirulence response.

 C. May suppress defense response.

 D. May promote plant growth.

 Which one of the following combinations of the above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:107

The CO2 dissociation curves of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood are given along with dissolved CO2: below

Following are the statements deduced from the curves above and or based on the knowledge about CO2 transport, which may or may not be correct:

A. The deoxygenated haemoglobin has greater affinity for CO, than oxygenated haemoglobin.

B. The deoxygenated haemoglobin does not bind with free H+ ions released during theformation of HCO3- from CO2.

C. The haemoglobin saturation with O2 has no effect on CO2, dissociation curve.

D. O2 and CO2 bind to haemoglobin at different sites.

Which one of the following options represents a combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:108

Given below are the different intervals/ durations of electrocardiogram of a humansubject (column A) and the events in heart during the process (column B).

Which one of the following options is a correct match of entries in columns A and B?

QUESTION ID:109

The pathway of synthesis of aldosterone in zona glomerulosa along with the intracellular locations is shown below:

Which one of due following options represents correct matches for A, B and C?

QUESTION ID:110

Given below is a figure of pro-opio melanocortin (POMC) polypeptide and its cleavage products (marked as A, B, C, D) which have different hormonal activities. The names of the cleaved products obtained from POMC are shown in the table below the diagram.

Which one of due following options represents A. B, C and D correctly?

QUESTION ID:111

During prolonged illumination,rhodopsin is desentitized which leads to the termination of visual response.The associated proteins (Colum A) and their effects (Column B) are given below:

Which one of the matched combinations is correct.

QUESTION ID:112

Estrus cycle in rats is controlled by pituitary and gonadal harmones.While treating a set of rat with vitamin D, a student accidentally injected the rat with an inhibitor of 17 α- hydroxypregnenolone and checked vaginal smear for 10 consecutive days.

Which one of the following observation is correct?

QUESTION ID:113

Centromere postions can be mapped in linear tetrads in some fungi. A cross was made between two strains a b and a+b+ and 100 linear tetrads were analysed. The genes a and b are located on two arms of the chromosome. The tetrad were divided into 5 classes as shown below.

Based on the above observation the following conclusion were drawn:

(A) Class 1 is a result of a cross over between ‘a’ and the centromere.

(B) Class 2 is result of double crossover involving 3 strands between ‘a’ and the centromere.

(C) Class 5 is a result of a double crossover between ‘a’ centromere and ‘b’ centromere.

(D) Class 4 is a result of a double cross over involving all the 4 strands.

Which one of the following options represents all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:114

Two Yellow mice with straight hair were crossed and the following progeny was obtained:

1/2 Yellow, straight hair

1/6 Yellow, fuzzy hair

1/4 gray, straight hair

1/12 gray, fuzzy hair

In order to provide genetic explanation for the results and assign genotypes to the parents and progeny of this cross the following statements were given:

(A) The 6:2:3:1 ratio obtained here indicates recessive epistasis.

(B) This cross concerns two independent characteristics –body colour and type of hair.

(C) The deviation of dihybrid ratio from 9:3:3:1 to 6:2:3:1 may be due to one of the genes being a recessive lethal

(D) The lethal allele is associated with straight hair

The most appropriate combination of statements to provide genetic explanation for the result is:

QUESTION ID:115

A Family was examined for a given trait which is represented in the pedigree shown below. Further, the degree of expression of the trait is highly variable among members of the family; some are only slightly affected while others developed severe symptoms at an early stage

The following statements are made to explain the pattern of inheritance shown in the pedigree.

(A)X-linked dominant mutation

(B) X-linked recessive mutation

(C) Mitochondrial inheritance

(D) Vairiable expression can be due to heteroplasty

The best possible explanation for this inheritance is

QUESTION ID:116

The location of six deletion (Shows as solid line underneath the chromosomes) has been mapped to the Drosophila chromosome as shown in the diagram given below:

The recessive mutations a, b, c, d, e f and g are known to be located in the region of deletions, but order of mutations on the chromosome is not known. When flies homozygous for the recessive mutations are crossed with flies homozygous for the deletion, the following result were obtained where the letter ‘m’ represents a mutant phenotype and ‘+’ represents the wild type.

The relative order of the seven mutant genes on chromosome is :

QUESTION ID:117

In the following pedigree , individuals with shaded circle or shaded square show presence of a recessive autosomal trait.

The calculated risk of occurance of this trait for III-I is

QUESTION ID:118

During the course of vertebrate evolution , the jaw bones got modified into three ear ossicles in mammals. Which one of the following is a correct match of ear ossicle and its ancestral jaw bone ?

QUESTION ID:119

Given below are names of the animals in column X and the accessory respiratory organs teleost fishes (Column Y).

The correct match of the animals with the accessory respiratory organs they have are:

QUESTION ID:120

The terms expressing some of the developmental events or specific body structures are given in column X and the names of animals that are associated with them in column Y:

The correct match of the terms in column X with the name of animals in column Y is:

QUESTION ID:121

The table lists characteristic anatomical features and names of plants.

Choose the option that correctly matches plant with their characteristic features.

QUESTION ID:122

The table given below provides a list of female gametophyte features and plant genera

Which one of the following options correctly matches the plant genera to female gametophyte features:

QUESTION ID:123

Following are some generalizations related to wood anatomy of higher plants:

A. The axial system of conifer woods consist mainly or entirely of tracheids.

B. The rays of conifers typically contain only parenchyma cells.

C. The rays of angiosperms typically contain both sclerenchyma cells and tracheids.

D. Angiosperm wood may be either diffuse porous or ring-porous.

Which one of the following options represents all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:124

A field ecologist gathers following data (abundance values) in order to study diversity of species in four plant communities.

Based on the above observations, the ecologist draws following conclusions:

A. Plant communities C1 and C4 show strong similarity with each other

B. Plant communities C1 and C4 as well as communities C2 and C3 show strong similarity with each other

C. Plant community C1 is most diverse

D. Plant community C4 is most diverse

Which of the following statements is correct regarding above conclusions?

QUESTION ID:125

The table given below lists types of plant communities and types of growth forms.

Which of the following is the best match for the plant communities with most dominant growth form generally present in that community?

QUESTION ID:126

Following are some of the generalizations regarding energy flow in an ecosystem:

A. Assimilation efficiency of carnivores is higher than herbivores.

B. Consumption efficiency of aquatic herbivores is higher than terrestrial herbivores.

C. Vertebrates have higher production efficiencies than invertebrates.

D. Trophic level transfer efficiency is higher in terrestrial food chains than in marine.

Based on the above, select the correct option.

QUESTION ID:127

In an experiment to show that biogeochemical cycles interact, nitrogen fixing vines (Galactia sp.) were grown in plots under normal levels of CO2 (Control) and under artificially elevated atmospheric CO2 (Experimental). Effect of elevated CO2 levels on nitrogen fixation was measured over a period of 7 years (Plot A) and the concentrations of iron and molybdenum in the leaves of these plants were quantified at the end of the study (Plot B). Which one of the following inferences CANNOT be made from the above experiment?

QUESTION ID:128

Match the following invasive plants to the likely habitats in which they are expected to occur:

QUESTION ID:129

Incorporating additional ecological factors into the Lotka-Voltera predator-prey model can change the predator isocline. Given below are three state-space graphs (A-C) representing modification of predator isocline due to the ecological factors listed below (i-iii).

(i) Victim abundance acting as predator carrying capacity

(ii) Availability of alternate prey (victim) population

(iii) Predator carrying capacity determined

Which one of the following options represents all correct matches of the state space graphs with their ecological factor?

QUESTION ID:130

Birds in a population show two foraging phenotypes: A and B. Birds of phenotype A search, attack and capture prey while birds of phenotype B steal prey from birds of phenotype A. A and B are maintained in the population through negative frequency-dependent selection. The graph below shows the fitness of A (broken line) and B (solid line) at different relative frequencies of A (frequency of B = 1-frequency of A).

Which of the following statements does the grap support?

QUESTION ID:131

Antelopes are proposed to form groups to reduce the risk of predation. A researcher measured the predation of individuals in groups of different sizes. She found that per capita mortality risk decreased with increasing group size for males (solid line) but remained unchanged for female (dashed line). Furthermore, males in all groups experienced greater per capita mortality risk than females.

Identify the graph below that best depicts the above findings:

QUESTION ID:132

The prominent mammal species found in four different protected areas are listed below:

Area A: Tiger, Wild dog, Leopard, Elephant

Area B: Common langur. Barking deer, Wild dog, Elephant

Area C: Tiger, Indian rhinoceros, Pygmy hog, Wild pig

The area with the greatest phylogenetic diversity is

QUESTION ID:133

The Hardy-Weinberg principle states that allele frequencies in a population will remain constant over generations if certain assumptions are met.

A. Random mating

B. Mate choice

C. Small population size

D. Large population size

E. Lack of mutations

F. Directional selection

Which of the above factors will cause changes in allele frequencies overgenerations?

QUESTION ID:134

Given below are few traits and related functions:

Match the above given traits to their most likely functions.

QUESTION ID:135

Following is a diagrammatic representation of human evolutionary tree.

In the above diagram A, B, C and D respectively represent:

QUESTION ID:136

Based upon phenotypic observation, it was concluded that an unknown gene responsible for an agronomically important trait is present in a particular plant. In order to identify the gene, a researcher proposes to use the following strategies:

A. PCR amplification of the gene.

B. Map based cloning of the gene.

C. Subtractive DNA hybridization

D. Genome sequencing

E. Develop molecular markers linked to the trait

Which one of the following options is most suitable for identifying unknown gene?

QUESTION ID:137

A To transgenic plant contains two unlinked copies of the T- DNA of which one is functional and the other is silenced. Segregation of the transgenic to non transgenic phenotype would occur in a

(i) Ratio in progeny obtained by backcrossing and in a

(ii) ration in F1 progeny obtained by self pollination.