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Previous Year Questions

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TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

A researcher observed ants in contact with plant hoppers that were feeding on tree sap. Which of the following conclusions made by her would be correct?

QUESTION ID:2

Select the option that correctly identifies all organisms that are included in the International Code of Nomenclature (Shenzhen Code, 2017) along with plants:

QUESTION ID:3

The table below summarizes the key signaling pathways that orchestrate development, their receptors, transcription effectors and output.

SIGNALING PATHWAY

RECEPTOR

TRANSCRIPTIONAL

       EFFECTOR

    OUTPUT

A. Wnt

Thick veins

β-catenin

Patterning

B. Hedgehog

Frizzled

Ci/Gli

Growth

C. RTK

EGFR

Pointed/Yan

Morphogenesis

D. TGFβ

Patched

NICD

Cell Fate Specification

E. JNK

TNF

Jun/Fos

Migration

Which of the above pathways is correctly depicted in one of the options given below?

QUESTION ID:4

In a particular population A, individuals are under stress and they produce smaller offspring. Based on this, one may conclude that

QUESTION ID:5

Given below are plots of the linear derivation of Michaelis-menten kinetic equation and statements related to the variables (initial velocity - Vo and substrate concentration - [S] used, 
A. In plot (i). both x and y axes have dependent variables
B. In plot (ii) neither x nor y axis has independent variables
C. In plot (I), only y-axis has a dependent variable
D In both the plots, x axis has an Independent variable
Select the option that has all the correct statements.

QUESTION ID:6

The group of 6 cells (P3.p to P8.P) called vulval precursor cells (VPCs) of C. elegans for man equivalence group. The following statements were made as evidence that VPCs form anequivalence group:
A. If the anchor cell is destroyed the VPCs contribute to the formation of hypodermal tissues.
B. If the 3 central cells (P5.p to P7.p) are destroyed the remaining cells can generate vulval cells.
C. If expression of lin-3 is increased VPCs contributing to the secondary lineage can form cells of primary lineage.
D. Ectopic expression of let-23 in P5.p and P7.p VPCs converts them to primary cell lineage.
Which one of the following options is a combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:7

Members of the WUSCHEL RELATED HOMEOBOX (WOX) transcription factor family play an important role during zygote elongation and division in Arabidopsis. Following are certain statements regarding the expression of different members of WOX gene family during zygote elongation.
A. WOX2 and WOX8 are present in both the egg cell and the zygote.
B. WOX2 is present in the apical and basal cell.
C. WOX8 along with WOX9 regulates the development of basal lineage.
D. WOX8 and WOX9 are directly activated in the zygote by the transcription factorWRKY2.
Which one of the following options represents combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:8

A student listed following combinations of enzymes and their involvement in different phases of Calvin-Benson cycle:
A. Phosphoglycerate kinase – Reduction phase
B. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase – Regeneration phase
C. Triose-phosphate isomerase – Reduction phase
D. Phosphoribulokinase – Regeneration phase
Which one of the following combinations is correct?

QUESTION ID:9

In a plant r+ and a+ genes encode for a regulatory and a structural protein, respectively. These genes are responsible for blue color of flower. Mutation in either of the genes leads to white flowers, which is a recessive character. The two genes assort independently When two homozygous white flowered plants are crossed, the F1
plants have blue colored flowers. If the F1 plant is backcrossed, the progeny will have plants with blue and white flowers in the ratio of

QUESTION ID:10

Sound waves are transmitted from the external environment to the cochlea through the middle ear during hearing. The functions of the middle ear in hearing are suggested below:
(A) During the transmission of sound waves through the middle ear, the movement of the head of stapes induces a piston like movement on the oval window.
(B) The tympanic membrane functions as a resonator that reproduces the vibration of sound source.
(C) The sound pressure on the tympanic membrane is increased 1.3 times on the oval window by the lever system of malleus and incus.
(D) The area of tympanic membrane is greater than that of the footplate of stapes, and hence sound pressure on tympanic membrane is increased on oval window.
(E) The contraction of tensor tympani muscle causes the manubrium of the malleus to be pulled outward.
(F) The footplate of the stapes is pulled inward by the contraction of stapedius muscle.
Choose the option with all CORRECT statements

QUESTION ID:11

The cladogram given below shows the distribution of derived characters (A to 0) that define each of the groups shown at the Up. 
select me correct arrangement of characters that are being clescribed by A to D. 

QUESTION ID:12

An enzyme has a Km of 5 x 10-5M and a Vmax of 100 μmoles.lit-1.min-1(Km is the Michaelis constant and Vmax is the maximal velocity).

What is the velocity in the presence of 1 x 10-4M substrate and 2 x 10-4 M competitive inhibitor, given that the Ki for the inhibitor is 2 x 10-4 M?

QUESTION ID:13

Consider the cancer types in Column P and the cancer related descriptions (Column Q)

Column P

                                     Column Q

A. Leukemia

(i)

A tumor that has arisen from endodermal tissue

B. Sarcoma

(ii)

Hematopoietic cell cancer that does not grow as a solid tumor

C. Carcinoma

(iii)

A tumor that develops from mesodermal connective tissue

D. Melanoma

(iv)

Cancer that develops from the pigment-producing cells of skin

Select the option that represent all the correct matches

QUESTION ID:14

The actin-binding proteins regulate microfilament turnover in a eukaryotic system. Match the actin-binding protein (in column I) with their functions (in column II).'

Column I

                                           Column II

A. Cofilin

i

binds ADP-G-actin and catalyzes the exchange of ADP for ATP

B. Profilin

ii

binds preferentially to filament containing ADP-actin

C. Thymosin

iii

assembles unbranched filament

D. Formin

iv

binds to ATP-G-actin and inhibits addition of actin subunit to filament

Choose the CORRECT combination from below:

QUESTION ID:15

The pedigree below is in reference to Angelman Syndrome (AS), which is caused by a mutation in the UBE3A gene on chromosome 15. The gene Is also paternally Imprinted. Individuals showing AS. have not been indicated in the given pedigree. Individual I-1 does not have AS. Individuals marked with dots are carriers for UBE3A mutation. 
Which one of the following options lists individuals all of whom are likely to show AS? 

QUESTION ID:16

The following statements were made regarding the patterning of anterior-posterior bodyplan of Drosophila:
A. Microinjection of bicoid mRNA in the middle of a bicoid -deficient embryo leads toformation of ‘head’ in the middle and telson at the two ends.
B. Nanos protein inhibits the translation of caudal mRNA at the posterior half of theembryo.
C. The Bicoid protein activates the zygotic expression of the hunchback gene.
D. The segment polarity genes are expressed in segments of the embryo.
Which one of the following options represents all correct statements as made above?

QUESTION ID:17

Study the global ecosystem data provided in the following table.

Ecosystem

Global Area

(106 Km2)

Mean Net Primary Productivity

(NPP) per unit area (gm/m2/yr)

Mean biomass per

unit area (kg/m2)

Tropical rainforest

17

2000

44

Swamp and marsh

2

2500

15

Cultivated land

14

644

1.1

Open ocean

332

127

0.003

Based on the data provided in the table, choose the correct option that represents Eco systems with the highest global, primary production and the highest relative NPP, respectively.

QUESTION ID:18

Given below are radio-imaging technologies with the type of radiation/ radioisotope thatis used for the same.
A. Computed tomography scanner uses UV-rays
B. Magnetic resonance imaging [MRI] uses non-ionization radiation
C. Thyroid scintigraphy uses Iodine-123 (I123)
D. Phase-contrast radiography uses X-rays
E. Fluoroscopy uses X-rays
Which of the options represents all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:19

Iron deficiency is a common problem in humans worldwide. The homeostasis of iron in the body is maintained using various proteins (column- X) and their function (column- Y):

 Column- X

                    Column- Y

A. Ferritin

i.

Hypoxia is known to reduce its synthesis

B. Ferroportin

ii.

Plasma iron binding protein

C. Transferrin

iii.

Intramucosal cell iron binding protein

D. Hepcidin

iv.

Iron leaves mucosal cells through it

QUESTION ID:20

The table lists information about different classes of retroelements:

         Column X

        Column Y

A. LTR retrotransposons

(i)

7-21 bp target sequence

B. Non-LTR retroposons

(ii)

copia elements

C. SINEs

(iii)

Alu elements

(iv)

L1

Which one of the following options has all correct matches between column X and Y?

QUESTION ID:21

Fertilization between two mating types (P1 and P2) of Neurospora. led to a diploid ascus which gave rise to ascus containing 8 haploid ascospores. A set of DNA markers representing two linked loci was analyzed in P1. P2 and the °clads labeled 01 to 08 arranged from the tip to the base of the ascus. The observed profile is represented below

Which one of the following Is a correct conclusion of the above observation? 


QUESTION ID:22

The table below lists terms used in bioremediation (column X) and explanations for the terms (column Y).

      Column X

                                                                                      Column Y

(A) Bioventing

(i)

Indigenous level of containment degradation without any treatment

(B) Natural attenuation

(ii)

It is a technique of adding oxygen to the saturated zone below water table to stimulate degradation

(C) Air spraying

(iii)

It is a technique to add oxygen directly to a site of contamination in an unsaturated zone which stimulates in situ aerobic degradation

(D) Biostimulation

(iv)

Modification of environmental conditions by adding nutrients to enhance biodegradation process

Which one of the following options is a correct match between terms in column X and explanations in column Y?

QUESTION ID:23

Three reactions were performed to detect a 150 bp DNA fragment rich in GC content, using PCR amplification method and the following radiolabeled material (i) 5 ’
32 P-labelled primers (ii) α- 32 P-labelled dCTP and, (iii) γ - 32 P-labelled dATP. All the reactions had theremaining components for a successful PCR amplification. After PCR amplification thesamples were run on a 2% Agarose gel. The gel was then exposed to radiographic film.From the radiographs given below, which is the correct representation of the reactions (i),(ii) and (iii) in lanes A, B and C respectively.

QUESTION ID:24

Match the Indian Biosphere reserves (Column P) with the key fauna (Column Q) they are intended to protect.

Column P (Biosphere Reserve)

Column Q (Key fauna)

A. Gulf of Mannar

(i)

Musk deer

B. Dihang-Dibang

(ii)

Saltwater crocodile

C. Great Nicobar

(iii)

Dugong

D. Seshachalam Hills

(iv)

Lion-tailed macaque

E. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve

(v)

Slender loris

Which one of the following options has all correct matches between column P and Q?

QUESTION ID:25

A potential difference of about -70 mV between inside and outside of a single axonal membrane in resting condition may be recorded by suitable electrodes and amplifier. The physico-chemical and biological basis of the origin of this resting membrane potential(RMP) are suggested below:
(A) The RMP is close to the equilibrium of Na+ion.
(B) There must be an unequal distribution of diffusible ions across the axonal membrane for the RMP.
(C) The axonal membrane must be permeable to one or more species of ions for the RMP.
(D) The concentration gradient of Na+ and K+ ions across the axonal membrane required for the RMP, is dependent on the activity of Na+, K+-ATPase.
(E) Impermeable proteins in the axoplasm do not affect the distribution of diffusible ions across the axonal membrane which is required for the RMP.
(F) Na+, K+-ATPase pump in the axonal membrane which is essential for the RMP, is not electrogenic.
Choose all correct statements from the following options:

QUESTION ID:26

Fragmentation breaks up contiguous tracts of natural habitats into smaller patches. In afragmented landscape where a previously large forest has become a mosaic of patches ofdifferent sizes, the following statements can be made about the fragment size and itsspecies diversity.
A. Smaller fragments will always have lower species richness than larger fragments.
B. Species richness will depend on fragment size.
C. Species richness will depend on physical connectivity between fragments.
D. Species richness cannot be compared between large and small fragments.
Select the option where both the statements are correct

QUESTION ID:27

In fever caused by bacterial infection, the set-point of the thermoregulatory mechanism is changed to a new point above 37 0C. The following statements were proposed by a researcher to explain the pathogenesis of this fever:
(A) The infection induced cytokines inhibit PGE 2 in the hypothalamus, and that increases the body temperature.
(B) The increased levels of circulating TNFα and IL 1β after infection are not able to induce fever.
(C) The endotoxins of bacteria act on the macrophages and monocytes of the infected person to initiate the processthat results in the rise of body temperature.
(D) The cytokines produced from the macrophages by endotoxins act as endogenous pyrogens in the infectedperson.
(E) The infection induced circulating cytokines act on the organum vasculosum of lamina terminalis (OVLT) whichactivates pre-optic area of hypothalamus resulting in the increase of body temperature.
(F) The inhibition of COX2 gene expression by the increased level of circulating cytokines causes the rise of bodytemperature in the infected person.
Choose the option with all correct statements:

QUESTION ID:28

The regions of phi, psi space occupied by well characterized protein secondary structures are marked on a Ramachandran plot as shown above. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?


QUESTION ID:29

PBMCs from the blood collected from a tuberculosis (1B) patient were given to four lab technicians to perform ELISPOT assay for interferon y (IFNy). While all steps recommended for ELISPOT were followed, the first step was performed differently by the four lab technicians, as detailed below
A Lab technician 1 coated each well with 250,000 formaldehyde- treated cells and stimulated the cells with TB-specific antigen. 
B Lab technician 2 coated each well with 250,000 cells and did not stimulate the cells with TS-specific antigen 
C. Lab technician 3 depleted T cells from PBMCs completely, coated the wells with monocyte-enriched PBMCs, and stimulated them with TB-specific antigen 
D. Lab technician 4 coated each well with 250,000 cells and stimulated the cells with TB-specific antigens. 
Which of the lab technicians' assays will yield a correct ELISPOT result for interferon y? 

QUESTION ID:30

The mammalian genital ridge is bipotential. Which one of the following statements regarding determination of the fate of genital ridge is
INCORRECT

QUESTION ID:31

Which one of the following statements about corals is NOT CORRECT ?

QUESTION ID:32

For an experiment, the hapten DNP was conjugated with the carrier protein BSA or with the carrier protein OVA. A set of mice were primed with either DNP-BSA conjugate or with OVA which was not conjugated to DNP. The following experiments were then performed.
A. X-ray irradiated syngeneic mice were injected with spleen cells from both DNP-BSA–primed mice and OVA-primed mice and then challenged with DNP-OVA conjugate.
B. X-ray irradiated syngeneic mice were injected with T-cell depleted spleen cells from DNP-BSA–primed mice and spleen cells from OVA-primed mice and then challenged with DNP-OVA conjugate.
C. X-ray irradiated syngeneic mice were injected with spleen cells from DNP-BSA–primed mice and T-cell depleted spleen cells from OVA-primed-mice and then challenged with DNP-OVA conjugate.
Which one of the following options of mice will generate secondary anti-hapten responseto DNP?

QUESTION ID:33

To ensure proper segregation of chromosomes during mitosis, the sister chromatid pairs must be stably bi-oriented on the mitotic spindle. In animal cells, after nuclear envelope break down (NEBD), chromosomes glide along the microtubules' length with the help oft he motor proteins. When the chromosomes reach the plus-end of microtubules, thekinetochores attach to the microtubules. Which one of the following is the correct option for the kinetochore-microtubules attachment configuration that ensures preprohormone some segregation?

QUESTION ID:34

The following statements refer to the E.coli repticative DNA polymerase: 
A. DNA Pol I displays very limited processivity and possesses 3'--) 5' exonuctease activity. allowing fidelity of DNA replication. 
B. DNA Poi III Is suitable for leading strand DNA synthesis due to Its high processivity and 5'—) 3' exonuclease activity that removes incorrect nucleotides incorporated during DNA synthesis. 
C. DNA Pol I possesses 5'--* 3' exonuclease activity which allows removal of the RNA primer while as 5'-' 3' polymerase activity allows it to fill the gap created by removal of the RNA primer 
D. DNA Pol III is suitable for lagging strand DNA synthesis due to its low processivity and 5'-' exonuctease activity. 
Which one of the options below represents the combination of all correct statements? 

QUESTION ID:35

The following statements were made regarding submergence tolerance in plants.
A. Wetland plants have structural barrier to prevent O2 diffusion into soil.
B. Dryland plants have structural barrier to prevent O2 diffusion into soil.
C. Lowering of cytosolic Ca 2+ prevents aerenchyma formation.
D. Activation of ethylene signal transduction pathway prevents aerenchyma formation.
Which one of the following options has all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:36

In the cladograms given below each nucleotide change is indicated by a black bar 

Which one of the following options represents two equally most parsimonious trees? 

QUESTION ID:37

Consider the defects in human macrophage cell lines (antigen presenting cells, Column A)and their possible consequence on T cell activation (Column B).

                                     Column A

                  Column B

A. β2-microglobulin knockout macrophages

i

Cannot activate CD4+ or CD8+ T cells

B. TLR4 knockout macrophages

ii

Cannot activate CD4+ T cells

C. Macrophages with HLA region for DP, DQ and DR deleted

iii

Cannot activate CD8+ T cells

D. B7 knockout macrophages

iv

Can activate CD4+ or CD8+ T cells

Select the option that represents all the correct matches

QUESTION ID:38

Which one of the following statements relating to the mechanism of color development IN response to LacZ expression in Escherichia coli is INCORRECT ?

QUESTION ID:39

Phytochrome photoreceptors exist in two isoforms, PR and PFR . Following are certain statements regarding the function of PFR :
A. PFR form induces phosphorylation and ubiquitin linked degradation of PIFs transcription factor.
B. PFR mediated degradation of PIFs inhibits photomorphogenesis.
C. P FR inhibits the activity of COPI.
D. PFR increases the stability of transcription factors HFR 1, HY5 and LAF1.
Which one of the following combinations is correct?