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Previous Year Questions

TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1


What is the average value of v for the range of shown in the following plot?

QUESTION ID:2

A shopkeeper purchases a product for Rs.100 and sells it making a profit of 10%. The customer resells it to the same shopkeeper incurring a loss of 10%. In these dealings the shopkeeper makes

QUESTION ID:3

The random errors associated with the measurement of P and Q are 10% and 2%, respectively. What is the maximum percentage random error in P/Q?

QUESTION ID:4

If a plant with green leaves is kept in a dark room with only green light on, which one of the following would we observe?

QUESTION ID:5

The graph shows cumulative frequency percentage of research scholars and the number of papers published by them. Which of the following statements is true?

QUESTION ID:6

How many times starting at 1:00 pm would the minute and hour hands of a clock make an angle 400of with each other in the next 6 hours?

QUESTION ID:7

A fair die was thrown three times and the outcome was repeatedly six. If the die is thrown again what is the probability of getting six?

QUESTION ID:8

The distance from city P to city Q is 27 km. A and B start walking from P towards Q at speeds of 5 km/hr and 7 km/hr, respectively. B reaches Q, returns immediately, and meets A at R. What is the distance between P and R?(assume all three cities to be in one straight line)

QUESTION ID:9

Density of a rice grain is 1.5 g/cc and bulk density of rice heap is 0.80 g/cc. If a 1 litre container is completely filled with rice, what will be the approximate volume of pore
space in the container?

QUESTION ID:10

Three boxes are coloured red, blue and green and so are three balls. In how many ways can one put the balls one in each box such that no ball goes into the box of its own colour?

QUESTION ID:11

The product of the perimeter of a triangle, the radius of its in-circle, and a number gives the area of the triangle. The number is

QUESTION ID:12

It takes 5 days for a steamboat to travel from A to B along a river. It takes 7 days to return from B to A. How many days will it take for a raft to drift from
A to B (assuming all speeds are constant)?

QUESTION ID:13

A floor of size 13 X 24 is to be paved using square tiles only. What is the smallest number of tiles needed to do this?

QUESTION ID:14

There are two buckets A and B. Initially A has 2 litres of water and B is empty. At every hour 1 litre of water is transferred from A to B followed by returning 1/2 litre back to A from B half an hour later. The earliest A will get empty in: 

QUESTION ID:15

Pre-Ph.D. exam score of 10 students are plotted against their M.Sc. marks. Which of the following is true? 

QUESTION ID:16

AB is the diameter of a circle. The chord CD is perpendicular to AB intersecting it at P. If CP=2 and PB=1, the radius of the circle is 

QUESTION ID:17

What is the volume of soil in an open pit of size 2m X 2m X 10cm 

QUESTION ID:18

What is the minimum number of moves required to transform figure 1. to figure 2? A move is defined as removing a coin and placing it such that it touches two other coins in its new  position.

QUESTION ID:19

If a person travels 0% faster than normal, he reaches y minutes earlier than normal. What is his normal time of travel? 

QUESTION ID:20

Starting from a point A you fly one mile south, then one mile east, then one mile north which brings you back to point A. Which of the following MUST be true?

QUESTION ID:21

Following are the pKa's of the ionizable groups in lysine
pKa1 = 2.16 (a - carboxylic group) 
pKa2 = 9.06 (a - amino group)
pKa3 = 10.54 (E - amino group)
Which one of the following options represents the pl of lysine? 

QUESTION ID:22

The enzyme alkaline phosphatase was tested for its catalytic activity using the substrate para-nitrophenylphosphate. The Km obtained was 10 mM and Vmax was 100umol/min. Which one of the following options represents the initial velocity of the reaction at a substrate concentration of 10 mM? 

QUESTION ID:23

How many hydrogen bonds involving the backbone CO and NH can be observed in an α-helix consisting of 15 amino acid residues?

QUESTION ID:24

Progression across G1/S boundary followed by entry into S-phase is promoted by the activation of which one of the following protein complexes?

QUESTION ID:25

Which one of the following combinations of terms is matched INCORRECTLY?

QUESTION ID:26

Widal test, a widely used serological test for enteric fever, is a type of 

QUESTION ID:27

Which one of the following gases is present in the stratosphere at a concentration higher than its concentration in troposphere? 

QUESTION ID:28

Diligent proteins predominantly play an important role in biosynthesis of:

QUESTION ID:29

Which one of the following options represents a combination of terms that are matched INCORRECTLY? 

QUESTION ID:30

Iron-sulphur clusters [Fe-S] are the key prosthetic groups that carry electrons in all of the below EXCEPT:

QUESTION ID:31

Which of the following is the causative agent of filariasis?

QUESTION ID:32

Select the correct statement related to phylogeny of primates.

QUESTION ID:33

Which one of the following regions of the target gene is NOT used for making an RNAi construct to knock down its expression?

QUESTION ID:34

The cytoplasmic domain of the receptor of which of the following proteins does NOT function as tyrosine kinase?

QUESTION ID:35

Which one of the following proteins is essential for both the initiation of DNA replication as well as the continued advance of the replication fork?

QUESTION ID:36

Tumors are generally classified by

QUESTION ID:37

Consider the following ecosystems.

A. Tropical rain forests

B. Open ocean

C. Algal beds and Coral reefs

D. Marshes and Swamps

Which one of the following options represents these ecosystems in an increasing order of their contribution to annual world net primary production?

QUESTION ID:38

All of the following statements about bacterial transcription termination are true EXCEPT

QUESTION ID:39

Which among the four populations (A, B, C, and D) would have the lowest intrinsic rate of population growth (r)? 


QUESTION ID:40

Which one of the following is used in organification of tyrosine residues in thyroglobulin protein, during thyroid hormone biosynthesis?

QUESTION ID:41

Fluorescence microscope that requires photoactivatable probes to obtain super-resolution is

QUESTION ID:42

DNA was isolated from a strain of bacterium with genotype a+ b+ c+ d+ e+ and transformed into a bacterial strain a b c d e. The transformants were tested for the presence of the donated genes. The cotransformed genes were found as follows: a+ and b+ ; c+ and e+ ; d+ and c+ ; b+ and d+ ; 
What is the order of genes on the bacterial chromosome? 

QUESTION ID:43

The dark current in retina is due to

QUESTION ID:44

Mimicry where deceptiveness of the mimic's signal is high and fitness consequences signaled to the receiver by the mimic is also high (and negative) is 

QUESTION ID:45

Which of the following combinations would best characterize the dominant phase of the life cycle of a pteridophyte? 

QUESTION ID:46

Which one of the following combinations represents the major protein or protein complex involved in chromatin condensation in yeast and human,
respectively?

QUESTION ID:47

For a nuclear spin of spin quantum no. (I = 1/2) precessing in a magnetic field at a Larmor frequency of 300 MHz, the wavelength of incident radiation required to excite the nuclear spins must be approximately

QUESTION ID:48

Photochemically generated ATP is consumed in which one of the following phases of Calvin-Benson cycle?

QUESTION ID:49

Which of the following ‘R’ gene products do not contain NBS-LRR domain?

QUESTION ID:50

In a transplantation experiment, the area of presumptive ectoderm from anearly frog gastrula was transplanted to a region of the newt gastruladestined to become parts of the mouth. The resulting salamander larvae hadfrog like mouth parts (frog tadpole suckers) instead of balancers asobserved during development of wild type newt embryo. This is an example of

QUESTION ID:51

Which one of the following statements with respect to development in amphibians is correct?

QUESTION ID:52

What is the pattern of cleavage observed in mammals?

QUESTION ID:53

Historical frequencies of fires in an area can be determined by

QUESTION ID:54

Consider the following four geological periods.
A. Quaternary
B. Cretaceous
C. Jurassic
D. Cambrian
Which one of the following options represents the correct arrangement ofthese geological periods from earliest to recent:

QUESTION ID:55

In bacteria many of the tRNA genes do not contain the CCA sequence found at the 3' end of tRNA. In this context which one of the following statements represents the correct explanation?

QUESTION ID:56

During normal development of sea urchin, β-catenin accumulatespredominantly in the micromeres, which are fated to become endoderm andmesoderm. If GSK- 3 is blocked in the developing embryo:

QUESTION ID:57

Eukaryotes are classified into 5-6 super groups based on phylogenomic studies. Which one of the following statements about eurkaryotic super groups is FALSE?

QUESTION ID:58

Some cells possess peptides which contain D- form of amino acids. How do they arise?

QUESTION ID:59

Given below are statements on ‘living fossils’. Select the correct statements

QUESTION ID:60

In which of the following stages of Arabidopsis embryogenesis do the visible distinctions between the adaxial and abaxial tissues of the cotyledons become initially apparent?

QUESTION ID:61

In eukaryotic cells, covalently attached lipids help to anchor some water soluble proteins to the plasma membrane. One group of cytosolic proteins are anchored to the cytosolic face of membrane by a fatty acyl group (e.g.myristate or palmitate). These groups are generally covalently attached towhich amino acids present at the N-terminus of the polypeptide chain?

QUESTION ID:62

The basic difference between direct repair and base excision repair is

QUESTION ID:63

Which one of the following is not present in the filtration slit diaphragm?

QUESTION ID:64

The movement of proteins bigger than 50 kDa across the nuclear enveloperequires:

QUESTION ID:65

A fly with apricot coloured eye was crossed with a sepia eyed fly of oppositesex. In F1 all flies were wild type. The genes responsible for the twopheno types were

QUESTION ID:66

A breakthrough in cancer therapy is expected where T- cells are taken froma patient are modified in the laboratory to attack cancer cells before re-infusion in the patient. These T cells are called

QUESTION ID:67

Which one of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:68

Following statements are made about uncompetitive inhibition of an enzyme:
A. Uncompetitive inhibitor binds to both free enzyme as well as an enzyme-substrate complex.
B. Addition of uncompetitive inhibitor lowers the Vmax of the reaction.
C. Apparent KM of the enzyme is lowered.
D. Apparent KM of the enzyme remains unchanged.
Which one of the following option represents the correct combination of the statments?

QUESTION ID:69

During cytokinesis, a small GTPase, RhoA, localizes to the equatorialmembrane above the spindle midzone. The localization/activity of RhoA ispotentially modulated by:
A. RhoGEF Ect2
B. Aurora B kinase
C. PLK1 kinase
D. MKLP1 kinesin
E. ATM and ATR
Which one of the following combination contains all correct statments ?

QUESTION ID:70

Human polydactyly traits having extra fingers or toes are caused by adominant allele. In a screening it was found that out of 42 individualshaving an allele for polydactyly, only 38 of them were polydactylus. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the observation?

QUESTION ID:71

During cytokinesis, a small GTPase, RhoA, localizes to the equatorial membrane above the spindle midzone. The localization/activity of RhoA is potentially modulated by:
A. RhoGEF Ect2
B. Aurora B kinase
C. PLK1 kinase
D. MKLP1 kinesin
E. ATM and ATR
Which one of the following combination contains all correct statments ?

QUESTION ID:72

Given below are graphs depicting two possible dynamics of gene duplication events over a period of time during genome evolution. 

Based on the above figures, which one of the following options correctly represents the identity of A, B, C and D? 

QUESTION ID:73

Following statements have been proposed for cancer cells and cancer stem cells:
A. Cancer cells mostly have mutations whereas cancer stem cells do not.
B. Cancer cells divide to form two different populations of cells whereas cancer stem cells do not divide.
C. Cancer stem cells can undergo self-renewal whereas cancer cells cannot.
D. Cancer cells are predominantly resistant to chemotherapy and radiation.
E. Cancer stem cells are found only in the bone marrow and placenta.
Which one of the following combination of statements is correct ?

QUESTION ID:74

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the tetrapodlimb development?

QUESTION ID:75

The pressure in the ‘space’ between lungs and chest wall is known as intrapleural pressure. The following statements are related to the intrapleural pressure at different phases of respiration:
A. At the end of quiet expiration the tendency of the lung to recoil from chest wall is balanced by the recoil of chest wall in opposite direction, andintrapleural pressure is subatmospheric.
B. At the start of inspiration the intrapleural pressure is subatmospheric.
C. The intrapleural pressure becomes more negative during inspiration.
D. The intrapleural pressure attains value above atmospheric pressureduring expiration.
E. The intrapleural pressure becomes positive (relative to atmosphericpressure) during strong inspiratory efforts.
Which one of the following combinations is correct ?

QUESTION ID:76

The table given below lists the morphological features and groups of plants 

 

Which one of the followings options represents the correct match between two columns? 

QUESTION ID:77

The curve B in the figure below shows the oxygen dissociation profile at physiological concentration of CO2 and at pH 7. 
An increase in pH would lead to oxygen dissociation profile indicated by:

QUESTION ID:78

Which of the following is/are associated with the presentation of endogenous antigens by Class I MHC molecule by an Antigen Presenting Cell(APC), given the condition that there is no cross-presentation of antigens by the APC?

QUESTION ID:79

The mechanisms of thermogenesis in brown adipose tissue (BAT) in cold aredescribed in the following proposed statements:

A. A thermogenic uncoupling protein, UCP1 helps in the heat production inBAT

B. Norepinephrine secretion from sympathetic nerve endings in BAT isdecreased

C. Lipolysis is increased by low level of norepinephrine in BAT

D. A high content of mitochondria in BAT helps in the oxidation of fatty acids

E. Oxidation produces much heat as ATP synthase activity is low

Which one of the following options represents the combination of correct statements ?

QUESTION ID:80

The graphs given below show the possible behavior of two species over the course of succession. 
Possible effects observed during succession are:
i. Total suppression
ii. Convergence
iii. Sequential succession 

QUESTION ID:81

A group of transposable elements described as ‘retroelements’ encompass

QUESTION ID:82

Match the terms used in vertebrate limb development in List I with theirdescriptions in List II
Which one of the following combination of the statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:83

DNA replication occurs in S phase. The entry of cells into S phase isregulated by the tumor suppressor protein Rb. The statements below aremade with reference to the role of Rb.
A. Rb binds to E2F in the cytosol and prevents E2F entry into the nucleus.
B. Rb is phosphorylated by cyclin A/ cdk 4.
C. Phospho Rb activates E2F.
D. E2F activates cyclin E production which promotes the G1/S transition.
Which one of the following options represents all correct statements ?

QUESTION ID:84

Given below are some of the statements in connection with neural tubeformation in vertebrates:
A. In primary neurulation the cells surrounding the neural plate direct theneural plate cells to proliferate, invaginate and separate from the surfaceectoderm to form an underlying hollow tube.
B. In secondary neurulation the neural tube arises from the aggregation ofmesenchyme cells into a solid cord that subsequently forms cavities tocreate a hollow tube
C. In birds primary neurulation generates the neural tube from anterior upto the hind limb developing region
D. In mammals, secondary neurulation begins at the level of sacralvertebrae
E. Anencephaly results when a failure to close the neural tube occurs,resulting in the forebrain remaining in contact with amniotic fluid.
Which one of the following options gives all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:85

The pI of four proteins (A, B, C, D) are shown in the table below:


To purify ‘D’ from a mixture of these four proteins in a single step, using ion-exchange chromatography, what combination of buffer pH and ion-exchangeresin would you select?

QUESTION ID:86

The table given below lists the conservation areas and the major group oforganisms that they are best known for..

Which one of the following options represents the correct match of column Xand Y

QUESTION ID:87

Which one of the statements given below regarding generation of monoclonal antibodies is INCORRECT?         

QUESTION ID:88

Following are certain statements regarding tracheary elements of vascularplants
A. Xylem tracheids are highly elongated tapered cells that conduct water
B. Xylem vessel elements are less elongated and narrower than tracheids
C. Angiosperms may have both tracheids and vessel elements
D. Vessel elements are the only tracheary elements in almost allgymnosperms
Which one of the following options represents the combination of correct statements ?

QUESTION ID:89

Which one of the following options correctly represents A, B, C and D in the above equation? 

QUESTION ID:90

The table below lists the biochemical characteristics of proteins and experimental procedures used to determine them. Match the characteristicswith the experimental procedure


QUESTION ID:91

A schematic of a metabolic pathway is shown below


QUESTION ID:92

Consider the following graphs for per capita growth rate (1/N) (dn/dt) as a function of dt population density (N). 



QUESTION ID:93

Given below are some terms and concepts related to phytoremediation in Column A and B
Which one of the following options represents the most appropriate match ofall terms/concepts in column A and B ?

QUESTION ID:94

The diagram below depicts energy flow within a single trophic level, where 1=amount ingested, NA= amount n. assimilated, R=respiration, and Pn= biomass production a trophic level. 

Which one of the following options represents correct values for Pn, NA, R and I in kcal respectively, if Pn-1 =1000 kcal, I/ Pn-1 = 20%, A/1= 35% and Pn/A= 20%? 

QUESTION ID:95

Following statements were made about chromosome cohesion during mitosisand meiosis.
A. Though cohesin is important for pairwise alignment of the chromosomeson the mitotic spindle, it is not important for the generation of tensionacross the centromere.
B. Cohesin binds to the chromosome even before the initiation of S-phase.
C. In fission yeast, centromere specific localization of Moa1 and Rec8regulates the orientation of kinetochores at meiosis-I.
D. Cohesin exhibits uniform distribution/localization pattern across thechromosomal length.
E. Polo/Cdc5 is a positive regulator of Separase, an endopeptidase thatfacilitates opening of the cohesin ring.
Which one of the following combination contains all correct statments ?

QUESTION ID:96

Which one of the following is valid with respect to, one step growthexperiment developed by Ellis and Delbruck in 1939?

QUESTION ID:97

Given below are a few terms related to map-based sequencing of genomes:
A. Partial digestion with restriction enzymes.
B. Assembly of contigs
C. Pulsed field gel electrophoresis
D. Cloning in cosmids/YACs/BACs
E. Sub-cloning and sequencing
Which one of the following options represents the correct order of steps(based on the above terms) in map-based sequencing?

QUESTION ID:98

The pedigree given below represents the genotype e four different loci for the children in generation III. 

QUESTION ID:99

In the Table below, Column I describes movements of organisms and Column II describes the type of movement.
Which one of the following options represents the correct match of column Iwith Column II

QUESTION ID:100

The following are a few statements on shade leaves vis-à-vis sun leaves intree species
A. Higher amount of chlorophyll per dry weight
B. Lower density of stomata
C. Thicker leaves
D. Lower rates of dark respiration per unit area
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:101

A culture was started by inoculating the medium with 100 cells having ageneration time of 2 hours. Assuming the culture grows in ideal synchronyfor at least 24 hours, what will be the number of cells in the culture at 2hours and 9 hours?

QUESTION ID:102

Pichia pastoris is a good host for producing human proteins for therapeutic use. Given below are some statements on the reasons for its utility.

A. It produces large amount of recombinant protein.

B. It has the property of secreting proteins into the medium.

C. It allows the formation of disulphide bonds similar to those in humans.

D. It carries out protein glycosylations identical to those found in humans.

Which one of the following options represents a combination of correct statements

QUESTION ID:103

Mitochondrial protein synthesis is of prokaryotic origin. Following statements are being made about the ribosomes from bacteria and mitochondria:

 A. The bacterial ribosome consists of small and large subunits of 30S and50S respectively, whereas in mitochondria of mammals these subunits areof 28S and 39S

 B. In the bacterial ribosomes the RNA: protein ratio is about 2:1 whereas in mitochondria ribosomes this ratio is usually 1:2

 C. Both the bacterial and mitochondrial ribosomes consist of 30S and 50Ssubunits

 D. Both the bacterial and mitochondrial ribosomes consist of RNA and protein in the ratio of 1:1

 Choose the option that represents all correct statements

QUESTION ID:104

During light reaction in photosynthesis, electron is transported in electron transport chain (ETC) and produces ATP and NADPH in the process. Following are certain statements regarding ETC during light reaction:

A. Electron from P680 moves first to quinone and then to the pheophytin

B. P700 can receive electrons from plastocyanin

C. NADPH is produced at the end of light reaction

D. The hydrogen ions produced during light reaction gets concentrated in thylakoid lumen

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:   

QUESTION ID:105

The molecular ion peak [M]+ of an analyte as measured by Electron Ionization Mass Spectrometry has an m/z of 149 and a relative abundance of 100%. The [M]+ has a relative abundance of 6.7% and the [M + 2]+ peak has a relative abundance of 5%. The abundance of the major isotope of H, C. N, 0, and S are 1H-100%, 12C-98.9%, 13C-1.1%, 14N-99.6%, 15N-0.4%, 160, 99.8%, 100-0.2%, 32S-95.0%, 33S-0.75 % and .S-4.2%. The most probable molecular formula of the compound is: 

QUESTION ID:106

Given below are a few statements on technologies/concepts related todevelopment of transgenic plants:
A. Frequency of genetic transformation is influenced only by the genes of Agrobacterium and not by those of the host plants.
B. Transgenic plants containing a single copy of the transgene arepreferred over those that contain multiple transgene copies for subsequentgenetic analysis.
C. Supervirulent strains of Agrobacterium can be generated by increasingthe copy number of virulence genes.
D. A nonconditional negative selection marker has to be necessarily usedwith a strong constitutive promoter for the development of transgenicplants.
Which one of the following options represents a combination of all INCORRECT statements?

QUESTION ID:107

The following statements are made with reference to DNA replication: 
A. Camptothecin causes intra- strand and inter- strand crosslinks in DNA, leading to stalling of replication forks.
B. Prevention of reinitiation of DNA replication during the same cell cycle is mediated by regulating the loading of the initiator complex ORC.
C. A glu → ala mutation in the nucleotide building pocket of DNA polymerase III could lead to the incorporation of ribonucleotides in the extending DNA chain.
D. A mutation in the gene encoding Topoisomerase II could lead to entanglement of DNA daughter strands during replication.
Which one of the following options represents all correct statements ?

QUESTION ID:108

The following graph shows the change in proportion of biomass in foliage (leaves), branch and stemwood (bole) for a tree species as a function of DBH (diameter at 1.5 m above ground) 


Which one of the following options correctly matches the curves (A, B, and C) with stemwood, foliage and branch, respectively? 

QUESTION ID:109

The following statements are being made to define the Michaelis constant (Km) . It is: 
A. Independent of enzyme concentration [E] and substrate concentration [S] 
B. Equal to the dissociation constant when the [ES] complex dissociates more rapidly than product formation 
C. Equal to the dissociation constant when product formation is more rapid than [ES] complex dissociation 
D. An intrinsic property of an enzyme and does not depend on pH, temperature and ionic strength 
Which one of the following combination of statements is correct? 

QUESTION ID:110

A circular dichroism spectrum in the far-UV region informs on the kind and content of secondary structures in a protein. Near-UV and tryptophan emission spectra inform on the tertiary structure. Shown in the panels above are (A) Intrinsic fluorescence emission spectra of protein X, (8) Far-UV CD spectra of protein 'X', (C) Near-UV CD spectra of protein 'X' recorded under different conditions. Curves represent the spectra of protein 'X' at pH 7.0 (black), pH 3.0 (green), and pH 7.0 in the presence of 6.0 M guanidine hydrochloride (red). What does the experiment report? 



QUESTION ID:111

The tables below show the bird species and their abundance in three habitats P, Q and R. 

Which one of the combinations below best represents the habitats in decreasing order a diversity? 

QUESTION ID:112

In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the recessive homozygote genotype of trait q is 0.04. The percentage of individuals homozygous for the dominant allele is

QUESTION ID:113

Below are given a set of statements for the glucocorticoid hormones:
A. They bind to cell surface receptors and influence stress adaptation
B. They bind to intracellular receptors and influence stress adaptation
C. They inhibit ACTH secretion from anterior pituitary
D. Prolonged treatment with glucocorticoids leads to atrophic and unresponsive adrenals
E. Their secretion does not show circadian variations
Which one of the following combination of the statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:114

Cellular actin levels can be as high as 100-400 μM. Of this, unpolymerized actin concentration can be as much as 50-200 μM. However, the critical concentration for actin polymerization in-vitro is about 0.2 μM. Some of the following proteins inhibit polymerization of actin in cells.
A. Thymosin –ß4
B. Capping protein CapZ
C. Tropomodulin
D. XMAP215
Which one of the following options lists all inhibitors?

QUESTION ID:115

Hemoglobin (Hb) transports CO, in venous blood as carbamates. The following statements refer to the formation of these carbamates: 
A. CO2 interacts with amino terminal nitrogens of Hb polypeptide chains
B. CO, interacts with carboxyl terminal carbons of Hb polypeptide chains
C. Carbamates helps formation of salt bridges between aced 13 chains of Hb
D. Carbamates helps formation of disulfide bridges between a cccli chains of Hb
Which one of the following options is a combination of correct statements?

QUESTION ID:116

Localized increases in the cytosolic level of free Ca2+are critical to its function as second messenger. Calmodulin, a small cytosolic protein, mediates many cellular effects of Ca2+. Which of the following is NOT CORRECT for Ca2+-calmodulin interaction?

QUESTION ID:117

Inverse PCR is performed for site-directed mutagenesis with complementary primers (having the desired mutation) using a plasmid having the cloned gene as template. The following statements were made regarding the above experiment.
A. PCR is followed by transformation of bacterial cells directly with the reaction mixture. A large number of the transformants will have the wild type gene.
B. The PCR mixture is treated with Dpn I and then used to transform bacterial cells. Most of the transformants will have the mutant gene.
C. PCR is followed by transformation of bacterial cells directly with the reaction mixture. None of the transformants will have the mutant gene.
D. The PCR mixture is treated with Dpn I and then used to transform bacterial cells. Half of the transformants will have the mutant gene.
Which one of the following options represents a combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:118

The population that is at highest risk against influenza infection should be immunized annually. Which one of the following is the most important reason for this?

QUESTION ID:119

To delineate the steps in endoplasmic reticulum (ER) transport, a PhD student homogenized pancreatic acinar cells to isolate microsomes, which retain most of the biochemical properties of the ER. For this experiment, the student has planned a number of controls as mentioned below.
A. Treat one set of microsomes first with detergent and then with protease.
B. Treat one set of microsomes with protease only.
C. Treat one set of microsomes with micrococcal nuclease.
D. Treat one set of microsomes with detergent only.
Select the option that represents the best combination of the controls.

QUESTION ID:120

The phytohormones ethylene (ET), methyl jasmonate (MeJA) and salicylic acid (SA) play important roles in plant defense. The following statements were made regarding induction of defensin PDF1.2 and pathogenesis related protein PR1:
A. ET/MeJA activates PDF1.2
B. ET/MeJA activates PR-1
C. SA activates PDF1.2
D. SA activates PR-1

QUESTION ID:121

Consider the four results that were obtained from immunophenotyping of human breast cancer cells. 



QUESTION ID:122

Given below are a few statements about nuclear transport.
A. RanGTP levels are higher in the nucleus than the cytoplasm.
B. Nuclear import receptors can shuttle between the nucleus and cytoplasm.
C. NTF2 transports RanGDP into the cytosol.
D. Export of mRNA is not directly dependent on Ran.
E. tRNA and miRNA export is mediated by exportins.
Which one of the following combination contains all correct statments ?

QUESTION ID:123

Wheat plants can have kernels of white colour or in shades of red i.e. light red, red, dark red and very dark red (purple). A researcher made the following cross:
The following conclusions are made from the results obtained:
A. It is a dihybrid cross where white colour is coded by gene A and the purple colour is coded by gene B
B. Two genes, both coding for the colour of kernel and each gene having two alleles, one that produced red pigment and the other that produced no pigment.
C. Four genes, one coding for no pigment, which is epistatic over the other genes. The remaining three genes have 2 alleles each, one that produced red pigment and the other that produced no pigment.
D. The trait is influenced by the environment leading to the observed variation in kernel colour.
Which of the above conclusion(s) is/are correct?

QUESTION ID:124

Following are certain statements regarding root growth and differentiation in plants:
A. Root hair, endodermis, xylem and phloem reach maturation in elongation zone of a developing root.
B. The root epidermal cells that are incapable of forming root hairs are called atrichoblasts.
C. Quiescent center is present just above root cap.
D. In Arabidopsis, an auxin transporter (ABCB4) plays a role in root hair emergence by maintaining intracellular auxin concentration.
Which one of the following combination of statements is correct ?

QUESTION ID:125

A researcher has obtained an Arabidopsis mutant defective in strigolactones (SLs), a novel plant hormone. The following statements were made regarding the mutant phenotype:
A. Shoot branching gets enhanced in the mutant plant
B. Hyphal branching of arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi (AM-fungi) gets enhanced during colonization in the mutant plants
C. Shoot branching gets inhibited in the mutant plants
D. Germination of seeds of parasitic plant is prevented near the mutant plant
Which one of the following options represents the combination of correct statements ?

QUESTION ID:126

Optical remote sensing has been increasingly used to monitor vegetation globally. The table below lists different regions of the electromagnetic radiation (EMR) spectrum as well as different vegetation characteristics:
Which one of the following combinations correctly matches the EMR region with the vegetation character analysed:

QUESTION ID:127

Following statements were made about imprinting in the human genome.

A. Imprinting control centre (IC) harbors part of the SNRPN gene.

B. Imprinting of genes in an individual cannot be tissue specific.

C. Sperms and eggs exhibit identical pattern of genome methylation, except in the sex chromosomes.

D. At imprinted loci, expression depends on the parental origin.

Select the option with all the correct statements.

QUESTION ID:128

Given below are two columns listing angiosperm families and their groups

Which one of the following option represents the correct match of the two columns ?

QUESTION ID:129

Given below are the various protein cleaving reagents (List I) and their recognition sites (List II) in the target protein.
Which one of the following options represents the correct combination of items

QUESTION ID:130

A researcher working on island biogeography mapped how isolation-controlled immigration (I), and area-controlled extinction (E), will act on number of species present on the islands. He forgot to label the size of the islands (small or large) and the location of the islands (near or far) on the graph. 

Using information from MacArthur and Wilson's equilibrium theory, select the option that correctly identifies A, B, C and D in the figure above. 

QUESTION ID:131

Some cellular and extracellular proteins are enlisted in List I and their typical characteristics are enlisted in List II
Which one of the following is the most appropriate match ?

QUESTION ID:132

Following statements are given for the ovarian hormones:
A. 17 beta -estradiol, estrone and estriol are naturally occurring estrogens
B. They are 18 C steroids which do not have methyl group at 10th positions
C. They are 21 C steroids which have methyl group at 10th position
D. They are primarily synthesized by granulosa cells of the ovarian follicles
E. Their biosynthesis does not depend on the enzyme aromatase
Which one of the following options represents the combination of correct statements ?

QUESTION ID:133

Given below are the names of diseases caused in rice in Column X and the names of the disease-causing organisms in Column Y.
Which one of the following options represents the match of column X and Y ?

QUESTION ID:134

Given below are a few statements about the λ infection cycle
A. Competition between cI and cII gene products determines the establishment of lysogeny versus lysis.
B. cI binds OR1 first while cro binds to OR3 first
C. Cro binding to OR represses cI transcription
D. Rich medium favours lytic cycle because cII is protected from cellular proteases
Which one of the following options represents all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:135

Given below are various plant natural products and their basic structural unit:
Which of the following options represents the correct match of natural product and the basic unit:

QUESTION ID:136

A researcher is interested in investigating if parental investment (PI, panel A) by male seahorses and pipefishes is correlated with their mating patterns (MP-monogamy and polygamy, panel B). For this, the researcher builds a phylogenetic tree of seahorses and pipefishes and maps PI and MP scores on to the tree as shown in figure below. 

Based on the trees generated, which one of the following conclusions can the research& correctly arrive at? 

QUESTION ID:137

22 transduction was used to map the fadL gene. The result of two-factor crosses between fadL and two linked markers, purF and aroC are shown below.
Which one of the following is the correct map for the three genes?

QUESTION ID:138

A Drosophila mutant (line A) with vestigial wings is isolated in a laboratory. The vestigial wing phenotype was observed to be recessive and mapped to gene ‘X’. Three other laboratories also isolated vestigial mutants, called line B, C and D. In order to test if the mutation in lines B-D also mapped to gene ‘X’, the following crosses were made and phenotype of F1 progeny observed.
Based on the above identify the line(s) which is most likely NOT to have a mutation in gene ‘X’.

QUESTION ID:139

The Dorsal protein is involved in generating the dorsal-ventral (DV) polarity in Drosophila. The following statements were made regarding the activity of the Dorsal protein in establishing the DV polarity.
A. In embryos that lack Gurken protein, the Dorsal protein is not translocated to the nucleus of the follicle cells which then causes ventralization of the embryo
B. Though Dorsal protein acts as a morphogen, it is found throughout the syncytial blastoderm of the early Drosophila embryo.
C. In embryos that lack Cactus protein the Dorsal protein can be found in the nucleus of cells with a ventral fate.
D. If the Dorsal protein is blocked from entering the nucleus, the genes responsible for specifying dorsal cell types are not transcribed.
Which of the above statements are correct ?

QUESTION ID:140

Reproduction of a single stranded DNA phage involves several steps. A few statements are given below to explain the mechanism. A. The single stranded DNA is converted into a double- stranded replicative form CR, 
B. Replication of double stranded replicative form results in the production of single stranded phages, about 5095 of which are + sense phages and the remaining are —ve sense phages 
C. Replication of the double stranded replicative forrn results in t. production of only —ve sense phages 
D. Replication of the double stranded replicative form results in the production of only -.ye sense phages 
Choose the option that correctly describes the process 

QUESTION ID:141

From the steps listed below. some are used to evaluate the goodness of fit using the chi square test. A. The mean variance and standard deviation are calculated B. Variance calculated using
C. Test statistic cakulated using
 D. The degree of freedom is calculated as n-'1. where n is the number of ways in which the expected classes are free to vary
E. The probability value is obtained 
Which one of the following options provides the correct sequence of steps in this statistical analysis? 

QUESTION ID:142

Which one of the following schematics depicts the potential relationshipamong the subunits IIo, IIa, and IIb of RNA polymerase II?

QUESTION ID:143

Following are certain statements regarding phytochrome interacting factors(PIFs), a family of proteins that regulates photomorphogenic response inplants:
A. PIFs promote skotomorphogenesis by serving as transcriptional activatorsof dark induced genes.
B. PIFs on interaction with Pr get phosphorylated, followed by degradationvia the proteasome complex.
C. The degradation of PIFs takes place in the presence of light.
D. PIF-induced genes are not expressed in light.
Which one of the following options represents the combination of correct statements ?

QUESTION ID:144

The table given below lists fossils and the major group of plants to which they belong. 


Which one of the following options represents the correct match between columns ?