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QUESTION ID:1

A test consists of 20 questions and the students are awarded 4 marks for a correct answer-1mark for a wrong answer and 0 mark for an unattempted question. Which of the following could be a possible number of questions attempted by a student who secured 27 marks?

QUESTION ID:2

In a round robin tourmament (each team plays with all other teams once) between 8 teams, a win fetched 3 points and a draw, 1. After each team had played 4 matches, the total of the points of the teams was 34. The number of drawn games among those played till then was

QUESTION ID:3

22/3     X/2

Suppose   (729)           (81)      =3. The value of  X is

QUESTION ID:4

If the difference between the two-digit numbers made from digits a and b is 27, the difference between a and b is

QUESTION ID:5

ABCD is a square. EFGH is a rectangle inscribed within the square with its sides parallel to the diagonal AC of the square. The perimeter of the rectangle EFGH is 16. The side of the
square is

QUESTION ID:6

Two cylindrical candles A and B are of the same height. The radius of A is twice that of B. If A takes 120 minutes to completely bum, how long does B take to bmn half its initial height

QUESTION ID:7

Four villages A, B, C and D are connected in that order by a circular road. A car traveling with a uniform  speed covers the distance between A and B in 43 minutes, B and C in 23 minutes. C and Din 19 minutes and D and A in 47 minutes. ·which of the following will be closest to the time (in minutes) taken to travel from A to C with the same speed along a straight road?

QUESTION ID:8

A and B are circles of unit radius. Their centres are marked by X. The area of the shaded region is (hint: area of an equilateral triangle of unit side length is  




QUESTION ID:9

Straight lines drawn inside a rectangle can create multiple rectangles of different sizes. The lines can intersect each other. The minimum number of straight lines needed so as to result in a total of 9 rectangles is :

QUESTION ID:10

A, B, C, D and E are members of a family. A is a doctor and wife of a lawyer. B is the brother of C and husband of a teacher. C is an engineer and daughter of the lawyer. Which of the following inferences can be definitely made?

QUESTION ID:11

Two cards are drawn together at random from a deck of 52 playing cards. What is the probability to get one red and one black card?

QUESTION ID:12

If 6 students occupy a bench, one bench will be left completely unoccupied . If 5 students occupy each bench, instead, one student will not find a seat. The number of students is

QUESTION ID:13

Given graph depicts the data of people going to gym and deaths per year in different cities. Which of the following can be definitely concluded tiom the graph?


QUESTION ID:14

P starts a business with an investment of Rs. 30 lakh. Two months later Q joined with Rs.90 lakh. Subsequently R joined with Rs. 180 lakh. The year-end profit of Rs. 1.2 crore was distributed in propmtion of the investment and duration in the partnership. If the profit received by R was Rs. 60 lakh, how many months after Q, did R join?

QUESTION ID:15

Which of the following correspond to x,y and z, respectively in the following square where sum of elements in each colunm, row, and diagonal is the same?


QUESTION ID:16

Three identical rings of radius 1 unit are stacked as shown in the figure. The length x is


QUESTION ID:17

A square paper is folded twice to a square shape one-fomth in area to the original square. Then equilateral triangles and circles are cut as shown in the figure.  



Which one of the following is a possible pattem on the fully unfolded paper?

QUESTION ID:18

The possible number of integers between 1000 and 10000 containing two 2 's, one 0 and one 3 (for example, 2023 is such an integer) is

QUESTION ID:19

Mary and Mike are manied to each other. John is Mary's brother while Douglas is Mike's brother. In a gathering of 2 children of Mary and Mike, 3 of John  and 2 of Douglas, the number of first-cousin pairs (sibling's chilch·en m·e first-cousins to each other) is

QUESTION ID:20

Choose the option that will make the following statement correct THE NUMBER OF TIMES THE LETTER  IOCCURS IN THIS SENTENCE IS 

QUESTION ID:21

The standard free energy (kJ mol-1) of hydrolysis of glucose-1-phosphate is:

QUESTION ID:22

During glycolysis in plants, alanine and related amino acids are directly produced from which one of the following precursors?

QUESTION ID:23

The non-ciliated cuboidal epithelial cells in bronchioles that secrete important defense markers are called

QUESTION ID:24

Recessive lethal alleles are never completely eliminated from the population because

QUESTION ID:25

Which one of the following factors will NOT have any impact on the resolving power of a bright field microscope?

QUESTION ID:26

Segregation of alleles can occur either at anaphase I or anaphase II of meiosis. Which one of the following is an ideal model system for identifying the stage at which allelic segregation occurred?

QUESTION ID:27

Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:28

Which of the following statements about site-specific recombinases is NOT true?

QUESTION ID:29

Which one of the following sugars will not reduce Tollen's reagent?

QUESTION ID:30

Which one of the following plant-derived molecules is widely used as an analgesic ?

QUESTION ID:31

Which one of the following mRNAs is most likely to be exported out of the nucleus?

QUESTION ID:32

Which one of the following changes is energetically favorable and occurs spontaneously in an aqueous solution?

QUESTION ID:33

Directional Selection for a particular trait will lead to the frequency of the trait:

QUESTION ID:34

The grizzled giant squirrel, Ratufa macroura, naturally occurs in

QUESTION ID:35

Which one of the following species of birds is known to migrate across the Himalayas?

QUESTION ID:36

The following terms  represent different methods in phylogenetic tree constructions

A. Unweighted Pair Group Method Using Arithmetic Average (UPGMA)

B. Minimum Evolution (ME) method

C. Maximum Parsimony (MP) method

D. Maximum Likelihood (ML) method

Select the option that represents all distance-based methods?

QUESTION ID:37

Invasive species, in general grow very well in a new area that they invade, and often outcompete native species. An explanation for the better growth and propagation of invasive species in comparison to their native counterparts is provided by which one of the following hypotheses?

QUESTION ID:38

Which one of the following methods is best suited to estimate the population size of fish?

QUESTION ID:39

Based on the image given below, select the option that describes it correctly:

QUESTION ID:40

Which one of the following statements is correct for a primary successional species?

QUESTION ID:41

The solubility ofNaCl is greater in water than ethanol. What physical property of the solvent governs this difference?

QUESTION ID:42

Which one of the following statements regarding molecular markers for genotyping is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:43

In mature erythrocytes, the end-product of glycolysis that contains the carbons of glucose is:

QUESTION ID:44

Which one of the following mammalian  species  is distributed in evergreen forests?

QUESTION ID:45

The mode of action of cholera toxin in causing diarrhoea is by:

QUESTION ID:46

In the context of protein import in the nucleus, which molecule is responsible for releasing the cargo from the importing receptor?

QUESTION ID:47

Homeotic selector genes are responsible for the specification of Drosophila body parts. Which one of the following identities would you expect if the ultrabithorax gene is deleted?

QUESTION ID:48

Which one of the following codons is used to code for selenocysteine in Escherichia coli?

QUESTION ID:49

Which one of the following characteristics is NOT correct for bryophytes

QUESTION ID:50

Which one of the following statements about LINEs present in the human genome is TRUE?

QUESTION ID:51

Appressorium is expected to be formed during which one of the following diseases?

QUESTION ID:52

A patient was injected with Purified Protein Derivative (PPD) to diagnose TB disease or a previous exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The injected area, when inspected after 48-72 hours was found to develop induration (thick, hardened bulge). Which of the following cells will be predmninant at this site?

QUESTION ID:53

Which one of the following is the cormnunicating junction linking adjacent cells in plants, which permits small molecules to pass from cell to cell while blocking the passage of most large molecules?

QUESTION ID:54

Which one of the following statements regarding PEPCase is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:55

Given that Asian Koel is a brood parasite, which one of the following statetnents is TRUE for this species?

QUESTION ID:56

A temperature sensitiveS. pombe mutant exhibits cell cycle arrest both, at the Gl to S, as well as at the G2 toM transition phases. This is possibly a 1nutant of:

QUESTION ID:57

Which one of the following root initials gives rise to the root vascular system, including the pericycle ?

QUESTION ID:58

The hemolysis of red blood cells takes place when they are suspended in which one of the following solutions?

QUESTION ID:59

The extracellular domain of a cell surface receptor (A) was switched with the
extracellular domain of another receptor (B) to create a chimeric receptor (B-A). Assuming that there is no effect on the functionality of the domains in the chimeric receptor, what is the most likely outcome in the presence of the ligand for receptor B?

QUESTION ID:60

Which one of the following describes an amphisome?

QUESTION ID:61

Consider alleles 'A' and 'a' in a population. The frequency of heterozygotes will be highest when:

QUESTION ID:62

The flowers of which one of the following plant species is used by indigenous communities of Central India to make an intoxicant for consumption?

QUESTION ID:63

Clonogenic neoblasts are involved in planarian (flatworm) regeneration. This is an example of:

QUESTION ID:64

A positive association between absolute average individual fitness and population size over some finite interval is known as

QUESTION ID:65

Given below are characteristic traits found in sun- or shade-acclimated leaves
A. High dry mass per unit area
B. Higher number of chloroplasts per area
C. Lower Chl-a/Chl-b ratio
D. Lower dark respiration per area
E. Higher light harvesting cmnplexes per area
Select the option that has all corr,ect characteristics for shade-acclimated leaves?

QUESTION ID:66

Which one of the following  factors inhibits renin secretion?

QUESTION ID:67

Which one of the following translation factors is used at the step of translation initiation and defined as anti-association factor for 30S and 50S subunit interactions?

QUESTION ID:68

Which one of the following terms is used for species that exploit the same resources in a similar manner?

QUESTION ID:69

Which one of the following is correct regarding zeitgebers?

QUESTION ID:70

Which one of the following types of promoters would NOT be used within the TDNA for expression of a negative selection marker gene for generation oftransgenic plants by Agrobacterium-mediated transfonnation?

QUESTION ID:71

Assume that the genes w+ and cv+ are located 20 cM apart on the X chromosome of D rosophila melanogaster. Mutations in w+ and cv+ give rise to white eyes and crossveinless phenotypes, respectively, which are recessive to the wild-type phenotype. A hon1ozygous wild-type female was crossed to a white-eyed, crossveinless male. The F 1 progeny was sib-mated. What percentage of the progeny will be white-eyed and crossveinless?

QUESTION ID:72

The following statements are made about telomeres:

A. Telomere-binding proteins (TBPs) are believed to shield telomeres from the cell's DNA repair machinery, preventing them from being recognized as double-strand breaks.

B. Telomeres in human cells are repeats ofTTAGGGG sequence that can extend up to 150 kb, which are replicated by the action of TERT in actively dividing cells.

C. In differentiated cells, telomerase is inactive, leading to shortening of telomeres over hundreds of cell divisions, damage to ends of chromosomes, and eventually apoptosis.

D. The persistence of telomerase activity in several cancers allows the cells to continue to proliferate

Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:73

The following statetments are made regarding conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA going from glycolysis to citric acid cycle:
A. Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA is reversible.
B. Pyruvate is transported into the mitochondrion by a transporter.
C. Pyruvate is carboxylated by pyruvate dehydrogenase.
D. Acetyllipoamide reacts with coenzyme A to form acetyl-CoA.
E. The flavoprotein, dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase, containing flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD), is involved in conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA.
Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:74

Given below are terms related to various experimental techniques  (Column X) and their applications (Column Y):
Column X (Technique) Column Y (Application)
A. Mass Spectrometry i. Separation of whole chromosomes
B. Pulsed Field Gel Electrophoresis ii. Separation of isoenzymes
C. Isoelectric Focusing                                                       iii. Single-molecule-real-time sequencing
D. PacBio iv. Identification of post-translational modifications of proteins
Which one of the following options represents all correct matches between Colunm X and Column Y?

QUESTION ID:75

The relationship between species and area of distribution is given by the following
equation: S=CA z where S is the number of species on an island or isolated patch, A is the area of the habitat, and C and Z are constants. The following are a set of statements pertaining to the value of ' Z ' :
A. Z value is typically not greater than 0.4 across all ecosystem types.
B. Z value is positively related to a species ' dispersal capability, with flying and wind-dispersed organistns having the highest v alues.
C. Z value, which represents the slope in the relationship, declines with area, especially when large landmasses such as continents areconsidered.
D. The Z value is the exponent in the power model and can be used to estimate the proportion of area required to represent a given propmtion of species present in any land class.
Select the option that represents the combination of all correct statements.

QUESTION ID:76

Match the eukaryotic cellular organelles listed in Colmru1 X with their typical function from among  those listed in Column Y.

 Column X         Column Y

 Organelles

          Function

A. Golgi

(i) Ribosomes assembly

B. Nucleolus

(ii) O-linked Glycosylation

C. Peroxisomes

(iii) Site for lipid synthesis

D. ER

(iv) Oxygen utilization

Which one of the following options represents all correct matches between Colunm X and Column Y?

QUESTION ID:77

Transforming the neural plate into a neural tube is an important event towards the formation of central nervous system, in which the following sub-events might take place:
A. In primary neurulation, the cells surrounding the neural plate direct the neural plate cells to proliferate, invaginate and separate from the surface ectodenn to form a hollow tube.
B. In secondary neurulation, the neural tube does not arise from the aggregation of mesenchyme cells into a solid cord.
C. The morphogen, Sonic hedgehog, that is expressed in notochord, is required for induction of ±1oor plate cells in the neural plate to form the nr1edial hinge point.
D. In mammals, secondary neurulation begins at the level of sacral vertebrae.
E. In mammals, the primary neurulation forms brain regions while the secondary neunllation takes care of fonning rest of the central nervous system from neck to tail.
Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correctstatements?

QUESTION ID:78

Given below are the list of abiotic environmental factors (Colmm1 X) and their primary effects (Colmm1 Y) in plants:

     Column X

        Column Y 

      Factors          Effects

A. Water deficit

(i) Ion cytotoxicity

B. Salinity

(ii) Hypoxia to the roots

C. Flooding

(iii) Photoinhibition

D. High light intensity

(iv) Water potential reduction

Which one of the following options represents all correct matches?

QUESTION ID:79

Some ligands/stimuli that operate through G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) are listed in column X, and the most cormnon effectors through which they act are listed in column Y.

       Column X         Column Y

   Ligands/stimuli

        Effectors

A. Serotonin

i. Phospholipase C

B. Acetylcholine

ii. cGMP phosphodiesterase

C. IgE-antigen complexes

iii. Adenylyl cyclase

D. Light

iv. Potassium channel/Adenylyl cyclase

Which one of the following options represents all correct matches between Column X and Colunm Y?

QUESTION ID:80

Rubisco enzyme is involved in both reductive and oxidative carbon cycles in plants. Following are certain statements regarding them:
A. Sugars are produced in both the cycles.
B. Ferredoxin is reduced only in oxidative carbon cycle.
C. Product of oxidative cycle is one of the substrates of reductive cycle.
D. NADP and ATP are used in both the cycles.
Which one of the fo llowing options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:81

Following statements are made regarding the plant natural product, terpenes.
A. Monoterpenes are five-carbon compounds.
B. The anti-malarial drug, artemisinin is a sesquiterpene.
C. Azadirachtin is a triterpene derivative from the seed oil of the Asian neem tree.
D . Taxol is a diterpene derivative used in cancer treatment.
Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:82

The cycling of monomeric G proteins, such as Ras, between active and inactive
states is aided by accessory proteins that bind to the G protein and regulate its activity. These accessory proteins include GTPase-activating proteins (GAPs) and guanine nucleotide-exchange factors (GEFs). The following conditions refer to different states of GAP and GEF proteins:
A. A non-functional GAP
B. A permanently activated GAP
C. A non-functional GEF
D. A permanently activated GEF
Which one of the following options represents conditions/states that might cause a constantly activated signaling cascade?

QUESTION ID:83

A researcher wanted to test the effect of different chemical agents on double stranded DNA (dsDNA). dsDNA was taken in tubes (A, B, C and D), and four different agents were added individually to each tube. The researcher however forgot to label them. The properties of the addedchemical agents on dsDNA were analysed. The possible product ( Colunm X) and the specific action of the chemical agents are listed in Column Y

    Column X

             Column Y

A. Nucleotides

i. Breaks hydrogen bond

B. Only nitrogenous bases

ii. Removes phosphate group

C. Nucleosides

iii. Breaks phosphodiester bond

D. ssDNA

iv. Breaks N-glycosidic bond

Which one of the following options represents all cmTect matches between Column X and Column Y?

QUESTION ID:84

The Lac! and TrpR repressors bind with their ligands allolactose and tryptophan
respectively, resulting in alteration of their DNA binding properties. The following statements are made about the mechanism of Laci and TrpR binding with DNA (operator) and regulation of gene expression in E. coli.
Allolactose binding to Laci leads to its poor binding to the lac operator whereas tryptophan binding to TrpR leads to its better binding to the t1poperator.
B. Allolactose binding to Lac! leads to induction of lac operon, whereas tryptophan binding to TrpR leads to repression of trp operon.
C. Binding of allolactose and tryptophan to Laci and TrpR respectively, leads to repression of their corresponding operons.
D. Binding of allolactose and tryptophan to Lacl and TrpR respectively, leads to activation of their corresponding operons. However, in trp operon regulation, availability of tryptophan also results in attenuationnlediated transcriptional termination leading to an overall effect of
repression of trp operon.
Which one of the following options represents a combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:85

The following statements were made  about phase contrast microscopy

A. Phase contrast microscopy can be equally utilized to examine stained and unstained specimens.

B. A phase atmulus generates hollow cone of light to illuminate the spectmen.

C. A light wave that passes through a cell nucleus and organelles lags compared to the light waves that pass through water only.

D. A polarized light source is used to translate the minor phase shifts into grey values.

E. Appearance of bright halos is a common artifact of phase contrast imaging 

Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:86

Following statements  were  made regarding regeneration in different organisms:
A. The regenerating blastema cells in amphibians retain their specification even when they dedifferentiate.
B. A transgenic Hydra when made to misexpress [3-catenin will show nun1erous ectopic tentacles.
C. In Planaria, if the Wnt pathway is activated, then the posterior blastema would regenerate a head.
D. A regenerating blastema is fonned in the n1mmnalian liver.
Which one of the following options represents all correct statement

QUESTION ID:87

The following statements were made about cell cycle regulation in fission yeast:
A. A cdc2 5 mutant cannot enter mitosis due to its inability to remove the inhibitory phosphate.
B. Veel consistently maintains the Cdk in an active state, to maintain cell size during cell cycle.
C. CAK (Cdk-activating kinase)-mediated phosphorylation of Threonine 161 residue of Cdc2 is necessary, but not sufficient, for the Cdk to be active.
D. Activation of Sic l in G 1 allows the cyclin-Cdk that is present in the cell to initiate DNA replication.
E. sic] mutant exhibits activation of premature DNA replication from fewer origins and extension of the duration of S phase.
Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:88

T4 phages were plated on three E. coli bacterial plates labelled I, II and III. The phenotypes obtained are depicted in the picture below. The black spots represent plaques.

The following combination of conditions were given to explain the results obtained:

Plate

Bacterial strain

rII locus

I

i. either B or K-12

a. Wild type

II

ii. B

b. mutant

III

iii. K-12

From the options listed below, select the one that accurately lists the E. coli strain type and the corresponding rll locus type.

QUESTION ID:89

The following table depicts the digital numbers of 12 pixels in two different bands (indicated below each pixel group) of an image collected from the LISSIV sensor ofResourcesatl satellite


620-680 nm                                       770-860 nm

Which one of the following options represents the correct identification of only vegetated (darkened) pixels?
 



QUESTION ID:90

Following statements are made regarding animal developtnent:

A. The cell is first specified towards a given t:~te, suggesting that it would

develop into this cell type, even in a neutral environment.

B. Holoblastic rotational cleavage is observed in tunicates.

C. Infolding of sheet of cells is called ingression.

D. Conditional specification can be observed in sea urchin embryos.

Which one of the following options represents the con1bination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:91

The recognized family of PR proteins in plants and their activities are listed in columns X andY, respectively.

Column X     Column Y

Proteins

     Activities

A. PR2

i. β-1,3-glucanase

B. PR3

ii. chitinase

C. PR6

iii. proteinase inhibitor

D. PR10

iv. ribonuclease-like

Which one of the following options represents all correct matches between Colunm X and Column  Y?

QUESTION ID:92

The following figure represents the interaction between different blastomeres in a 4-cell stage of C. e!egans embryo:
The following statements were tnade regarding the above:
A. The fate of EMS blastomere is autonomously specified.
B. The default fate of EMS blastomere isMS cell lineage.
C. Conditional specification can be observed in the development of E cell lineage.
D. Assuming that a receptor needs to be activated for E fate, a C. elegans embryo where the receptor is constitutively active, is likely to develop cells of E fate only, in all three of the above cases.
Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:93

After severe diarrhoea, the plasma K+ concentration beca1ne low (i.e,
hypokalemia developed) in a human subject. The follo·wing statements are proposed to explain the mechanism of plasma K+ regulation by kidney in this condition:
A. The principal cells present in distal n1bule and collecting duct of nephron
regulate K+ excretion.
B. Hypokalemia stimulates Na-, K' -ATPase activity in the basolateral membrane of principal cells.
C. The intracellular K+ concentration of the principal cells is increased.
D . The electrochemical gradient for efflux of K+ across the apical n1embrane of principal cells is increased.
E. The pen11eability of apical membrane to K+ is decreased.
F. The plasma aldosterone level is decreased which inhibits K+ secretion by principal cells.
Which one of the following options represents the combination of all INCORRECT statements?

QUESTION ID:94

The following statements are made regarding the amphibian early-embryonic development:

A. The Nieuwkoop center cells are mesodermal in origin.
B. Chordin, Noggin and Goosecoid are secreted by the Organizer.
C. The default fate of the ectoderm is to become neural tissue.
D. BMP levels are high in the presumptive dorsal mesoderm.

Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:95

Prolactin is an anterior pituitary hormone which is lactogenic and helps milk production in mammalsThe statements below are made regarding the mechanism of action of prolactin :
A. The receptors that bind to prolactin lack intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity.
B. Upon prolactin b inding, the receptors dimerize, and associated kinase is activated.
C. Prolactin binding to receptors leads to activation of its intrinsic kinase activity.
D. STAT plays a role in mediating prolactin action. It dimerizes after its phosphorylation  to elicit the response.
E. There is no involvement of STAT in prolactin action mechanisms.
Which one of the fo llowing options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:96

What is the pH of a 10·7 M solution ofHCl?

QUESTION ID:97

The following statements are made with reference to the neural cmmections of cardiac tissues and the functions of these nerves on heart in adult humans:
A. The right vagus nerve is distributed mainly to the AV node.
B. The parasympathetic pre-ganglionic fibers distributed to the heart originate from the superior salivatory nucleus.
C. The sympathetic post-ganglionic fibers originating from the paravertebral ganglia of the left side primarily innervate SA node.
D. The sympathetic fibers distributed to heart come mainly from stellate ganglia.
E. The sympathetic activity alters heart rate slower than that of vagal activity.
Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:98

In eukaryotes, microtubules and actin-binding proteins influence the dynamics and organization of the cytoskeleton. Match the cytoskeleton-binding proteins listed in colmm1 B, to actin or microtubule mentioned in Column A, and their function from those listed in Colunm C.

Column A

  Column B

           Column C

X. microtubule

(i) katenin

(a) filament cross-linking

Y. actin

(ii) tropomodulin

(b) severs filaments and binds to plus end

(iii) tau

(c) prevents assembly and disassembly at minus end

(iv) gelsolin

(d) only severs filament

Which one of the following options represents all the correct matches between columns A, B and C?

QUESTION ID:99

Sucrose-phosphate synthase (SPS) and sucrose-phosphate phosphatase (SPP)
are two l<ey enzyn1es involved in the biosynthesis of sucrose. Following are certain statements regarding these two enzymes:
A. Fructose-6-phosphate is one of the substrates of SPS enzyme.
B. Fn1ctose-6-phosphate and UDP-glucose are the substrates of SPP enzyme.
C. Sucrose is the final product of SPP enzyme.
D. UDP is one of the products of SPS enzyme while Pi is one of the products of SPP enzyme.
Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:100

The following statements are made regarding the nitrogenase enzyme involved in the reduction of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia:
A. Nitrogenase is composed of two components: dinitrogenase and dinitrogenase reductase.
B. MoFe protein component is a homodimer.
C. Fe protein component is dinitrogenase.
D. MoFe protein contains the active site metal cluster where N2 binds.
E. Fe protein delivers electron to MoFe protein component in a reaction coupled to the hydrolysis of MgATP.
Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:101

In four taxa (A, B, C and D), two characters (shape and color) were scored to
infer their phylogenetic relationship. The two character states for shape were square and round, while the two character states for color were black and yellow. The character distribution is given in the table below.
Using the above data, four trees were built using the method of maximum parsimony which are given below
Select the option that represents the two most parsimonious trees

QUESTION ID:102

Given below are a set of statements about metapopulation dynamics and habitat
conservation:
A. The sizes of suitable patches are important because demographic stochasticity can lead to extinction, especially in organisms with low reproductive output.
B. In the incidence function model (IFM), the extinction risk of local
populations increases with increasing habitat patch area, and thecolonization probability is a function of patch isolation from existing local populations.
C. From the conservation perspective, large numbers of suitable patches are not sufficient if distances are too large, preventing recolonization and the rescue etiect.
D. To minimize extinction risk there should be as low a variance in local  patch quality as possible, to allow for synchronous dynamics. Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:103

A researcher isolated chromatin from mammalian cells and digested with tnicrococcalnuclease in different tubes for 1 h, 3 h, 6 h, and 12 h. Thereafter, DNA was purified from all the digested chromatin samples, and two independentSouthern blot hybridization experiments were performed with probe-! and proben. The probe-I and probe-n correspond to different loci of the chromosome(s). The images below represent the Southern blot hybridization pattern generated by probe-I and probe-II.
                       
Following statements were made to explain the results of the Southern blot experiments.
A. Size of probe-II is smaller than probe-I.
B. Probe-I may correspond to the centromeric region of the chromosome.
C. Probe-I may correspond to a hypomethylated locus of the genome.
D. Probe-II may correspond to an euchromatic locus of the genome.
Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:104

Following statements are about the features of immunoassays used to assay biomolecules:
A Radio-immunoassays (RIAs) are more sensitive than Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs) with chromogenic substrates.
B. ELISAs with chromogenic substrates are more sensitive than ELISAs with chemiluminogenic substrates.
C. ELI SPOT measures the number of cells capable of secreting particular biomolecules using a substrate that gives soluble product with enzyme reaction.
D. In Western blot analysis, the product of enzyme-substrate reaction local ises at the site precisely where the antibody-enzyme conjugate binds to its specific protein band.Which of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements:

QUESTION ID:105

Different  types of mapping populations that can be created using a variety of methods are presented as I to IV in the figure below:

A list of probable mapping populations denoted by I to IV in the figure and their status of genetic mortality is given below.
A. I - Recombinant inbred lines (RILs) - immortal
B. II- Doubled haploid- Not inunortal
C. III - F 2:3 - Not immortal
D. IV- Near isogenic Lines (NILs) - immortal
Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct matches?

QUESTION ID:106

Members of the chlorophytes are stn1cturally diverse. Select the option that correctly represents the increasing order of structural complexity among the given genera

QUESTION ID:107

India has designated regions as sanctuaries or national parks (column Q) dedicated for the conservation of specific species ( colmm P).

Column P

Column Q

A. Gharial

i.

Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary

B. Saltwater Crocodile

ii.

National Chambal Sanctuary

C. Humpback Mahseer

iii.

Gahirmatha Sanctuary

D. Hawksbill turtle

iv.

Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the option that depicts all correct matches between column  P and column 

QUESTION ID:108

The following list represents two types of reproductive isolation (Column  P) that can lead to speciation. Colunm Q represents the processes by which these  isolations can occur.

Column P

Column Q

A - Prezygotic

i.

Seasonal

B - Postzygotic

ii.

Hybrid inviability


iii.

F2 breakdown

iv.

Stigmatic SI response

Select the option that represents the correct match between the prezygotic and postzygotic isolation types listed in Colunm P and the processes described in Column Q?

QUESTION ID:109

Bacteriophage λ A and P1 are both temperate phages. ·which one of the following statements  made about these phages and their lytic and lysogeny cycles in E. coli is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:110

Following statements are made regarding the roles of complement  components in immunity:
A. Binding of complement components to antigen presenting cells decreases their phagocytic ability and modulates cytokine secretion.
B. Complement components enhance the B cell-mediated immune response
by increasing the avidity with which a B cell binds to a complement-bound antigen.
C. Immature T cells are protected from the natural antibody and complementmediated  lysis by provision of additional sialic acid residues on their cell surface glycoproteins.
D. Binding of C3a, C5a and C3b to their respective receptors on mature T cells inhibits their growth, di±Ierentiation, and survival.
E. During the contraction phase of the immune response, excess lymphocytes that were made during antigen-induced expansion are eliminated by apoptosis, with the help ofClq complement component.
Which of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements:

QUESTION ID:111

Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of erythromycinmediated inhibition of protein synthesis in bacteria?

QUESTION ID:112

Red-blue colour blindness is a human X-linked recessive disorder. The two parents with normal colour vision have two sons. Son 1 has 47, XXY
chromosome composition and is colour blind. Son 2 has 46, XY and is also colour blind. Assuming that no crossing over took place in prophase I of meiosis, Klinefelter syndrome in Son 1 resulted due to nondisjunction during which one of the following events?

QUESTION ID:113

The following statements are made about digestion of proteins and the enzymes involved:
A. Chymotrypsin does not generate peptides with C-terminal neutral amino acids.
B. Trypsin generates peptides with C-terminal basic amino acids.
C. Carboxypeptidase B acts on aromatic amino acids.
D. Carboxypeptidase A employs zinc ion for hydrolysis.
E. The brush border enterokinase has no polysaccharides attached to it.
F. The final digestion to amino acids occurs in the intestinal lumen, the brush border, and the cytoplasm of the mucosal cells. Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:114

ERK5 is a MAP kinase that is activated upon phosphorylation by MEK5.
MEK5 binds with MEKK2 when co-expressed. HEK293 cells were transfected with plasmid encoding ERK5, along with plasmids encoding either MEK5 alone, or MEKK2 alone, or both MEKK2 and MEK5, or both MEKK2 and MEK5AA (MEK5 mutant). Lysates oftransfected cells were analysed by Western blotting using anti-ERK5 antibody as shown below:
From the data in the figure above, the following conclusions were drawn:
A. Full activation of ERK5 requires both MEKK2 and MEK5.
B. Phosphorylation with MEKK2 alone suggests that it can activate ERK5 without MEK5.
C. Difference in the levels of phosphorylation with MEKK2 alone and
MEKK2 + MEK5 is due to more phosphorylation at the same site.
D. Phosphorylation with only MEKK2 transfection suggests that it might be associating with endogenous MEK5 to get partially activated, leading to ERK5 phosphorylation to some extent.
E. MEK5AA might be a dmninant-negative mutant ofMEK5 which preventssignalling through active, endogenous MEK5.
Which of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:115

Alleles A, a, B and b can be distinguished on the basis of their mobility on an agarose gel. These genes are present on the same chromosome. In the gel image below, the band patten1 reflects the alleles in parents and their progeny (number reflects the progeny counted).
Which one of the following statements correctly explains the band pattern?

QUESTION ID:116

The following are certain statements regarding the PSII electron carrier during the light reaction of photosynthesis:
A. The first electron released frmn reaction centre P680 is transferred to QA to produce a plastosemiquinone.
B. QA is the 1nobile plastoquinone.
C. The first electron transferred from QA to QB converts QB into plastosen1- iqinone 
D. QB is tightly bound to the complex and is not 1nobile. Which one of the following options represents the correct statement(s)?
Which one of the following options represents the correct statement(s)?

QUESTION ID:117

In many sexually reproducing organisms, females make mate choice decisions based on male display traits. Several models have been proposed to explain the evolution of exaggeration in male traits. Two of them have been given below in column P and their possible descriptions in column Q.

Column P

Column Q

i.

Males exploit a pre-existing sensory bias in females. Females choosing such males have higher quality offspring.

A. Runaway Selection

ii.

Female choice for male trait occurs due to perceptual errors leading to poor quality offspring. Thus, females will evolve to run away from males with such traits.

B. Chase-away selection 

iii.

Female choice for male trait results in a positive feedback loop favouring both, males with such trait and females that prefer them.


iv.

Males exploit pre-existing sensory bias in females. Females do not benefit by choosing such males, driving the evolution of females that discriminate against such males.

Match the models to their appropriate description and choose the correct option.

QUESTION ID:118

Given below are a few terms related to Bioinfom1atics resources (Colunm X) and their functions/applications (Column Y):

  Column X

                                                  Column Y

  Resources

                                    Functions /applications

A. TrEMBL

i.

Analysis of recombination frequencies between molecular markers

B. TBLASTN

ii.

Database of protein sequences

C. SCOP

iii.

Comparison of amino acid sequence against nucleotide sequence database translated in all six reading frames

D. JoinMap

iv.

Manually curated structural classification of proteins

Which one of the following options represents all correct matches between Column  X and Column 1 Y?

QUESTION ID:119

A scientist is using the Hardy-Weinberg equation to assess if a population is in equilibrium or is evolving. She recorded the following characteristics for this population:
A.The size of the population is very large.
B. Individuals are randomly mating.
C. Individuals are under natural selection.
D. New alleles are added to the population through tnigration and dispersal.
E. Mutation rates are high. Which one of the following options contains all INCORRECT characteristics of a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

QUESTION ID:120

The following patten1s of gene expression were obtained after activating Notch I receptor with two different ligands Dill , and DII4.
Which one of the following statements depicts the correct interpretation of observations?

QUESTION ID:121

The following statements suggest the changes in respiratory ventilation and the mechanisms of these changes when a normal  human subject is allowed to inhale air containing different oxygen content:
A. The ventilation is markedly increased when Poz of the inspired air is less than 60 mm Hg.
B. The ventilation is 6 L/min when the Po2 of the inspired air is about 150 n1mHg.
C. The ventilation is slightly increased when Po2 of the inspired air is more than 60 mm Hg.
D. The increased ventilation due to the lower Po2 in the inspired air causes higher alveolar Pcoz.
E. The H+ concentration in the arterial blood is increased when Po2 of the inspired air is gradually decreased.
Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:122

It has been observed that within a flowering season, a plant may produce more male flowers which may be correlated with the longevity of the flowers and the seasonal distribution of t1owering in the plant. Which one of the following argutnents do NOT support this observation of sex specific floral phenology.

QUESTION ID:123

The following statements are made about the E. coli SOS response to DNA damage:
A. RecA-DNA filament complex stimulates the autoproteolytic activity of the LexA repressor.
B. RecA is activated due to the blunt ends of double-strand breaks caused by DNA damage-inducing agents.
C. The SOS response includes the activation of synthesis oftranslesion polymerases.
D. The destruction of LexA promotes synthesis of photo lyase, which acts along with RecA to reverse the pyrimidine dimer formation process.
Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:124

The following trees represent different evolutionary mechanisms

Select the tree that best represents punctuated equilibrim

QUESTION ID:125

Four different plant communities that consisted of the same number of species were taken up for a species diversity study. The following table represents some of the outcomes:

Community

Simpson's Reciprocal Index Value

A

7.25

B

8.20

C

6.80

D

7.05

Select the correct statement about the evem1ess of the above communities.

QUESTION ID:126

The following statements refer to factors regulating the fidelity of DNA replication.
A. The 5' to 3' exonuclease activity of the replicative DNA polymerase.
B. hnbalanced intracellular concentrations of the four dNTPs.
C. Increased intracellular concentrations of rNTPs resulting in increased
incorporation of rNTPs during DNA synthesis, which are not easily removed by the polymerase 's proof-reading activity.
D. Removal of incorrectly incorporated nucleotides by the mismatch repair system.
Which one of the following options gives the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:127

A transgenic plant having a homozygous single-copy insertion for trait A was retransfonned by Agrobacterium-mediated transformation with a gene conferring trait B. Given below are a few statements regarding the above experiment:
A. All To transgenic plants obtained after re-transfonnation would be single copy events for both traits, A and B.
B. Tl progeny generated by self-pollination of single-copy transgenic plants obtained by retransformation would segregate in a 3: 1 ratio for trait A.
C. Plant selection marker genes used for transformation experiments for both traits, A and B should be necessarily identical. Different selection marker genes cannot be used.
D. 25% of T1 progeny generated by self-pollination of single-copy transgenic plants obtained by retransfonnation would be homozygous for both traits, A and B.
Which one of the following options represents all INCORRECT statements?

QUESTION ID:128

In the context of signaling, the enzyme protein kinase C (PKC) depends on multiple molecules for its complete activation. This activation depends on the presence of:
A. phosphatidylserine at the inner leaflet of the plasma membrane. B. Ca2+
C. phosphatidylethanolamine at the inner leaflet of the plasma n1embrane.
D. diacylglycerol present in the inner leat1et of the plasma membrane
Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct molecules?

QUESTION ID:129

Which one of the following statements pertaining to global ocean ecosystem productivity is NOT correct?

QUESTION ID:130

The diagram below depicts the cumulative fossil C02 emissions (y axis) of different continents from the years 1850-2020 (x axis).
Select the option that correctly identifies the continents A-D:

QUESTION ID:131

Ecologists examined the role of competition for below ground resources (water and nutrients) in the dispersion pattern  of trees in the Acacia savannas of South Africa. The figure below depicts the result of their study.
In case all the other parameters were constant, select the option that best represents the dispersion patterns for populations labelled A and B in the figure above

QUESTION ID:132

Which one of the following options correctly lists ecosystems of the world arranged according to the descending order of their average world net primary production (billion kcal/yr)?

QUESTION ID:133

Aspartate (Asp) is an amino acid with the structure NH2-CH(CH.z-COOH)COOH. Given below are biosynthetic processes occurring in cells:
A. protein synthesis
B. de novo synthesis of inosine monophosphate and orotic acid
C. synthesis of adenosine monophosphate from inosine monophosphate
D. glutathione synthesis
Which one of the following options correctly represents all the biosynthetic process( es) wherein Asp is involved as a precursor?

QUESTION ID:134

Based on the theory of kin selection, choose the correct statement:

QUESTION ID:135

The following statements were made  about the structure of the 30-nm chromatin fiber:
A. In the solenoid model, the linker DNA com1ects the consecutive core particles.
B. In the zig-zag model, alten1ating nucleosomes become interacting  neighbors.
C. In the solenoid model, 12 nucleosomes are organized into two separate stacks, whereas 8 nucleosomes per tum make a single stack in the zig-zag model.
D. H l histone is essentially required as per the zig-zag model, but not as per the solenoid model.
E. Chromatin fibers prepared with H4 histones that lack their tails could fold into higher-order fibers.
Which one of the fo llowing options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:136

A polypeptide was subjected to the following treatments with the indicated results.
I. Acid hydrolysis:
(1) (Ala, Arg, Cys, Glx, Gly, Lys, Leu, Met, Phe, Thr)
II. Aminopeptidase M:
(2) No fragments.
III. Carboxypeptidase A + Carboxypeptidase B:
(3) No fragments.
IV Trypsin followed by Edman degradation of the separated products:
( 4) Cys-Gly-Leu-Phe-Arg
(5) Thr-Ala-Met-Gln-Lys
Which one of the following represents the primary stn1cture of the peptide?

QUESTION ID:137

Genetic screens for mutants affecting  development of leaf trichomes have led to the discovery of genes regulating trichome patterning - especially trichome density and spacing, as depicted in the figure below.
The following statements are made in this regard:
A. GLABRAJ ( GLJ) mutant plant will show fewer or no trichomes.
B. Cells that form trichomes strongly express the GLABRA2 ( GL2) and TRYPTICOJV (TRY) genes.
C. TRY protein acts as a positive regulator of trichon1e cell differentiation in the surrounding cells.
D. Addition of exogenous JA will reduce the number ofleaftrichomes
Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:138

Consumption of untreated corn as the staple food causes the disease, pellagra. Pre-treatment of corn with Ca(OH)2 prevents this disease. Given below are options listing possible effects of Ca(OH)2 treatment (Column X) and the enzymes affected (Column Y).

                       Column X

                     Column Y

Possible effects of Ca(OH)2​ treatment

          Enzyme/s affected

A. Release of Vitamin B3 upon Ca(OH)2​ treatment

i

Activity of trypsin

B. Alkaline pH aids in digestion.

ii

Enzymes of the TCA cycle

C. Ca improves bone strength

iii

Activity of NAD-dependent dehydrogenases

D. Prevents formation of ROS

iv

Activity of cathepsin K

Select the correct match relevant for preventing pellagra from the options listed below.

QUESTION ID:139

The following statements are made below about hearing phenomena of sound waves:
A. The loudness of a sow1d is inversely correlated with the amplitude of a sound wave.
B. The loudness of a sound is directly correlated with the amplitude of a sound wave.
C. The pitch of a sound is directly correlated with the frequency of the sound wave.
D . The pitch of a sound is inversely correlated with the frequency of the sound wave.
E. The pitch of the average 1nale voice in conversation is lower than that ofthe average female voice.
F. The pitch of the average 1nale voice in conversation is higher than that of the average female voice.
Choose the combination of all correct statements:

QUESTION ID:140

100  of cells were taken in a tube and 400  0.4% Trypan Blue was added for
staining. About 20  of this cell suspension was added between the hemocytometer and cover glass (refer figure below). The hemocytometer is divided into 9 major squares of 1 mm x 1 mm size. The height of the chamber formed with the cover glass is 0.1 mm. Empty circles indicate unstained cells and solid circles indicate stained cells.
Based on the above figure, what is the total cell count in the original suspension and cell viability (% )?

QUESTION ID:141

Mass spectrum of a pure peptide recorded in the positive ion mode is shown below.
(A) What is the reason for multiple peaks in the mass spectrun1 of a pure peptide? (B) Which peak corresponds to the monoisotopic species of the peptide? (C) What is the mono isotopic mass of the peptide? Select the right answers from the options given below.

QUESTION ID:142

Amborellaceae, Aristolochiaceae, Illiciaceae and Winteraceae are four angiosperm families that, according to the APG IV system of classification belong to the 'early diverging angiosperms ' . The presence (V+) or absence (V-) of vessels
in the xylem and the fusion of the carpels within the gynoecimn are important angiospem1 characters. 'A' and ' S' indicate apocarpous (or n1onocarpellary) and
syncarpous condition of ovaty, respectively. Which one of the following options correctly represents the characters found in the above families ?

QUESTION ID:143

Given below are terms related to various  techniques (Column X) and their features (Colunm Y):
Column X (Techniques) Column Y (Features)
A. Reverse transcription iv. cDNA library
B. Southwestern blotting                                            i. Detection of clones encoding nucleic acid binding proteins
C. Genome walking PCR ii. Determination of 5’ and 3’ DNA sequences flanking a known gene
D. RACE iii. Cloning of cDNA ends
Which one of the following options represents all correct matches between Colunm X and Column Y?

QUESTION ID:144

Some properties of enzymes are listed in column X, and their kinetic expressions are listed in column  Y.

       Column X

                         Column Y

Enzyme properties Expressions

                      Expressions

A. Specific activity

i.

kcat​/Km​

B. Turnover number

ii.

substrate concentration at which

C. Michaelis constant

iii.

Vmax​/moles of enzyme

D. Catalytic efficiency

iv.

Vmax​/protein concentration

Which one of the following options represents all correct matches betweenColunm X and Colmru1 Y?

QUESTION ID:145

A food chain involving Spartina (a plant), the marsh periwinkle snail, the blue crab and an unknown fungus was identified in a Spartina-dominated salt marsh
in North America. A study involving control and crab-exclusion experiments revealed: A. Radulations (scrape marks) on the leaf surface made by the snails indicate the presence of snail faeces, fungi and dead plant tissue.
B. The fungi were present only at the radulations.
C. The density of the radulations increased with higher snail densities.
D. Spartina density decreased with increase in the snail density till it reached zero.
E. In control experiments, all four species were present till the end.
Select the option that correctly depicts the positive ( +) and negative (-) interaction-type between fungi-snail and Spartina-crab, respectively: