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Previous Year Questions

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QUESTION ID:1

Proteins can be separated according to size by following techniques except:
A. Isoelectric focusing
B. SDS-PAGE
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Molecular exclusion chromatography

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:2

The following statements are associated with human female reproductive physiology.
A. The uterine cycle during menstruation includes follicular phase, ovulation and luteal phase.
B. The degeneration of corpus luteum is called luteolysis.
C. An increase in plasma progesterone level synchronises with the luteal phase.
D. After oocyte maturation, ovulation takes place.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:3

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: During gel electrophoresis. DNA moves from anode to cathode.
Reason R: DNA is negatively charged.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:4

Identify the correct statements:
A. Tumor cells differ from normal cells by changes in the regulation of growth. B. Proto-oncogenes encode defective proteins.
C. Tumor cells can display tumor-specific antigens/novel antigens.
D. Several cytokines including IFN and TNF help to mediate tumor-cell killing.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:5

Arrange the primates in order from oldest to recent in terms of evolution:
A. Old world monkeys
B. Orangutons
C. Gibbons
D. Gorillas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:6

Arrange the major thematic events of xenopus gastrulation from early to late stage.
A. Epiboly of the ectoderm around the entire embryo.
B. Extension of the body along anterior-posterior axis.
C. Formation of bottle cells and internalisation of the endoderm and mesoderm.
D. Cortical rotation and formation of grey crescent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:7

In TCA cycle, succinyl CoA synthetase is involved in the conversion of:

QUESTION ID:8

The following statements are related to sensory tissues of animals.
A. Proprioceptors are commonly called 'stretch receptors' that respond to mechanically-induced changes.
B. Certain flagellated protozoa like Euglena that contains chlorophyll possess a mass of bright red protoreceptor granules called stigma.
C. 'Neuromasts' are the primary photoreceptors in sharks, some fishes and aquatic amphibians.
D. Meissner's corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles primarily help to detect chemical stimulus in animals. E. Most reptiles possess Jacobson's (Vomeronasal) organs for olfactory reception.

Choose the set of correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:9

Autoclaving is used as a sterilisation technique. The conditions used for autoclaving are:

QUESTION ID:10

The gradient used in ultracentrifugation for fractionation of DNA is:

QUESTION ID:11

In normal cells. progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Event that occurs at G1/S checkpoint is:

QUESTION ID:12

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the GIS. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints. the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Continuously dividing cells do not exit the cell cycle but they proceed through G1, S. G2 and M phase.
Statement II: Cancer cells are unable to enter GO phase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:13

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Choose the correct statement:

QUESTION ID:14

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talır and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Western Ghats of India is one of the biodiversity hotspots.
Reason R: The criteria for categorisation as a biodiversity hotspot is high number of endemic species (at least 1500 species of vascular plants), the region must have lost 30% of its natural vegetation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:15

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Nilgiri Tahr is an:

QUESTION ID:16

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talu and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Some frogs such as poison dart frog exhibit bright coloration which serves as a warning signal for its predators. It is known as:

QUESTION ID:17

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life? 

QUESTION ID:18

Animal species should be preserved mainly because 

QUESTION ID:19

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate? 

QUESTION ID:20

Which of the following types of animals does man chiefly protect? 

QUESTION ID:21

The wild life is about to become extinct mainly because: 

QUESTION ID:22

Synonym of the word 'CELESTIAL' is: 

QUESTION ID:23

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the following options: 

India is one of the richest countries _________ the world in terms of biodiversity. Due __________ anthropogenic activities, many species have lost their habitat and even become extent. International Union _________  conservation _________ nature and natural resources has categorized with flora and fauna into eight categories. 

QUESTION ID:24

Fill in the blank with suitable word from the options given below: 

Light _________ in a straight line. 

QUESTION ID:25

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:26

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:27

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:28

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:29

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:30

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:31

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:32

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:33

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:34

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:35

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:36

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:37

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:38

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:39

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:40

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:41

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:42

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:43

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:44

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:45

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:46

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:47

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:48

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:49

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:50

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:51

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:52

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:53

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:54

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:55

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:56

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:57

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:58

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:59

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:60

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:61

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:62

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:63

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:64

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:65

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:66

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:67

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:68

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:69

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:70

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:71

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:72

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:73

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:74

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:75

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:76

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:77

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:78

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:79

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:80

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:81

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:82

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:83

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:84

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:85

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:86

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:87

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:88

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:89

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:90

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:91

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:92

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:93

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:94

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:95

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:96

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:97

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:98

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:99

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:100

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:101

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:102

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:103

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:104

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:105

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:106

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:107

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:108

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:109

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:110

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:111

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:112

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:113

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:114

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:115

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:116

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:117

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:118

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:119

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:120

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:121

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:122

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:123

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:124

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:125

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:126

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:127

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:128

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:129

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:130

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:131

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:132

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:133

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:134

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:135

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:136

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:137

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:138

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:139

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:140

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:141

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:142

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:143

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:144

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:145

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:146

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:147

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:148

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:149

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:150

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:151

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:152

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:153

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:154

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:155

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:156

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:157

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:158

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:159

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:160

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:161

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:162

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:163

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:164

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:165

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:166

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:167

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:168

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:169

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:170

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:171

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:172

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:173

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:174

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:175

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:176

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:177

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:178

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:179

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:180

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:181

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:182

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:183

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:184

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:185

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:186

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:187

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:188

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:189

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:190

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:191

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:192

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:193

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:194

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:195

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:196

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:197

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:198

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:199

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:200

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:201

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:202

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:203

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:204

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:205

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:206

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:207

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:208

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:209

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:210

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:211

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:212

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:213

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:214

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:215

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:216

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:217

All over the world the wild fauna has been whittled down steadily and remorselessly, and many lovely and interesting animals have been so reduced in numbers that, without protection and help, they can never re-establish themselves. If they cannot find sanctuary where they can live and breed undisturbed, their numbers will dwindle until they join the dodo, the quagga, and the great auk on the long list of extinct creatures.
Of course, in the last decade or so, much has been done for the protection of wild life: sanctuaries and reserves have been started, and the reintroduction of species into areas where it had become extinct is taking place. In Canada, for instance, beavers are now being reintroduced into certain areas by means of aeroplane.
But although much is being done, there is still a very great deal to do. Unfortunately, the majority of useful work in animal preservation has been done mainly for animals which are of some economic importance to man and there are many obscure species of no economic importance which, although they are protected on paper, are in actual fact being allowed to die out because nobody, except a few interested zoologists, considers them important enough to spend money on.
As mankind increases year by year, and as he spreads farther over the globe burning and destroying, it is some small comfort to know that there are certain private individuals and some institutions who consider that the work of trying to save and give sanctuary to these harried animals is of some importance. It is important for many reasons, but perhaps the best of them is this: man for all his genius, cannot create a species, nor can he recreate one he has destroyed. So until we consider animal life to be worthy of the consideration and reverence we bestow upon old books and pictures and historic monuments, there will always be the animal refugee living precarious life on the edge of extermination, dependent for existence on the charity of a few human beings.
Read the passage and answer the following questions:

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:218

Which of the following animal species has been saved from extinction?

QUESTION ID:219

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life?

QUESTION ID:220

Animals species should be preserved mainly because:

QUESTION ID:221

Certain species of wild life is about to become extinct mainly because:

QUESTION ID:222

Identify the correct proposition from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.

The boys equally divided the chocolates _________ themselves.

QUESTION ID:223

Identify the correct form from verb to make a meaningful sentence.

Neither of the contestants ________ to win.

QUESTION ID:224

Pick out the correctly spelt word: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:225

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given :-

Sunita is an apple of her father's eye

QUESTION ID:226

Identify the correct form of indirect speech of the following sentence.

He said, "I have been reading since morning."

QUESTION ID:227

A triangle can have:

QUESTION ID:228

If the mean of 18, 19, x, 25 and 26 is 21, then find the mean of 5, 11, 13, 19 and (3x-1):

QUESTION ID:229

Find a single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25%:

QUESTION ID:230

A man is walking at a speed of 6 km/h. After every km he takes rest for 6 minutes.
How much time will he take to cover a distance of 24 km.

QUESTION ID:231


QUESTION ID:232

Identify which of the given conclusions follows from the given statements:
Statement I : No perfume is a fragrance.
                       Some perfumes are deodorants.
                       All deodorants are cologne.
Statement II: I. At least some perfumes are colognes.
                       II. No fragrance is deodorant.

QUESTION ID:233

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A is the son of B, C, B's Sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?

QUESTION ID:234

Figure (x) is embedded in which one of the four alternatives:


QUESTION ID:235

Choose the group of letters which is different from others:

POCG, BUDX, ATRG, ZIKL, FQMV

QUESTION ID:236

Choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

Sand stone : Limestone : Coal

QUESTION ID:237

The international Court of Justice was established in the year: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:238


QUESTION ID:239

National Development Council was constituted on ________.

QUESTION ID:240

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal
Reasons (R): Maratha were the first to have a clear concept of United Nation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:241

Deepika Kumari is associated with which of the following sports?

QUESTION ID:242

False branching of thallus is observed in

QUESTION ID:243

Heterocyst a thick-walled, pale-yellow, barrel-shaped structure found in blue-green algae, helps in

QUESTION ID:244

The influenza virus carry functional surface projections called spike which contains unique enzyme known as

QUESTION ID:245

Transformation, a phenomenon responsible for recombination in microbes was discovered by

QUESTION ID:246

Rhodophyceae possesses the following unique characteristics
(A) The septa between the adjacent cells have 'pit connections'
(B) The flagellated motile stages are totally absent
(C) Red algae exhibit low degree of epiphytism and parasitism
(D) They contain water soluble phycocyanin pigment
(E) The accumulated photosynthetic product is floridean starch

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:247


QUESTION ID:248

DNA is synthesized in the cell by

QUESTION ID:249

Glycyrrhiza glabra is used in the treatment of

QUESTION ID:250

Which of the following is most acidic from the mentioned material?

QUESTION ID:251

The time interval between the formation of successive leaf primordia is termed as:

QUESTION ID:252

Glyphosate resembles phosphoenol pyruvate and inhibits the enzyme EPSP synthetase which synthesises ________.

QUESTION ID:253

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cotton and linen textiles have long durability due to cellulose's side-by-side aggregates which form molecular cables.
Reasons (R): Durability of cellulose is due to a-(1-6) glycosidic bonds.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:254

Ergotism, which is characterized by gangrene, nervous spasm, burning sensation, hallucinations and temporary 'insanity' is caused by

QUESTION ID:255

Morchella esculenta, often found growing under trees in orchards, with an edible ascocarp, belongs to the class __________.

QUESTION ID:256

Many fungi have no known sexual stages in their life-cycle. Mycologists have traditionally grouped such fungi into

QUESTION ID:257

'Covered smuts' disease in Barley is caused by

QUESTION ID:258

The advanced characters exhibited by the members of basidiomycotina include:
(A) No specialized sex organ are formed
(B) Several types of spore in the life-cycle
(C) Spores are endogenous in nature
(D) Formation of dikaryotic cells by clamp connection
(E) Presence of dolipore septa

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:259

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Gnetum is closer to angiosperms than gymonsperms.
Reasons (R): There is complete elimination of archegonia in the female gametophyte of Gnetum.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:260

Retort cells are present in

QUESTION ID:261

The cells of hydrom sheath in Polytrichum are rich in-

QUESTION ID:262

Among the following pteridophytes, the initial steps in evolutionary trend of seed development can be best seen in

QUESTION ID:263


QUESTION ID:264

Mycorrhizal fungi helps in delivery of which key ions to the plant sytem?

QUESTION ID:265

Companion cells which are located close to the sieve tube serve the same function as

QUESTION ID:266

P-proteins are associated with differentiation of

QUESTION ID:267


QUESTION ID:268

Proteins can be separated according to size by following techniques except:
A. Isoelectric focusing
B. SDS-PAGE
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Molecular exclusion chromatography

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:269

The following statements are associated with human female reproductive physiology.
A. The uterine cycle during menstruation includes follicular phase, ovulation and luteal phase.
B. The degeneration of corpus luteum is called luteolysis.
C. An increase in plasma progesterone level synchronises with the luteal phase.
D. After oocyte maturation, ovulation takes place.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:270

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: During gel electrophoresis. DNA moves from anode to cathode.
Reason R: DNA is negatively charged.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:271

Identify the correct statements:
A. Tumor cells differ from normal cells by changes in the regulation of growth. B. Proto-oncogenes encode defective proteins.
C. Tumor cells can display tumor-specific antigens/novel antigens.
D. Several cytokines including IFN and TNF help to mediate tumor-cell killing.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:272

Arrange the primates in order from oldest to recent in terms of evolution:
A. Old world monkeys
B. Orangutons
C. Gibbons
D. Gorillas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:273

Arrange the major thematic events of xenopus gastrulation from early to late stage.
A. Epiboly of the ectoderm around the entire embryo.
B. Extension of the body along anterior-posterior axis.
C. Formation of bottle cells and internalisation of the endoderm and mesoderm.
D. Cortical rotation and formation of grey crescent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:274

In TCA cycle, succinyl CoA synthetase is involved in the conversion of:

QUESTION ID:275

The following statements are related to sensory tissues of animals.
A. Proprioceptors are commonly called 'stretch receptors' that respond to mechanically-induced changes.
B. Certain flagellated protozoa like Euglena that contains chlorophyll possess a mass of bright red protoreceptor granules called stigma.
C. 'Neuromasts' are the primary photoreceptors in sharks, some fishes and aquatic amphibians.
D. Meissner's corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles primarily help to detect chemical stimulus in animals. E. Most reptiles possess Jacobson's (Vomeronasal) organs for olfactory reception.

Choose the set of correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:276

Autoclaving is used as a sterilisation technique. The conditions used for autoclaving are:

QUESTION ID:277

The gradient used in ultracentrifugation for fractionation of DNA is:

QUESTION ID:278

In normal cells. progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Event that occurs at G1/S checkpoint is:

QUESTION ID:279

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the GIS. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints. the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Continuously dividing cells do not exit the cell cycle but they proceed through G1, S. G2 and M phase.
Statement II: Cancer cells are unable to enter GO phase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:280

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Choose the correct statement:

QUESTION ID:281

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talır and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Western Ghats of India is one of the biodiversity hotspots.
Reason R: The criteria for categorisation as a biodiversity hotspot is high number of endemic species (at least 1500 species of vascular plants), the region must have lost 30% of its natural vegetation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:282

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Nilgiri Tahr is an:

QUESTION ID:283

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talu and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Some frogs such as poison dart frog exhibit bright coloration which serves as a warning signal for its predators. It is known as:

QUESTION ID:284

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life? 

QUESTION ID:285

Animal species should be preserved mainly because 

QUESTION ID:286

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate? 

QUESTION ID:287

Which of the following types of animals does man chiefly protect? 

QUESTION ID:288

The wild life is about to become extinct mainly because: 

QUESTION ID:289

Synonym of the word 'CELESTIAL' is: 

QUESTION ID:290

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the following options: 

India is one of the richest countries _________ the world in terms of biodiversity. Due __________ anthropogenic activities, many species have lost their habitat and even become extent. International Union _________  conservation _________ nature and natural resources has categorized with flora and fauna into eight categories. 

QUESTION ID:291

Fill in the blank with suitable word from the options given below: 

Light _________ in a straight line. 

QUESTION ID:292

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:293

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:294

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:295

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:296

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:297

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:298

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:299

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:300

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:301

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:302

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:303

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:304

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:305

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:306

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:307

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:308

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:309

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:310

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:311

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:312

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:313

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:314

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:315

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:316

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:317

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:318

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:319

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:320

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:321

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:322

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:323

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:324

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:325

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:326

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:327

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:328

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:329

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:330

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:331

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:332

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:333

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:334

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:335

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:336

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:337

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:338

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:339

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:340

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:341

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:342

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:343

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:344

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:345

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:346

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:347

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:348

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:349

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:350

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:351

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:352

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:353

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:354

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:355

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:356

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:357

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:358

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:359

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:360

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:361

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:362

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:363

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:364

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:365

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:366

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:367

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:368

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:369

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:370

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:371

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:372

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:373

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:374

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:375

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:376

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:377

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:378

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:379

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:380

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:381

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:382

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:383

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:384

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:385

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:386

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:387

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:388

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:389

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:390

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:391

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:392

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:393

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:394

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:395

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:396

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:397

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:398

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:399

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:400

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:401

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:402

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:403

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:404

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:405

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:406

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:407

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:408

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:409

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:410

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:411

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:412

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:413

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:414

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:415

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:416

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:417

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:418

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:419

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:420

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:421

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:422

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:423

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:424

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:425

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:426

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:427

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:428

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:429

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:430

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:431

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:432

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:433

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:434

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:435

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:436

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:437

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:438

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:439

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:440

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:441

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:442

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:443

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:444

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:445

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:446

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:447

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:448

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:449

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:450

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:451

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:452

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:453

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:454

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:455

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:456

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:457

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:458

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:459

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:460

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:461

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:462

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:463

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:464

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:465

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:466

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:467

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:468

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:469

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:470

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:471

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:472

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:473

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:474

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:475

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:476

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:477

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:478

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:479

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:480

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:481

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:482

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:483

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:484

All over the world the wild fauna has been whittled down steadily and remorselessly, and many lovely and interesting animals have been so reduced in numbers that, without protection and help, they can never re-establish themselves. If they cannot find sanctuary where they can live and breed undisturbed, their numbers will dwindle until they join the dodo, the quagga, and the great auk on the long list of extinct creatures.
Of course, in the last decade or so, much has been done for the protection of wild life: sanctuaries and reserves have been started, and the reintroduction of species into areas where it had become extinct is taking place. In Canada, for instance, beavers are now being reintroduced into certain areas by means of aeroplane.
But although much is being done, there is still a very great deal to do. Unfortunately, the majority of useful work in animal preservation has been done mainly for animals which are of some economic importance to man and there are many obscure species of no economic importance which, although they are protected on paper, are in actual fact being allowed to die out because nobody, except a few interested zoologists, considers them important enough to spend money on.
As mankind increases year by year, and as he spreads farther over the globe burning and destroying, it is some small comfort to know that there are certain private individuals and some institutions who consider that the work of trying to save and give sanctuary to these harried animals is of some importance. It is important for many reasons, but perhaps the best of them is this: man for all his genius, cannot create a species, nor can he recreate one he has destroyed. So until we consider animal life to be worthy of the consideration and reverence we bestow upon old books and pictures and historic monuments, there will always be the animal refugee living precarious life on the edge of extermination, dependent for existence on the charity of a few human beings.
Read the passage and answer the following questions:

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:485

Which of the following animal species has been saved from extinction?

QUESTION ID:486

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life?

QUESTION ID:487

Animals species should be preserved mainly because:

QUESTION ID:488

Certain species of wild life is about to become extinct mainly because:

QUESTION ID:489

Identify the correct proposition from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.

The boys equally divided the chocolates _________ themselves.

QUESTION ID:490

Identify the correct form from verb to make a meaningful sentence.

Neither of the contestants ________ to win.

QUESTION ID:491

Pick out the correctly spelt word: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:492

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given :-

Sunita is an apple of her father's eye

QUESTION ID:493

Identify the correct form of indirect speech of the following sentence.

He said, "I have been reading since morning."

QUESTION ID:494

A triangle can have:

QUESTION ID:495

If the mean of 18, 19, x, 25 and 26 is 21, then find the mean of 5, 11, 13, 19 and (3x-1):

QUESTION ID:496

Find a single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25%:

QUESTION ID:497

A man is walking at a speed of 6 km/h. After every km he takes rest for 6 minutes.
How much time will he take to cover a distance of 24 km.

QUESTION ID:498


QUESTION ID:499

Identify which of the given conclusions follows from the given statements:
Statement I : No perfume is a fragrance.
                       Some perfumes are deodorants.
                       All deodorants are cologne.
Statement II: I. At least some perfumes are colognes.
                       II. No fragrance is deodorant.

QUESTION ID:500

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A is the son of B, C, B's Sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?

QUESTION ID:501

Figure (x) is embedded in which one of the four alternatives:


QUESTION ID:502

Choose the group of letters which is different from others:

POCG, BUDX, ATRG, ZIKL, FQMV

QUESTION ID:503

Choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

Sand stone : Limestone : Coal

QUESTION ID:504

The international Court of Justice was established in the year: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:505


QUESTION ID:506

National Development Council was constituted on ________.

QUESTION ID:507

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal
Reasons (R): Maratha were the first to have a clear concept of United Nation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:508

Deepika Kumari is associated with which of the following sports?

QUESTION ID:509

False branching of thallus is observed in

QUESTION ID:510

Heterocyst a thick-walled, pale-yellow, barrel-shaped structure found in blue-green algae, helps in

QUESTION ID:511

The influenza virus carry functional surface projections called spike which contains unique enzyme known as

QUESTION ID:512

Transformation, a phenomenon responsible for recombination in microbes was discovered by

QUESTION ID:513

Rhodophyceae possesses the following unique characteristics
(A) The septa between the adjacent cells have 'pit connections'
(B) The flagellated motile stages are totally absent
(C) Red algae exhibit low degree of epiphytism and parasitism
(D) They contain water soluble phycocyanin pigment
(E) The accumulated photosynthetic product is floridean starch

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:514


QUESTION ID:515

DNA is synthesized in the cell by

QUESTION ID:516

Glycyrrhiza glabra is used in the treatment of

QUESTION ID:517

Which of the following is most acidic from the mentioned material?

QUESTION ID:518

The time interval between the formation of successive leaf primordia is termed as:

QUESTION ID:519

Glyphosate resembles phosphoenol pyruvate and inhibits the enzyme EPSP synthetase which synthesises ________.

QUESTION ID:520

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cotton and linen textiles have long durability due to cellulose's side-by-side aggregates which form molecular cables.
Reasons (R): Durability of cellulose is due to a-(1-6) glycosidic bonds.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:521

Ergotism, which is characterized by gangrene, nervous spasm, burning sensation, hallucinations and temporary 'insanity' is caused by

QUESTION ID:522

Morchella esculenta, often found growing under trees in orchards, with an edible ascocarp, belongs to the class __________.

QUESTION ID:523

Many fungi have no known sexual stages in their life-cycle. Mycologists have traditionally grouped such fungi into

QUESTION ID:524

'Covered smuts' disease in Barley is caused by

QUESTION ID:525

The advanced characters exhibited by the members of basidiomycotina include:
(A) No specialized sex organ are formed
(B) Several types of spore in the life-cycle
(C) Spores are endogenous in nature
(D) Formation of dikaryotic cells by clamp connection
(E) Presence of dolipore septa

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:526

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Gnetum is closer to angiosperms than gymonsperms.
Reasons (R): There is complete elimination of archegonia in the female gametophyte of Gnetum.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:527

Retort cells are present in

QUESTION ID:528

The cells of hydrom sheath in Polytrichum are rich in-

QUESTION ID:529

Among the following pteridophytes, the initial steps in evolutionary trend of seed development can be best seen in

QUESTION ID:530


QUESTION ID:531

Mycorrhizal fungi helps in delivery of which key ions to the plant sytem?

QUESTION ID:532

Companion cells which are located close to the sieve tube serve the same function as

QUESTION ID:533

P-proteins are associated with differentiation of

QUESTION ID:534


QUESTION ID:535

Proteins can be separated according to size by following techniques except:
A. Isoelectric focusing
B. SDS-PAGE
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Molecular exclusion chromatography

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:536

The following statements are associated with human female reproductive physiology.
A. The uterine cycle during menstruation includes follicular phase, ovulation and luteal phase.
B. The degeneration of corpus luteum is called luteolysis.
C. An increase in plasma progesterone level synchronises with the luteal phase.
D. After oocyte maturation, ovulation takes place.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:537

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: During gel electrophoresis. DNA moves from anode to cathode.
Reason R: DNA is negatively charged.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:538

Identify the correct statements:
A. Tumor cells differ from normal cells by changes in the regulation of growth. B. Proto-oncogenes encode defective proteins.
C. Tumor cells can display tumor-specific antigens/novel antigens.
D. Several cytokines including IFN and TNF help to mediate tumor-cell killing.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:539

Arrange the primates in order from oldest to recent in terms of evolution:
A. Old world monkeys
B. Orangutons
C. Gibbons
D. Gorillas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:540

Arrange the major thematic events of xenopus gastrulation from early to late stage.
A. Epiboly of the ectoderm around the entire embryo.
B. Extension of the body along anterior-posterior axis.
C. Formation of bottle cells and internalisation of the endoderm and mesoderm.
D. Cortical rotation and formation of grey crescent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:541

In TCA cycle, succinyl CoA synthetase is involved in the conversion of:

QUESTION ID:542

The following statements are related to sensory tissues of animals.
A. Proprioceptors are commonly called 'stretch receptors' that respond to mechanically-induced changes.
B. Certain flagellated protozoa like Euglena that contains chlorophyll possess a mass of bright red protoreceptor granules called stigma.
C. 'Neuromasts' are the primary photoreceptors in sharks, some fishes and aquatic amphibians.
D. Meissner's corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles primarily help to detect chemical stimulus in animals. E. Most reptiles possess Jacobson's (Vomeronasal) organs for olfactory reception.

Choose the set of correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:543

Autoclaving is used as a sterilisation technique. The conditions used for autoclaving are:

QUESTION ID:544

The gradient used in ultracentrifugation for fractionation of DNA is:

QUESTION ID:545

In normal cells. progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Event that occurs at G1/S checkpoint is:

QUESTION ID:546

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the GIS. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints. the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Continuously dividing cells do not exit the cell cycle but they proceed through G1, S. G2 and M phase.
Statement II: Cancer cells are unable to enter GO phase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:547

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Choose the correct statement:

QUESTION ID:548

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talır and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Western Ghats of India is one of the biodiversity hotspots.
Reason R: The criteria for categorisation as a biodiversity hotspot is high number of endemic species (at least 1500 species of vascular plants), the region must have lost 30% of its natural vegetation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:549

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Nilgiri Tahr is an:

QUESTION ID:550

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talu and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Some frogs such as poison dart frog exhibit bright coloration which serves as a warning signal for its predators. It is known as:

QUESTION ID:551

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life? 

QUESTION ID:552

Animal species should be preserved mainly because 

QUESTION ID:553

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate? 

QUESTION ID:554

Which of the following types of animals does man chiefly protect? 

QUESTION ID:555

The wild life is about to become extinct mainly because: 

QUESTION ID:556

Synonym of the word 'CELESTIAL' is: 

QUESTION ID:557

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the following options: 

India is one of the richest countries _________ the world in terms of biodiversity. Due __________ anthropogenic activities, many species have lost their habitat and even become extent. International Union _________  conservation _________ nature and natural resources has categorized with flora and fauna into eight categories. 

QUESTION ID:558

Fill in the blank with suitable word from the options given below: 

Light _________ in a straight line. 

QUESTION ID:559

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:560

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:561

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:562

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:563

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:564

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:565

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:566

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:567

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:568

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:569

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:570

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:571

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:572

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:573

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:574

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:575

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:576

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:577

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:578

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:579

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:580

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:581

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:582

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:583

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:584

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:585

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:586

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:587

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:588

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:589

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:590

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:591

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:592

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:593

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:594

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:595

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:596

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:597

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:598

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:599

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:600

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:601

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:602

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:603

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:604

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:605

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:606

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:607

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:608

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:609

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:610

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:611

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:612

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:613

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:614

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:615

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:616

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:617

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:618

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:619

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:620

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:621

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:622

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:623

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:624

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:625

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:626

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:627

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:628

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:629

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:630

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:631

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:632

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:633

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:634

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:635

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:636

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:637

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:638

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:639

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:640

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:641

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:642

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:643

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:644

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:645

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:646

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:647

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:648

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:649

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:650

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:651

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:652

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:653

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:654

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:655

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:656

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:657

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:658

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:659

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:660

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:661

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:662

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:663

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:664

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:665

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:666

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:667

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:668

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:669

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:670

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:671

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:672

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:673

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:674

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:675

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:676

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:677

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:678

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:679

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:680

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:681

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:682

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:683

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:684

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:685

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:686

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:687

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:688

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:689

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:690

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:691

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:692

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:693

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:694

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:695

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:696

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:697

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:698

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:699

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:700

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:701

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:702

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:703

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:704

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:705

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:706

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:707

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:708

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:709

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:710

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:711

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:712

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:713

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:714

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:715

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:716

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:717

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:718

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:719

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:720

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:721

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:722

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:723

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:724

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:725

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:726

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:727

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:728

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:729

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:730

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:731

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:732

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:733

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:734

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:735

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:736

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:737

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:738

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:739

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:740

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:741

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:742

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:743

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:744

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:745

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:746

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:747

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:748

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:749

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:750

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:751

All over the world the wild fauna has been whittled down steadily and remorselessly, and many lovely and interesting animals have been so reduced in numbers that, without protection and help, they can never re-establish themselves. If they cannot find sanctuary where they can live and breed undisturbed, their numbers will dwindle until they join the dodo, the quagga, and the great auk on the long list of extinct creatures.
Of course, in the last decade or so, much has been done for the protection of wild life: sanctuaries and reserves have been started, and the reintroduction of species into areas where it had become extinct is taking place. In Canada, for instance, beavers are now being reintroduced into certain areas by means of aeroplane.
But although much is being done, there is still a very great deal to do. Unfortunately, the majority of useful work in animal preservation has been done mainly for animals which are of some economic importance to man and there are many obscure species of no economic importance which, although they are protected on paper, are in actual fact being allowed to die out because nobody, except a few interested zoologists, considers them important enough to spend money on.
As mankind increases year by year, and as he spreads farther over the globe burning and destroying, it is some small comfort to know that there are certain private individuals and some institutions who consider that the work of trying to save and give sanctuary to these harried animals is of some importance. It is important for many reasons, but perhaps the best of them is this: man for all his genius, cannot create a species, nor can he recreate one he has destroyed. So until we consider animal life to be worthy of the consideration and reverence we bestow upon old books and pictures and historic monuments, there will always be the animal refugee living precarious life on the edge of extermination, dependent for existence on the charity of a few human beings.
Read the passage and answer the following questions:

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:752

Which of the following animal species has been saved from extinction?

QUESTION ID:753

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life?

QUESTION ID:754

Animals species should be preserved mainly because:

QUESTION ID:755

Certain species of wild life is about to become extinct mainly because:

QUESTION ID:756

Identify the correct proposition from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.

The boys equally divided the chocolates _________ themselves.

QUESTION ID:757

Identify the correct form from verb to make a meaningful sentence.

Neither of the contestants ________ to win.

QUESTION ID:758

Pick out the correctly spelt word: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:759

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given :-

Sunita is an apple of her father's eye

QUESTION ID:760

Identify the correct form of indirect speech of the following sentence.

He said, "I have been reading since morning."

QUESTION ID:761

A triangle can have:

QUESTION ID:762

If the mean of 18, 19, x, 25 and 26 is 21, then find the mean of 5, 11, 13, 19 and (3x-1):

QUESTION ID:763

Find a single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25%:

QUESTION ID:764

A man is walking at a speed of 6 km/h. After every km he takes rest for 6 minutes.
How much time will he take to cover a distance of 24 km.

QUESTION ID:765


QUESTION ID:766

Identify which of the given conclusions follows from the given statements:
Statement I : No perfume is a fragrance.
                       Some perfumes are deodorants.
                       All deodorants are cologne.
Statement II: I. At least some perfumes are colognes.
                       II. No fragrance is deodorant.

QUESTION ID:767

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A is the son of B, C, B's Sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?

QUESTION ID:768

Figure (x) is embedded in which one of the four alternatives:


QUESTION ID:769

Choose the group of letters which is different from others:

POCG, BUDX, ATRG, ZIKL, FQMV

QUESTION ID:770

Choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

Sand stone : Limestone : Coal

QUESTION ID:771

The international Court of Justice was established in the year: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:772


QUESTION ID:773

National Development Council was constituted on ________.

QUESTION ID:774

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal
Reasons (R): Maratha were the first to have a clear concept of United Nation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:775

Deepika Kumari is associated with which of the following sports?

QUESTION ID:776

False branching of thallus is observed in

QUESTION ID:777

Heterocyst a thick-walled, pale-yellow, barrel-shaped structure found in blue-green algae, helps in

QUESTION ID:778

The influenza virus carry functional surface projections called spike which contains unique enzyme known as

QUESTION ID:779

Transformation, a phenomenon responsible for recombination in microbes was discovered by

QUESTION ID:780

Rhodophyceae possesses the following unique characteristics
(A) The septa between the adjacent cells have 'pit connections'
(B) The flagellated motile stages are totally absent
(C) Red algae exhibit low degree of epiphytism and parasitism
(D) They contain water soluble phycocyanin pigment
(E) The accumulated photosynthetic product is floridean starch

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:781


QUESTION ID:782

DNA is synthesized in the cell by

QUESTION ID:783

Glycyrrhiza glabra is used in the treatment of

QUESTION ID:784

Which of the following is most acidic from the mentioned material?

QUESTION ID:785

The time interval between the formation of successive leaf primordia is termed as:

QUESTION ID:786

Glyphosate resembles phosphoenol pyruvate and inhibits the enzyme EPSP synthetase which synthesises ________.

QUESTION ID:787

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cotton and linen textiles have long durability due to cellulose's side-by-side aggregates which form molecular cables.
Reasons (R): Durability of cellulose is due to a-(1-6) glycosidic bonds.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:788

Ergotism, which is characterized by gangrene, nervous spasm, burning sensation, hallucinations and temporary 'insanity' is caused by

QUESTION ID:789

Morchella esculenta, often found growing under trees in orchards, with an edible ascocarp, belongs to the class __________.

QUESTION ID:790

Many fungi have no known sexual stages in their life-cycle. Mycologists have traditionally grouped such fungi into

QUESTION ID:791

'Covered smuts' disease in Barley is caused by

QUESTION ID:792

The advanced characters exhibited by the members of basidiomycotina include:
(A) No specialized sex organ are formed
(B) Several types of spore in the life-cycle
(C) Spores are endogenous in nature
(D) Formation of dikaryotic cells by clamp connection
(E) Presence of dolipore septa

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:793

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Gnetum is closer to angiosperms than gymonsperms.
Reasons (R): There is complete elimination of archegonia in the female gametophyte of Gnetum.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:794

Retort cells are present in

QUESTION ID:795

The cells of hydrom sheath in Polytrichum are rich in-

QUESTION ID:796

Among the following pteridophytes, the initial steps in evolutionary trend of seed development can be best seen in

QUESTION ID:797


QUESTION ID:798

Mycorrhizal fungi helps in delivery of which key ions to the plant sytem?

QUESTION ID:799

Companion cells which are located close to the sieve tube serve the same function as

QUESTION ID:800

P-proteins are associated with differentiation of

QUESTION ID:801


QUESTION ID:802

Proteins can be separated according to size by following techniques except:
A. Isoelectric focusing
B. SDS-PAGE
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Molecular exclusion chromatography

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:803

The following statements are associated with human female reproductive physiology.
A. The uterine cycle during menstruation includes follicular phase, ovulation and luteal phase.
B. The degeneration of corpus luteum is called luteolysis.
C. An increase in plasma progesterone level synchronises with the luteal phase.
D. After oocyte maturation, ovulation takes place.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:804

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: During gel electrophoresis. DNA moves from anode to cathode.
Reason R: DNA is negatively charged.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:805

Identify the correct statements:
A. Tumor cells differ from normal cells by changes in the regulation of growth. B. Proto-oncogenes encode defective proteins.
C. Tumor cells can display tumor-specific antigens/novel antigens.
D. Several cytokines including IFN and TNF help to mediate tumor-cell killing.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:806

Arrange the primates in order from oldest to recent in terms of evolution:
A. Old world monkeys
B. Orangutons
C. Gibbons
D. Gorillas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:807

Arrange the major thematic events of xenopus gastrulation from early to late stage.
A. Epiboly of the ectoderm around the entire embryo.
B. Extension of the body along anterior-posterior axis.
C. Formation of bottle cells and internalisation of the endoderm and mesoderm.
D. Cortical rotation and formation of grey crescent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:808

In TCA cycle, succinyl CoA synthetase is involved in the conversion of:

QUESTION ID:809

The following statements are related to sensory tissues of animals.
A. Proprioceptors are commonly called 'stretch receptors' that respond to mechanically-induced changes.
B. Certain flagellated protozoa like Euglena that contains chlorophyll possess a mass of bright red protoreceptor granules called stigma.
C. 'Neuromasts' are the primary photoreceptors in sharks, some fishes and aquatic amphibians.
D. Meissner's corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles primarily help to detect chemical stimulus in animals. E. Most reptiles possess Jacobson's (Vomeronasal) organs for olfactory reception.

Choose the set of correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:810

Autoclaving is used as a sterilisation technique. The conditions used for autoclaving are:

QUESTION ID:811

The gradient used in ultracentrifugation for fractionation of DNA is:

QUESTION ID:812

In normal cells. progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Event that occurs at G1/S checkpoint is:

QUESTION ID:813

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the GIS. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints. the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Continuously dividing cells do not exit the cell cycle but they proceed through G1, S. G2 and M phase.
Statement II: Cancer cells are unable to enter GO phase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:814

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Choose the correct statement:

QUESTION ID:815

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talır and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Western Ghats of India is one of the biodiversity hotspots.
Reason R: The criteria for categorisation as a biodiversity hotspot is high number of endemic species (at least 1500 species of vascular plants), the region must have lost 30% of its natural vegetation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:816

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Nilgiri Tahr is an:

QUESTION ID:817

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talu and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Some frogs such as poison dart frog exhibit bright coloration which serves as a warning signal for its predators. It is known as:

QUESTION ID:818

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life? 

QUESTION ID:819

Animal species should be preserved mainly because 

QUESTION ID:820

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate? 

QUESTION ID:821

Which of the following types of animals does man chiefly protect? 

QUESTION ID:822

The wild life is about to become extinct mainly because: 

QUESTION ID:823

Synonym of the word 'CELESTIAL' is: 

QUESTION ID:824

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the following options: 

India is one of the richest countries _________ the world in terms of biodiversity. Due __________ anthropogenic activities, many species have lost their habitat and even become extent. International Union _________  conservation _________ nature and natural resources has categorized with flora and fauna into eight categories. 

QUESTION ID:825

Fill in the blank with suitable word from the options given below: 

Light _________ in a straight line. 

QUESTION ID:826

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:827

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:828

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:829

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:830

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:831

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:832

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:833

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:834

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:835

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:836

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:837

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:838

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:839

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:840

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:841

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:842

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:843

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:844

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:845

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:846

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:847

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:848

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:849

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:850

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:851

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:852

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:853

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:854

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:855

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:856

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:857

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:858

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:859

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:860

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:861

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:862

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:863

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:864

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:865

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:866

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:867

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:868

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:869

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:870

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:871

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:872

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:873

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:874

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:875

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:876

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:877

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:878

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:879

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:880

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:881

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:882

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:883

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:884

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:885

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:886

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:887

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:888

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:889

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:890

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:891

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:892

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:893

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:894

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:895

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:896

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:897

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:898

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:899

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:900

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:901

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:902

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:903

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:904

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:905

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:906

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:907

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:908

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:909

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:910

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:911

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:912

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:913

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:914

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:915

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:916

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:917

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:918

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:919

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:920

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:921

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:922

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:923

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:924

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:925

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:926

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:927

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:928

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:929

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:930

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:931

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:932

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:933

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:934

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:935

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:936

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:937

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:938

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:939

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:940

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:941

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:942

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:943

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:944

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:945

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:946

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:947

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:948

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:949

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:950

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:951

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:952

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:953

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:954

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:955

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:956

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:957

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:958

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:959

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:960

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:961

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:962

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:963

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:964

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:965

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:966

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:967

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:968

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:969

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:970

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:971

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:972

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:973

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:974

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:975

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:976

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:977

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:978

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:979

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:980

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:981

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:982

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:983

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:984

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:985

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:986

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:987

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:988

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:989

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:990

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:991

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:992

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:993

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:994

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:995

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:996

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:997

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:998

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:999

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1000

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1001

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1002

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1003

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1004

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1005

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1006

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1007

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1008

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1009

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1010

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1011

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1012

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1013

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1014

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1015

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1016

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1017

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1018

All over the world the wild fauna has been whittled down steadily and remorselessly, and many lovely and interesting animals have been so reduced in numbers that, without protection and help, they can never re-establish themselves. If they cannot find sanctuary where they can live and breed undisturbed, their numbers will dwindle until they join the dodo, the quagga, and the great auk on the long list of extinct creatures.
Of course, in the last decade or so, much has been done for the protection of wild life: sanctuaries and reserves have been started, and the reintroduction of species into areas where it had become extinct is taking place. In Canada, for instance, beavers are now being reintroduced into certain areas by means of aeroplane.
But although much is being done, there is still a very great deal to do. Unfortunately, the majority of useful work in animal preservation has been done mainly for animals which are of some economic importance to man and there are many obscure species of no economic importance which, although they are protected on paper, are in actual fact being allowed to die out because nobody, except a few interested zoologists, considers them important enough to spend money on.
As mankind increases year by year, and as he spreads farther over the globe burning and destroying, it is some small comfort to know that there are certain private individuals and some institutions who consider that the work of trying to save and give sanctuary to these harried animals is of some importance. It is important for many reasons, but perhaps the best of them is this: man for all his genius, cannot create a species, nor can he recreate one he has destroyed. So until we consider animal life to be worthy of the consideration and reverence we bestow upon old books and pictures and historic monuments, there will always be the animal refugee living precarious life on the edge of extermination, dependent for existence on the charity of a few human beings.
Read the passage and answer the following questions:

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:1019

Which of the following animal species has been saved from extinction?

QUESTION ID:1020

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life?

QUESTION ID:1021

Animals species should be preserved mainly because:

QUESTION ID:1022

Certain species of wild life is about to become extinct mainly because:

QUESTION ID:1023

Identify the correct proposition from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.

The boys equally divided the chocolates _________ themselves.

QUESTION ID:1024

Identify the correct form from verb to make a meaningful sentence.

Neither of the contestants ________ to win.

QUESTION ID:1025

Pick out the correctly spelt word: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:1026

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given :-

Sunita is an apple of her father's eye

QUESTION ID:1027

Identify the correct form of indirect speech of the following sentence.

He said, "I have been reading since morning."

QUESTION ID:1028

A triangle can have:

QUESTION ID:1029

If the mean of 18, 19, x, 25 and 26 is 21, then find the mean of 5, 11, 13, 19 and (3x-1):

QUESTION ID:1030

Find a single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25%:

QUESTION ID:1031

A man is walking at a speed of 6 km/h. After every km he takes rest for 6 minutes.
How much time will he take to cover a distance of 24 km.

QUESTION ID:1032


QUESTION ID:1033

Identify which of the given conclusions follows from the given statements:
Statement I : No perfume is a fragrance.
                       Some perfumes are deodorants.
                       All deodorants are cologne.
Statement II: I. At least some perfumes are colognes.
                       II. No fragrance is deodorant.

QUESTION ID:1034

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A is the son of B, C, B's Sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?

QUESTION ID:1035

Figure (x) is embedded in which one of the four alternatives:


QUESTION ID:1036

Choose the group of letters which is different from others:

POCG, BUDX, ATRG, ZIKL, FQMV

QUESTION ID:1037

Choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

Sand stone : Limestone : Coal

QUESTION ID:1038

The international Court of Justice was established in the year: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:1039


QUESTION ID:1040

National Development Council was constituted on ________.

QUESTION ID:1041

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal
Reasons (R): Maratha were the first to have a clear concept of United Nation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1042

Deepika Kumari is associated with which of the following sports?

QUESTION ID:1043

False branching of thallus is observed in

QUESTION ID:1044

Heterocyst a thick-walled, pale-yellow, barrel-shaped structure found in blue-green algae, helps in

QUESTION ID:1045

The influenza virus carry functional surface projections called spike which contains unique enzyme known as

QUESTION ID:1046

Transformation, a phenomenon responsible for recombination in microbes was discovered by

QUESTION ID:1047

Rhodophyceae possesses the following unique characteristics
(A) The septa between the adjacent cells have 'pit connections'
(B) The flagellated motile stages are totally absent
(C) Red algae exhibit low degree of epiphytism and parasitism
(D) They contain water soluble phycocyanin pigment
(E) The accumulated photosynthetic product is floridean starch

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1048


QUESTION ID:1049

DNA is synthesized in the cell by

QUESTION ID:1050

Glycyrrhiza glabra is used in the treatment of

QUESTION ID:1051

Which of the following is most acidic from the mentioned material?

QUESTION ID:1052

The time interval between the formation of successive leaf primordia is termed as:

QUESTION ID:1053

Glyphosate resembles phosphoenol pyruvate and inhibits the enzyme EPSP synthetase which synthesises ________.

QUESTION ID:1054

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cotton and linen textiles have long durability due to cellulose's side-by-side aggregates which form molecular cables.
Reasons (R): Durability of cellulose is due to a-(1-6) glycosidic bonds.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1055

Ergotism, which is characterized by gangrene, nervous spasm, burning sensation, hallucinations and temporary 'insanity' is caused by

QUESTION ID:1056

Morchella esculenta, often found growing under trees in orchards, with an edible ascocarp, belongs to the class __________.

QUESTION ID:1057

Many fungi have no known sexual stages in their life-cycle. Mycologists have traditionally grouped such fungi into

QUESTION ID:1058

'Covered smuts' disease in Barley is caused by

QUESTION ID:1059

The advanced characters exhibited by the members of basidiomycotina include:
(A) No specialized sex organ are formed
(B) Several types of spore in the life-cycle
(C) Spores are endogenous in nature
(D) Formation of dikaryotic cells by clamp connection
(E) Presence of dolipore septa

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1060

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Gnetum is closer to angiosperms than gymonsperms.
Reasons (R): There is complete elimination of archegonia in the female gametophyte of Gnetum.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1061

Retort cells are present in

QUESTION ID:1062

The cells of hydrom sheath in Polytrichum are rich in-

QUESTION ID:1063

Among the following pteridophytes, the initial steps in evolutionary trend of seed development can be best seen in

QUESTION ID:1064


QUESTION ID:1065

Mycorrhizal fungi helps in delivery of which key ions to the plant sytem?

QUESTION ID:1066

Companion cells which are located close to the sieve tube serve the same function as

QUESTION ID:1067

P-proteins are associated with differentiation of

QUESTION ID:1068