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Previous Year Questions

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QUESTION ID:1

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:2

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:3

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:4

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:5

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:6

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:7

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:8

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:9

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:10

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:11

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:12

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:13

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:14

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:15

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:16

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:17

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:18

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:19

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:20

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:21

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:22

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:23

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:24

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:25

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:26

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:27

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:28

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:29

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:30

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:31

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:32

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:33

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:34

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:35

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:36

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:37

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:38

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:39

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:40

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:41

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:42

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:43

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:44

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:45

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:46

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:47

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:48

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:49

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:50

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:51

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:52

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:53

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:54

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:55

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:56

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:57

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:58

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:59

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:60

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:61

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:62

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:63

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:64

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:65

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:66

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:67

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:68

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:69

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:70

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:71

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:72

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:73

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:74

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:75

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:76

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:77

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:78

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:79

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:80

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:81

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:82

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:83

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:84

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:85

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:86

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:87

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:88

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:89

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:90

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:91

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:92

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:93

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:94

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:95

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:96

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:97

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:98

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:99

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:100

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:101

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:102

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:103

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:104

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:105

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:106

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:107

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:108

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:109

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:110

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:111

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:112

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:113

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:114

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:115

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:116

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:117

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:118

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:119

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:120

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:121

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:122

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:123

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:124

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:125

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:126

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:127

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:128

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:129

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:130

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:131

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:132

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:133

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:134

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:135

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:136

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:137

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:138

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:139

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:140

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:141

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:142

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:143

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:144

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:145

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:146

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:147

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:148

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:149

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:150

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:151

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:152

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:153

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:154

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:155

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:156

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:157

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:158

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:159

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:160

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:161

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:162

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:163

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:164

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:165

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:166

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:167

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:168

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:169

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:170

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:171

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:172

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:173

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:174

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:175

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:176

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:177

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:178

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:179

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:180

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:181

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:182

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:183

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:184

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:185

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:186

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:187

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:188

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:189

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:190

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:191

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:192

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:193

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:194

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:195

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:196

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:197

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:198

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:199

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:200

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:201

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:202

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:203

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:204

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:205

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:206

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:207

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:208

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:209

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:210

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:211

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:212

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:213

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:214

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:215

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:216

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:217

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:218

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:219

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:220

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:221

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:222

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:223

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:224

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:225

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:226

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:227

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:228

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:229

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:230

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:231

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:232

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:233

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:234

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:235

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:236

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:237

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:238

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:239

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:240

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:241

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:242

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:243

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:244

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:245

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:246

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:247

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:248

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:249

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:250

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:251

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:252

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:253

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:254

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:255

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:256

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:257

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:258

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:259

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:260

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:261

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:262

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:263

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:264

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:265

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:266

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:267

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:268

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:269

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:270

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:271

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:272

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:273

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:274

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:275

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:276

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:277

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:278

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:279

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:280

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:281

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:282

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:283

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:284

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:285

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:286

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:287

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:288

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:289

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:290

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:291

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:292

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:293

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:294

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:295

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:296

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:297

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:298

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:299

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:300

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:301

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:302

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:303

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:304

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:305

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:306

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:307

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:308

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:309

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:310

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:311

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:312

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:313

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:314

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:315

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:316

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:317

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:318

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:319

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:320

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:321

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:322

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:323

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:324

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:325

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:326

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:327

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:328

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:329

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:330

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:331

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:332

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:333

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:334

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:335

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:336

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:337

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:338

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:339

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:340

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:341

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:342

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:343

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:344

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:345

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:346

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:347

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:348

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:349

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:350

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:351

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:352

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:353

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:354

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:355

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:356

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:357

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:358

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:359

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:360

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:361

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:362

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:363

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:364

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:365

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:366

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:367

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:368

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:369

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:370

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:371

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:372

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:373

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:374

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:375

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:376

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:377

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:378

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:379

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:380

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:381

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:382

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:383

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:384

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:385

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:386

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:387

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:388

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:389

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:390

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:391

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:392

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:393

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:394

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:395

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:396

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:397

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:398

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:399

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:400

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:401

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:402

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:403

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:404

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:405

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:406

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:407

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:408

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:409

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:410

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:411

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:412

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:413

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:414

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:415

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:416

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:417

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:418

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:419

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:420

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:421

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:422

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:423

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:424

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:425

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:426

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:427

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:428

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:429

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:430

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:431

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:432

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:433

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:434

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:435

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:436

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:437

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:438

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:439

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:440

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:441

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:442

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:443

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:444

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:445

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:446

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:447

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:448

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:449

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:450

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:451

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:452

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:453

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:454

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:455

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:456

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:457

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:458

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:459

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:460

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:461

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:462

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:463

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:464

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:465

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:466

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:467

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:468

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:469

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:470

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:471

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:472

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:473

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:474

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:475

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:476

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:477

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:478

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:479

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:480

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:481

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:482

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:483

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:484

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:485

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:486

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:487

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:488

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:489

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:490

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:491

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:492

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:493

All over the world the wild fauna has been whittled down steadily and remorselessly, and many lovely and interesting animals have been so reduced in numbers that, without protection and help, they can never re-establish themselves. If they cannot find sanctuary where they can live and breed undisturbed, their numbers will dwindle until they join the dodo, the quagga, and the great auk on the long list of extinct creatures.
Of course, in the last decade or so, much has been done for the protection of wild life: sanctuaries and reserves have been started, and the reintroduction of species into areas where it had become extinct is taking place. In Canada, for instance, beavers are now being reintroduced into certain areas by means of aeroplane.
But although much is being done, there is still a very great deal to do. Unfortunately, the majority of useful work in animal preservation has been done mainly for animals which are of some economic importance to man and there are many obscure species of no economic importance which, although they are protected on paper, are in actual fact being allowed to die out because nobody, except a few interested zoologists, considers them important enough to spend money on.
As mankind increases year by year, and as he spreads farther over the globe burning and destroying, it is some small comfort to know that there are certain private individuals and some institutions who consider that the work of trying to save and give sanctuary to these harried animals is of some importance. It is important for many reasons, but perhaps the best of them is this: man for all his genius, cannot create a species, nor can he recreate one he has destroyed. So until we consider animal life to be worthy of the consideration and reverence we bestow upon old books and pictures and historic monuments, there will always be the animal refugee living precarious life on the edge of extermination, dependent for existence on the charity of a few human beings.
Read the passage and answer the following questions:

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:494

All over the world the wild fauna has been whittled down steadily and remorselessly, and many lovely and interesting animals have been so reduced in numbers that, without protection and help, they can never re-establish themselves. If they cannot find sanctuary where they can live and breed undisturbed, their numbers will dwindle until they join the dodo, the quagga, and the great auk on the long list of extinct creatures.
Of course, in the last decade or so, much has been done for the protection of wild life: sanctuaries and reserves have been started, and the reintroduction of species into areas where it had become extinct is taking place. In Canada, for instance, beavers are now being reintroduced into certain areas by means of aeroplane.
But although much is being done, there is still a very great deal to do. Unfortunately, the majority of useful work in animal preservation has been done mainly for animals which are of some economic importance to man and there are many obscure species of no economic importance which, although they are protected on paper, are in actual fact being allowed to die out because nobody, except a few interested zoologists, considers them important enough to spend money on.
As mankind increases year by year, and as he spreads farther over the globe burning and destroying, it is some small comfort to know that there are certain private individuals and some institutions who consider that the work of trying to save and give sanctuary to these harried animals is of some importance. It is important for many reasons, but perhaps the best of them is this: man for all his genius, cannot create a species, nor can he recreate one he has destroyed. So until we consider animal life to be worthy of the consideration and reverence we bestow upon old books and pictures and historic monuments, there will always be the animal refugee living precarious life on the edge of extermination, dependent for existence on the charity of a few human beings.
Read the passage and answer the following questions:

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:495

All over the world the wild fauna has been whittled down steadily and remorselessly, and many lovely and interesting animals have been so reduced in numbers that, without protection and help, they can never re-establish themselves. If they cannot find sanctuary where they can live and breed undisturbed, their numbers will dwindle until they join the dodo, the quagga, and the great auk on the long list of extinct creatures.
Of course, in the last decade or so, much has been done for the protection of wild life: sanctuaries and reserves have been started, and the reintroduction of species into areas where it had become extinct is taking place. In Canada, for instance, beavers are now being reintroduced into certain areas by means of aeroplane.
But although much is being done, there is still a very great deal to do. Unfortunately, the majority of useful work in animal preservation has been done mainly for animals which are of some economic importance to man and there are many obscure species of no economic importance which, although they are protected on paper, are in actual fact being allowed to die out because nobody, except a few interested zoologists, considers them important enough to spend money on.
As mankind increases year by year, and as he spreads farther over the globe burning and destroying, it is some small comfort to know that there are certain private individuals and some institutions who consider that the work of trying to save and give sanctuary to these harried animals is of some importance. It is important for many reasons, but perhaps the best of them is this: man for all his genius, cannot create a species, nor can he recreate one he has destroyed. So until we consider animal life to be worthy of the consideration and reverence we bestow upon old books and pictures and historic monuments, there will always be the animal refugee living precarious life on the edge of extermination, dependent for existence on the charity of a few human beings.
Read the passage and answer the following questions:

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:496

All over the world the wild fauna has been whittled down steadily and remorselessly, and many lovely and interesting animals have been so reduced in numbers that, without protection and help, they can never re-establish themselves. If they cannot find sanctuary where they can live and breed undisturbed, their numbers will dwindle until they join the dodo, the quagga, and the great auk on the long list of extinct creatures.
Of course, in the last decade or so, much has been done for the protection of wild life: sanctuaries and reserves have been started, and the reintroduction of species into areas where it had become extinct is taking place. In Canada, for instance, beavers are now being reintroduced into certain areas by means of aeroplane.
But although much is being done, there is still a very great deal to do. Unfortunately, the majority of useful work in animal preservation has been done mainly for animals which are of some economic importance to man and there are many obscure species of no economic importance which, although they are protected on paper, are in actual fact being allowed to die out because nobody, except a few interested zoologists, considers them important enough to spend money on.
As mankind increases year by year, and as he spreads farther over the globe burning and destroying, it is some small comfort to know that there are certain private individuals and some institutions who consider that the work of trying to save and give sanctuary to these harried animals is of some importance. It is important for many reasons, but perhaps the best of them is this: man for all his genius, cannot create a species, nor can he recreate one he has destroyed. So until we consider animal life to be worthy of the consideration and reverence we bestow upon old books and pictures and historic monuments, there will always be the animal refugee living precarious life on the edge of extermination, dependent for existence on the charity of a few human beings.
Read the passage and answer the following questions:

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:497

Which of the following animal species has been saved from extinction?

QUESTION ID:498

Which of the following animal species has been saved from extinction?

QUESTION ID:499

Which of the following animal species has been saved from extinction?

QUESTION ID:500

Which of the following animal species has been saved from extinction?

QUESTION ID:501

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life?

QUESTION ID:502

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life?

QUESTION ID:503

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life?

QUESTION ID:504

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life?

QUESTION ID:505

Animals species should be preserved mainly because:

QUESTION ID:506

Animals species should be preserved mainly because:

QUESTION ID:507

Animals species should be preserved mainly because:

QUESTION ID:508

Animals species should be preserved mainly because:

QUESTION ID:509

Certain species of wild life is about to become extinct mainly because:

QUESTION ID:510

Certain species of wild life is about to become extinct mainly because:

QUESTION ID:511

Certain species of wild life is about to become extinct mainly because:

QUESTION ID:512

Certain species of wild life is about to become extinct mainly because:

QUESTION ID:513

Identify the correct proposition from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.

The boys equally divided the chocolates _________ themselves.

QUESTION ID:514

Identify the correct proposition from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.

The boys equally divided the chocolates _________ themselves.

QUESTION ID:515

Identify the correct proposition from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.

The boys equally divided the chocolates _________ themselves.

QUESTION ID:516

Identify the correct proposition from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.

The boys equally divided the chocolates _________ themselves.

QUESTION ID:517

Identify the correct form from verb to make a meaningful sentence.

Neither of the contestants ________ to win.

QUESTION ID:518

Identify the correct form from verb to make a meaningful sentence.

Neither of the contestants ________ to win.

QUESTION ID:519

Identify the correct form from verb to make a meaningful sentence.

Neither of the contestants ________ to win.

QUESTION ID:520

Identify the correct form from verb to make a meaningful sentence.

Neither of the contestants ________ to win.

QUESTION ID:521

Pick out the correctly spelt word: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:522

Pick out the correctly spelt word: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:523

Pick out the correctly spelt word: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:524

Pick out the correctly spelt word: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:525

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given :-

Sunita is an apple of her father's eye

QUESTION ID:526

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given :-

Sunita is an apple of her father's eye

QUESTION ID:527

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given :-

Sunita is an apple of her father's eye

QUESTION ID:528

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given :-

Sunita is an apple of her father's eye

QUESTION ID:529

Identify the correct form of indirect speech of the following sentence.

He said, "I have been reading since morning."

QUESTION ID:530

Identify the correct form of indirect speech of the following sentence.

He said, "I have been reading since morning."

QUESTION ID:531

Identify the correct form of indirect speech of the following sentence.

He said, "I have been reading since morning."

QUESTION ID:532

Identify the correct form of indirect speech of the following sentence.

He said, "I have been reading since morning."

QUESTION ID:533

A triangle can have:

QUESTION ID:534

A triangle can have:

QUESTION ID:535

A triangle can have:

QUESTION ID:536

A triangle can have:

QUESTION ID:537

If the mean of 18, 19, x, 25 and 26 is 21, then find the mean of 5, 11, 13, 19 and (3x-1):

QUESTION ID:538

If the mean of 18, 19, x, 25 and 26 is 21, then find the mean of 5, 11, 13, 19 and (3x-1):

QUESTION ID:539

If the mean of 18, 19, x, 25 and 26 is 21, then find the mean of 5, 11, 13, 19 and (3x-1):

QUESTION ID:540

If the mean of 18, 19, x, 25 and 26 is 21, then find the mean of 5, 11, 13, 19 and (3x-1):

QUESTION ID:541

Find a single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25%:

QUESTION ID:542

Find a single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25%:

QUESTION ID:543

Find a single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25%:

QUESTION ID:544

Find a single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25%:

QUESTION ID:545

A man is walking at a speed of 6 km/h. After every km he takes rest for 6 minutes.
How much time will he take to cover a distance of 24 km.

QUESTION ID:546

A man is walking at a speed of 6 km/h. After every km he takes rest for 6 minutes.
How much time will he take to cover a distance of 24 km.

QUESTION ID:547

A man is walking at a speed of 6 km/h. After every km he takes rest for 6 minutes.
How much time will he take to cover a distance of 24 km.

QUESTION ID:548

A man is walking at a speed of 6 km/h. After every km he takes rest for 6 minutes.
How much time will he take to cover a distance of 24 km.

QUESTION ID:549


QUESTION ID:550


QUESTION ID:551


QUESTION ID:552


QUESTION ID:553

Identify which of the given conclusions follows from the given statements:
Statement I : No perfume is a fragrance.
                       Some perfumes are deodorants.
                       All deodorants are cologne.
Statement II: I. At least some perfumes are colognes.
                       II. No fragrance is deodorant.

QUESTION ID:554

Identify which of the given conclusions follows from the given statements:
Statement I : No perfume is a fragrance.
                       Some perfumes are deodorants.
                       All deodorants are cologne.
Statement II: I. At least some perfumes are colognes.
                       II. No fragrance is deodorant.

QUESTION ID:555

Identify which of the given conclusions follows from the given statements:
Statement I : No perfume is a fragrance.
                       Some perfumes are deodorants.
                       All deodorants are cologne.
Statement II: I. At least some perfumes are colognes.
                       II. No fragrance is deodorant.

QUESTION ID:556

Identify which of the given conclusions follows from the given statements:
Statement I : No perfume is a fragrance.
                       Some perfumes are deodorants.
                       All deodorants are cologne.
Statement II: I. At least some perfumes are colognes.
                       II. No fragrance is deodorant.

QUESTION ID:557

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A is the son of B, C, B's Sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?

QUESTION ID:558

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A is the son of B, C, B's Sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?

QUESTION ID:559

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A is the son of B, C, B's Sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?

QUESTION ID:560

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A is the son of B, C, B's Sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?

QUESTION ID:561

Figure (x) is embedded in which one of the four alternatives:


QUESTION ID:562

Figure (x) is embedded in which one of the four alternatives:


QUESTION ID:563

Figure (x) is embedded in which one of the four alternatives:


QUESTION ID:564

Figure (x) is embedded in which one of the four alternatives:


QUESTION ID:565

Choose the group of letters which is different from others:

POCG, BUDX, ATRG, ZIKL, FQMV

QUESTION ID:566

Choose the group of letters which is different from others:

POCG, BUDX, ATRG, ZIKL, FQMV

QUESTION ID:567

Choose the group of letters which is different from others:

POCG, BUDX, ATRG, ZIKL, FQMV

QUESTION ID:568

Choose the group of letters which is different from others:

POCG, BUDX, ATRG, ZIKL, FQMV

QUESTION ID:569

Choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

Sand stone : Limestone : Coal

QUESTION ID:570

Choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

Sand stone : Limestone : Coal

QUESTION ID:571

Choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

Sand stone : Limestone : Coal

QUESTION ID:572

Choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

Sand stone : Limestone : Coal

QUESTION ID:573

The international Court of Justice was established in the year: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:574

The international Court of Justice was established in the year: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:575

The international Court of Justice was established in the year: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:576

The international Court of Justice was established in the year: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:577


QUESTION ID:578


QUESTION ID:579


QUESTION ID:580


QUESTION ID:581

National Development Council was constituted on ________.

QUESTION ID:582

National Development Council was constituted on ________.

QUESTION ID:583

National Development Council was constituted on ________.

QUESTION ID:584

National Development Council was constituted on ________.

QUESTION ID:585

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal
Reasons (R): Maratha were the first to have a clear concept of United Nation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:586

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal
Reasons (R): Maratha were the first to have a clear concept of United Nation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:587

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal
Reasons (R): Maratha were the first to have a clear concept of United Nation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:588

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal
Reasons (R): Maratha were the first to have a clear concept of United Nation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:589

Deepika Kumari is associated with which of the following sports?

QUESTION ID:590

Deepika Kumari is associated with which of the following sports?

QUESTION ID:591

Deepika Kumari is associated with which of the following sports?

QUESTION ID:592

Deepika Kumari is associated with which of the following sports?

QUESTION ID:593

False branching of thallus is observed in

QUESTION ID:594

False branching of thallus is observed in

QUESTION ID:595

False branching of thallus is observed in

QUESTION ID:596

False branching of thallus is observed in

QUESTION ID:597

Heterocyst a thick-walled, pale-yellow, barrel-shaped structure found in blue-green algae, helps in

QUESTION ID:598

Heterocyst a thick-walled, pale-yellow, barrel-shaped structure found in blue-green algae, helps in

QUESTION ID:599

Heterocyst a thick-walled, pale-yellow, barrel-shaped structure found in blue-green algae, helps in

QUESTION ID:600

Heterocyst a thick-walled, pale-yellow, barrel-shaped structure found in blue-green algae, helps in

QUESTION ID:601

The influenza virus carry functional surface projections called spike which contains unique enzyme known as

QUESTION ID:602

The influenza virus carry functional surface projections called spike which contains unique enzyme known as

QUESTION ID:603

The influenza virus carry functional surface projections called spike which contains unique enzyme known as

QUESTION ID:604

The influenza virus carry functional surface projections called spike which contains unique enzyme known as

QUESTION ID:605

Transformation, a phenomenon responsible for recombination in microbes was discovered by

QUESTION ID:606

Transformation, a phenomenon responsible for recombination in microbes was discovered by

QUESTION ID:607

Transformation, a phenomenon responsible for recombination in microbes was discovered by

QUESTION ID:608

Transformation, a phenomenon responsible for recombination in microbes was discovered by

QUESTION ID:609

Rhodophyceae possesses the following unique characteristics
(A) The septa between the adjacent cells have 'pit connections'
(B) The flagellated motile stages are totally absent
(C) Red algae exhibit low degree of epiphytism and parasitism
(D) They contain water soluble phycocyanin pigment
(E) The accumulated photosynthetic product is floridean starch

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:610

Rhodophyceae possesses the following unique characteristics
(A) The septa between the adjacent cells have 'pit connections'
(B) The flagellated motile stages are totally absent
(C) Red algae exhibit low degree of epiphytism and parasitism
(D) They contain water soluble phycocyanin pigment
(E) The accumulated photosynthetic product is floridean starch

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:611

Rhodophyceae possesses the following unique characteristics
(A) The septa between the adjacent cells have 'pit connections'
(B) The flagellated motile stages are totally absent
(C) Red algae exhibit low degree of epiphytism and parasitism
(D) They contain water soluble phycocyanin pigment
(E) The accumulated photosynthetic product is floridean starch

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:612

Rhodophyceae possesses the following unique characteristics
(A) The septa between the adjacent cells have 'pit connections'
(B) The flagellated motile stages are totally absent
(C) Red algae exhibit low degree of epiphytism and parasitism
(D) They contain water soluble phycocyanin pigment
(E) The accumulated photosynthetic product is floridean starch

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:613


QUESTION ID:614


QUESTION ID:615


QUESTION ID:616


QUESTION ID:617

DNA is synthesized in the cell by

QUESTION ID:618

DNA is synthesized in the cell by

QUESTION ID:619

DNA is synthesized in the cell by

QUESTION ID:620

DNA is synthesized in the cell by

QUESTION ID:621

Glycyrrhiza glabra is used in the treatment of

QUESTION ID:622

Glycyrrhiza glabra is used in the treatment of

QUESTION ID:623

Glycyrrhiza glabra is used in the treatment of

QUESTION ID:624

Glycyrrhiza glabra is used in the treatment of

QUESTION ID:625

Which of the following is most acidic from the mentioned material?

QUESTION ID:626

Which of the following is most acidic from the mentioned material?

QUESTION ID:627

Which of the following is most acidic from the mentioned material?

QUESTION ID:628

Which of the following is most acidic from the mentioned material?

QUESTION ID:629

The time interval between the formation of successive leaf primordia is termed as:

QUESTION ID:630

The time interval between the formation of successive leaf primordia is termed as:

QUESTION ID:631

The time interval between the formation of successive leaf primordia is termed as:

QUESTION ID:632

The time interval between the formation of successive leaf primordia is termed as:

QUESTION ID:633

Glyphosate resembles phosphoenol pyruvate and inhibits the enzyme EPSP synthetase which synthesises ________.

QUESTION ID:634

Glyphosate resembles phosphoenol pyruvate and inhibits the enzyme EPSP synthetase which synthesises ________.

QUESTION ID:635

Glyphosate resembles phosphoenol pyruvate and inhibits the enzyme EPSP synthetase which synthesises ________.

QUESTION ID:636

Glyphosate resembles phosphoenol pyruvate and inhibits the enzyme EPSP synthetase which synthesises ________.

QUESTION ID:637

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cotton and linen textiles have long durability due to cellulose's side-by-side aggregates which form molecular cables.
Reasons (R): Durability of cellulose is due to a-(1-6) glycosidic bonds.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:638

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cotton and linen textiles have long durability due to cellulose's side-by-side aggregates which form molecular cables.
Reasons (R): Durability of cellulose is due to a-(1-6) glycosidic bonds.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:639

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cotton and linen textiles have long durability due to cellulose's side-by-side aggregates which form molecular cables.
Reasons (R): Durability of cellulose is due to a-(1-6) glycosidic bonds.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:640

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cotton and linen textiles have long durability due to cellulose's side-by-side aggregates which form molecular cables.
Reasons (R): Durability of cellulose is due to a-(1-6) glycosidic bonds.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:641

Ergotism, which is characterized by gangrene, nervous spasm, burning sensation, hallucinations and temporary 'insanity' is caused by

QUESTION ID:642

Ergotism, which is characterized by gangrene, nervous spasm, burning sensation, hallucinations and temporary 'insanity' is caused by

QUESTION ID:643

Ergotism, which is characterized by gangrene, nervous spasm, burning sensation, hallucinations and temporary 'insanity' is caused by

QUESTION ID:644

Ergotism, which is characterized by gangrene, nervous spasm, burning sensation, hallucinations and temporary 'insanity' is caused by

QUESTION ID:645

Morchella esculenta, often found growing under trees in orchards, with an edible ascocarp, belongs to the class __________.

QUESTION ID:646

Morchella esculenta, often found growing under trees in orchards, with an edible ascocarp, belongs to the class __________.

QUESTION ID:647

Morchella esculenta, often found growing under trees in orchards, with an edible ascocarp, belongs to the class __________.

QUESTION ID:648

Morchella esculenta, often found growing under trees in orchards, with an edible ascocarp, belongs to the class __________.

QUESTION ID:649

Many fungi have no known sexual stages in their life-cycle. Mycologists have traditionally grouped such fungi into

QUESTION ID:650

Many fungi have no known sexual stages in their life-cycle. Mycologists have traditionally grouped such fungi into

QUESTION ID:651

Many fungi have no known sexual stages in their life-cycle. Mycologists have traditionally grouped such fungi into

QUESTION ID:652

Many fungi have no known sexual stages in their life-cycle. Mycologists have traditionally grouped such fungi into

QUESTION ID:653

'Covered smuts' disease in Barley is caused by

QUESTION ID:654

'Covered smuts' disease in Barley is caused by

QUESTION ID:655

'Covered smuts' disease in Barley is caused by

QUESTION ID:656

'Covered smuts' disease in Barley is caused by

QUESTION ID:657

The advanced characters exhibited by the members of basidiomycotina include:
(A) No specialized sex organ are formed
(B) Several types of spore in the life-cycle
(C) Spores are endogenous in nature
(D) Formation of dikaryotic cells by clamp connection
(E) Presence of dolipore septa

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:658

The advanced characters exhibited by the members of basidiomycotina include:
(A) No specialized sex organ are formed
(B) Several types of spore in the life-cycle
(C) Spores are endogenous in nature
(D) Formation of dikaryotic cells by clamp connection
(E) Presence of dolipore septa

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:659

The advanced characters exhibited by the members of basidiomycotina include:
(A) No specialized sex organ are formed
(B) Several types of spore in the life-cycle
(C) Spores are endogenous in nature
(D) Formation of dikaryotic cells by clamp connection
(E) Presence of dolipore septa

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:660

The advanced characters exhibited by the members of basidiomycotina include:
(A) No specialized sex organ are formed
(B) Several types of spore in the life-cycle
(C) Spores are endogenous in nature
(D) Formation of dikaryotic cells by clamp connection
(E) Presence of dolipore septa

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:661

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Gnetum is closer to angiosperms than gymonsperms.
Reasons (R): There is complete elimination of archegonia in the female gametophyte of Gnetum.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:662

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Gnetum is closer to angiosperms than gymonsperms.
Reasons (R): There is complete elimination of archegonia in the female gametophyte of Gnetum.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:663

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Gnetum is closer to angiosperms than gymonsperms.
Reasons (R): There is complete elimination of archegonia in the female gametophyte of Gnetum.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:664

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Gnetum is closer to angiosperms than gymonsperms.
Reasons (R): There is complete elimination of archegonia in the female gametophyte of Gnetum.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:665

Retort cells are present in

QUESTION ID:666

Retort cells are present in

QUESTION ID:667

Retort cells are present in

QUESTION ID:668

Retort cells are present in

QUESTION ID:669

The cells of hydrom sheath in Polytrichum are rich in-

QUESTION ID:670

The cells of hydrom sheath in Polytrichum are rich in-

QUESTION ID:671

The cells of hydrom sheath in Polytrichum are rich in-

QUESTION ID:672

The cells of hydrom sheath in Polytrichum are rich in-

QUESTION ID:673

Among the following pteridophytes, the initial steps in evolutionary trend of seed development can be best seen in

QUESTION ID:674

Among the following pteridophytes, the initial steps in evolutionary trend of seed development can be best seen in

QUESTION ID:675

Among the following pteridophytes, the initial steps in evolutionary trend of seed development can be best seen in

QUESTION ID:676

Among the following pteridophytes, the initial steps in evolutionary trend of seed development can be best seen in

QUESTION ID:677


QUESTION ID:678


QUESTION ID:679


QUESTION ID:680


QUESTION ID:681

Mycorrhizal fungi helps in delivery of which key ions to the plant sytem?

QUESTION ID:682

Mycorrhizal fungi helps in delivery of which key ions to the plant sytem?

QUESTION ID:683

Mycorrhizal fungi helps in delivery of which key ions to the plant sytem?

QUESTION ID:684

Mycorrhizal fungi helps in delivery of which key ions to the plant sytem?

QUESTION ID:685

Companion cells which are located close to the sieve tube serve the same function as

QUESTION ID:686

Companion cells which are located close to the sieve tube serve the same function as

QUESTION ID:687

Companion cells which are located close to the sieve tube serve the same function as

QUESTION ID:688

Companion cells which are located close to the sieve tube serve the same function as

QUESTION ID:689

P-proteins are associated with differentiation of

QUESTION ID:690

P-proteins are associated with differentiation of

QUESTION ID:691

P-proteins are associated with differentiation of

QUESTION ID:692

P-proteins are associated with differentiation of

QUESTION ID:693


QUESTION ID:694


QUESTION ID:695


QUESTION ID:696