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Previous Year Questions

TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:2

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:3

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:4

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:5

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:6

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:7

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:8

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:9

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:10

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:11

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:12

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:13

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:14

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:15

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:16

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:17

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:18

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:19

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:20

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:21

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:22

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:23

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:24

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:25

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:26

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:27

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:28

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:29

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:30

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:31

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:32

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:33

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:34

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:35

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:36

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:37

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:38

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:39

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:40

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:41

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:42

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:43

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:44

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:45

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:46

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:47

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:48

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:49

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:50

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:51

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:52

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:53

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:54

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:55

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:56

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:57

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:58

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:59

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:60

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:61

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:62

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:63

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:64

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:65

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:66

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:67

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:68

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:69

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:70

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:71

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:72

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:73

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:74

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:75

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:76

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:77

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:78

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:79

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:80

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:81

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:82

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:83

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:84

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:85

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:86

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:87

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:88

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:89

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:90

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:91

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:92

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:93

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:94

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:95

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:96

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:97

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:98

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:99

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:100

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:101

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:102

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:103

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:104

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:105

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:106

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:107

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:108

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:109

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:110

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:111

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:112

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:113

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:114

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:115

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:116

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:117

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:118

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:119

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:120

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:121

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:122

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:123

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :