Menu

Previous Year Questions

TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

Call before a court to answer a criminal charge is

QUESTION ID:2

Indictment means

QUESTION ID:3

Salience means

QUESTION ID:4

Captain Vs Generals
Pak army doesn't want to take over govt but it doesn't know how post-Imran-arrest protest will pan out
Following Imran Khan's dramatic arrest on Tuesday. Pakistan's 'polycrisis' has not only deepened but also morphed into a systemic question for that country. There can be no doubting that the manner of khan's arrest - it is the paramilitary Rangers that picked him up from the premises of the Islamabad high court was meant to send out a clear message to the former Pakistani PM: that he had crossed a red line by repeatedly pointing fingers at Pakistan's military-security establishment. But Khan has emerged as the most popular Pakistani leader in over a decade. And his refusal to play by the army's hybrid regime playbook has brought Pakistan to an inflection point.
As protests by Khan's PTI supporters spread, the hybrid regime is facing its sternest test. By all accounts the Shehbaz Sharif government wants to delay national polls scheduled for later this year.. It hopes this will take the wind out of Khan's political sails as cases pile up against him-the latest being the indictment in the Toshakhana case. But if the protests sustain. army chief Asim Munir would be forced to make a tough choice either directly step in and take control or put at risk the army's pre-eminent position in Pakistani society. The generals have played the role of Pakistan's stabiliser for decades, notwithstanding messy outcomes.
However, another military takeover would be tricky today's geopolitical climate. Pakistan's salience in international politics has rapidly declined over the last decade, particularly after the US withdrawal from Afghanistan. True, china is still a benefactor through its CPEC projects. But that closely tracks Beijing's strategic and mercantilist interests. Therefore, without US backing. a Pakistan under generals would likely be shut out from IMF bailouts its dysfunctional economy needs desperately - forex reserves are still paltry, inflation is climbing and there's widespread general hardship.
Thus, General Munir will try his best to sustain the hybrid regime. He may even choose to allow the protests to continue till calls for more robust intervention arise. But popular movements are unpredictable. While we are not there yet. India should watch out for cracks in the Pakistani military establishment. Pakistan in utter chaos is not good news for India.

Pakistan's prominence in world politics declined gradually. The facts which are true regarding this are:
A. Over the last decade.
B. After the US withdrawal from Afghanistan.
C. Pakistan was never prominent in world politics.
D. China is a benefactor of this declination stated above.

QUESTION ID:5

Captain Vs Generals
Pak army doesn't want to take over govt but it doesn't know how post-Imran-arrest protest will pan out
Following Imran Khan's dramatic arrest on Tuesday. Pakistan's 'polycrisis' has not only deepened but also morphed into a systemic question for that country. There can be no doubting that the manner of khan's arrest - it is the paramilitary Rangers that picked him up from the premises of the Islamabad high court was meant to send out a clear message to the former Pakistani PM: that he had crossed a red line by repeatedly pointing fingers at Pakistan's military-security establishment. But Khan has emerged as the most popular Pakistani leader in over a decade. And his refusal to play by the army's hybrid regime playbook has brought Pakistan to an inflection point.
As protests by Khan's PTI supporters spread, the hybrid regime is facing its sternest test. By all accounts the Shehbaz Sharif government wants to delay national polls scheduled for later this year.. It hopes this will take the wind out of Khan's political sails as cases pile up against him-the latest being the indictment in the Toshakhana case. But if the protests sustain. army chief Asim Munir would be forced to make a tough choice either directly step in and take control or put at risk the army's pre-eminent position in Pakistani society. The generals have played the role of Pakistan's stabiliser for decades, notwithstanding messy outcomes.
However, another military takeover would be tricky today's geopolitical climate. Pakistan's salience in international politics has rapidly declined over the last decade, particularly after the US withdrawal from Afghanistan. True, china is still a benefactor through its CPEC projects. But that closely tracks Beijing's strategic and mercantilist interests. Therefore, without US backing. a Pakistan under generals would likely be shut out from IMF bailouts its dysfunctional economy needs desperately - forex reserves are still paltry, inflation is climbing and there's widespread general hardship.
Thus, General Munir will try his best to sustain the hybrid regime. He may even choose to allow the protests to continue till calls for more robust intervention arise. But popular movements are unpredictable. While we are not there yet. India should watch out for cracks in the Pakistani military establishment. Pakistan in utter chaos is not good news for India.

Asim Munir would be forced to make:
A. A tough choice.
B. choice of directly stepping in and taking control.
C. choice to put at risk the army's pre-eminent position in pakistani society.
D. To stop china from taking advantage in CPEC projects.

QUESTION ID:6

Right-wingers believe that ceasefire is no solution to Kashmir problem. We must have the will to __________

QUESTION ID:7

Choose the appropriate one word substitute for:

A person who shows selfless concern for the well-being and happiness of others

QUESTION ID:8

My great uncle's gift of several lakh rupees was enough to AMELIORATE my financial condition. Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters

QUESTION ID:9

Choose the grammatically correct sentence:

QUESTION ID:10

choose the correctly spelt word from the given options

QUESTION ID:11

If a:b=3:5, then (-a²+b²):(a²+b²) is:

QUESTION ID:12


QUESTION ID:13

Instead of walking along two adjacent sides of a rectangular field, a boy took a short-cut along the diagonal of the field and saved a distance equal to half of the longer side. Find the ratio of the length of the shorter side to that of the longer side of the field.

QUESTION ID:14

By selling an electric iron for ₹700. a shopkeeper incurred a loss of 30%. At what price should he have sold the electric iron to gain 40%?

QUESTION ID:15

A water tank can be filled by two pipes P and Q in 60 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the empty tank if pipes P and Q are opened for first half of the time. after which only pipe Q is opened for next half of the time?

QUESTION ID:16

If AMAN equals 79, then HAPPY=?

QUESTION ID:17

Answer the question by using the below mentioned statement and conclusions.

Statement: All teachers are student
Some students are girls

Conclusions:- I. All teachers are girls.
II. Some girls are teachers.
III. Some girls are student.

QUESTION ID:18

Choose the correct alternative that will complete the pattern 0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13, ?

QUESTION ID:19

Manoj is taller than Sam but shorter than Rakesh. Rakesh is taller than Rohit but shorter than Govind. If Sam is taller than Rohit, then who is the shortest among all?

QUESTION ID:20

Introducing a man to her husband, a woman said. "His sister's father is the only son of my grandfather". How is the woman related to this man?

QUESTION ID:21

'Chor Minar' in the Hauzkhas of Delhi was constructed by

QUESTION ID:22

Match List I with List II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:23

'Jhuming' is a type of

QUESTION ID:24

A. The speed of sound is maximum in gases and minimum in solids.
B. The speed of sound remains unchanged by increase or decrease of pressure.
C. The speed of sound increases with increase of temperature of the medium.
D. The speed of sound is less in humid air than in dry air.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:25

Which music composer of India has won the prestigious Grammy Awards 2023?

QUESTION ID:26

Which of the following enzymes introduce negative supercoiling in prokaryotic DNA?

QUESTION ID:27

To detect infection of SARS-CoV2 in humans, RT-PCR technique is used to quantify:

QUESTION ID:28

Which cell organelle is involved in the synthesis of glycosphingolipids and glycoproteins inside the cell?

QUESTION ID:29

Actinomycin D inhibits:

QUESTION ID:30

Which of the following event occurs during the Diplonema Diplotene stage of meiosis?

QUESTION ID:31

The anti-parallel nature of double standard DNA is due to:

QUESTION ID:32

All human antibody types possess a proline-rich flexible 'hinge region' except:

QUESTION ID:33

The drug Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of:

QUESTION ID:34

Neuroglia found in peripheral nervous system (PNS) contains the following cells:

QUESTION ID:35

Hyaluronic acid is composed of:

QUESTION ID:36

Separation of two different alleles from each other during gamete formation in a heterozygote follows:

QUESTION ID:37

A lizard like reptile which is considered as a "Living fossil" is:

QUESTION ID:38

The world's only floating national park is situated in:

QUESTION ID:39

Calculate the value of median from the given data:

2.90, 3.57, 3.73, 2.98, 3.64, 3.75
3.30, 3.62, 3.76, 3.38, 3.66, 3.76

QUESTION ID:40

In the course of evolution. first horses appeared in which period?

QUESTION ID:41

Teak is a dominant tree species of which of the following types of forests in India?

QUESTION ID:42

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Food chains are short.
Reason R: There is a loss of 10% of energy at each trophic level

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:43

Which is the correct sequence of events in urine formation?

QUESTION ID:44

All of the following are amniotes except:

QUESTION ID:45

The first definitive evidence for the chromosomal theory of inheritance was provided by:

QUESTION ID:46

Carina is:

QUESTION ID:47

The egg of birds and fishes have only one small area which is free of yolk and where division takes place. Such an egg is known as:

QUESTION ID:48

Which of the hominins first migrated out of Africa?

QUESTION ID:49

The ribozyme that catalyses peptide bond formation during prokaryotic protein synthesis is:

QUESTION ID:50

Cosmid vector is made up of:

QUESTION ID:51

A population has 600 individuals. 150 of genotype AA. 300 of genotype Aa and 150 of genotype aa. What is the frequency of allele A?

QUESTION ID:52

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:53

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scurvy is a disease due to deficiency of Vitamin C.
Reason R: Scurvy is characterised by long digits and extensibility of joints.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:54

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The wing of a bird, forelimb of human and forelimb of lizard are homologous.
Reason R: Organ's underlying similarity arises due to their derivation from common ancestors.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:55

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scaffolding proteins are non-histone chromosomal proteins.
Reason R: Scaffolding proteins are abundant in lysine and Arginine.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:56

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Treatment of immunoglobulin IgG with ẞ-mercaptoethanol gives rise to two heavy chains and two light chains peptides on SDS-PAGE.
Reason R: ẞ-mercaptoethanol breaks peptide bond at the site of disulphide linkage.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:57

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Monkeys and chimpanzees cannot mate in present day conditions.
Reason R: Reproductive isolation is reversible.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:58

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with antibiotic resistance.
Reason R: Plasmodium is dependent on Hexose monophosphate shunt and reduced glutathione for their optimum growth in RBCs.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:59

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Salamanders belong to order Apoda of class Amphibia.
Reason R: The order Apoda of class Amphibia includes elongated, limbless and burrowing creatures.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:60

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Sponges are the only major phylum that lack nerves.
Statement II: The simplest nervous system occurs in platyhelminthes.

In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:61

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Messenger RNA capping. polyadenylation and splicing are coupled to transcription in eukaryotes.
Statement II: Transcription and translation are compartmentalized in prokaryotes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:62

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Transduction is virus-mediated bacterial DNA-recombination.
Statement II: Transduction is also used for bacterial gene linkage and gene mapping studies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:63

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter the citric acid cycle or combine with each other to form ketone bodies.
Statement II: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter glycolysis or combine to form glucose.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:64

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:65

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Spleen participates in the immune response against blood-borne pathogens.
Statement II: The lymph node is a highly specialized primary lymphoid organ.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:66

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Parthenogenesis plays an important role in social organization in colonies of certain bees, wasps. and ants.
Statement II: In bees, large number of males (drones) are produced parthenogenetically, whereas sterile female workers and reproductive females (queens) are produced sexually.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:67

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A circadian rhythm cannot be entrained.
Statement II: Hormone melatonin regulates circadian rhythums.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:68

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:69

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:70

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:71

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:72

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:73

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:74

Match List I with List II      (DROP)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:75

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:76

Arrange the steps involved in cloning of gene into plasmid:
A. Selection of confirmation of recombinant clones
B. Ligation of the gene of interest and plasmid
C. Amplification of the gene of interest using template DNA
D. Transformation of bacterium using the recombinant plasmid
E. Restriction endonuclease treatment of the suitable plasmid and gene of interest.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:77

The flow of water in syconoid type of water canal system in sponges follows the course of:
A. Osculum
B. Spongocoel
C. Radial canals
D. Incurrent canals
E. Dermal Ostia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:78

Choose the correct sequence involved in transcription and translation process in eukaryotes:
A. mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribosome in cytosol
B. RNA processing
C. Transcription
D. Peptic bond formation between amino acids
E. Ribosome assembly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:79

Identify the sequence in the mechanism of local inflanımatory response:
A. Presence of pathogen at the site of injury
B. Capillaries widen and become more permeable
C. Most cells release histamines
D. Entry of anti-microbial peptides at the site of injury
E. Signals released by immune cells, attract neutrophills which digest the pathogen and heals the tissue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:80

Arrange the following toxonomic categories from lower to higher level:
A. Family
B. Class
C. Kingdom
D. Order
E. Species

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:81

There are both excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. The inhibitory neurotransmitters from the following are:
A. Glycine
B. γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C. Norepinephrine
D. Taurine
E. Glutamate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:82

Following are the characteristics of Mollusc's:
A. Mollusc's are protostomes, have coelom reduced to cavities surrounding heart. nephridia and gonads.
B. Mollusc's members possess a head-foot, visceral mass. mantle and mantle cavity.
C. The rasping organ consists of muscular belt with rows of posteriorly curved teeth.
D. The molluscan body form in the cephalopoda undergoes a 180° anti-clockwise twisting of visceral mass.
E. Protostome characteristics for molluscs also include trocophore larvae spiral cleavage and schizococelous coelom formation.

Choose the set with correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:83

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:84

Teratogens are:
A. Environmental compounds that can alter development. B. Act at specific times when certain organs are farming.
C. The teratogen class includes drugs, chemicals, viruses and radiations.
D. Heavy metals such as zinc are teratogens but lead and mercury are not considered as teratogens.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:85

Proteins can be separated according to size by following techniques except:
A. Isoelectric focusing
B. SDS-PAGE
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Molecular exclusion chromatography

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:86

The following statements are associated with human female reproductive physiology.
A. The uterine cycle during menstruation includes follicular phase, ovulation and luteal phase.
B. The degeneration of corpus luteum is called luteolysis.
C. An increase in plasma progesterone level synchronises with the luteal phase.
D. After oocyte maturation, ovulation takes place.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:87

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: During gel electrophoresis. DNA moves from anode to cathode.
Reason R: DNA is negatively charged.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:88

Identify the correct statements:
A. Tumor cells differ from normal cells by changes in the regulation of growth. B. Proto-oncogenes encode defective proteins.
C. Tumor cells can display tumor-specific antigens/novel antigens.
D. Several cytokines including IFN and TNF help to mediate tumor-cell killing.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:89

Arrange the primates in order from oldest to recent in terms of evolution:
A. Old world monkeys
B. Orangutons
C. Gibbons
D. Gorillas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:90

Arrange the major thematic events of xenopus gastrulation from early to late stage.
A. Epiboly of the ectoderm around the entire embryo.
B. Extension of the body along anterior-posterior axis.
C. Formation of bottle cells and internalisation of the endoderm and mesoderm.
D. Cortical rotation and formation of grey crescent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:91

In TCA cycle, succinyl CoA synthetase is involved in the conversion of:

QUESTION ID:92

The following statements are related to sensory tissues of animals.
A. Proprioceptors are commonly called 'stretch receptors' that respond to mechanically-induced changes.
B. Certain flagellated protozoa like Euglena that contains chlorophyll possess a mass of bright red protoreceptor granules called stigma.
C. 'Neuromasts' are the primary photoreceptors in sharks, some fishes and aquatic amphibians.
D. Meissner's corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles primarily help to detect chemical stimulus in animals. E. Most reptiles possess Jacobson's (Vomeronasal) organs for olfactory reception.

Choose the set of correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:93

Autoclaving is used as a sterilisation technique. The conditions used for autoclaving are:

QUESTION ID:94

The gradient used in ultracentrifugation for fractionation of DNA is:

QUESTION ID:95

In normal cells. progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Event that occurs at G1/S checkpoint is:

QUESTION ID:96

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the GIS. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints. the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Continuously dividing cells do not exit the cell cycle but they proceed through G1, S. G2 and M phase.
Statement II: Cancer cells are unable to enter GO phase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:97

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Choose the correct statement:

QUESTION ID:98

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talır and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Western Ghats of India is one of the biodiversity hotspots.
Reason R: The criteria for categorisation as a biodiversity hotspot is high number of endemic species (at least 1500 species of vascular plants), the region must have lost 30% of its natural vegetation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:99

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Nilgiri Tahr is an:

QUESTION ID:100

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talu and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Some frogs such as poison dart frog exhibit bright coloration which serves as a warning signal for its predators. It is known as:

QUESTION ID:101

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life? 

QUESTION ID:102

Animal species should be preserved mainly because 

QUESTION ID:103

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate? 

QUESTION ID:104

Which of the following types of animals does man chiefly protect? 

QUESTION ID:105

The wild life is about to become extinct mainly because: 

QUESTION ID:106

Synonym of the word 'CELESTIAL' is: 

QUESTION ID:107

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the following options: 

India is one of the richest countries _________ the world in terms of biodiversity. Due __________ anthropogenic activities, many species have lost their habitat and even become extent. International Union _________  conservation _________ nature and natural resources has categorized with flora and fauna into eight categories. 

QUESTION ID:108

Fill in the blank with suitable word from the options given below: 

Light _________ in a straight line. 

QUESTION ID:109

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:110

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:111

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:112

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:113

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:114

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:115

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:116

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:117

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:118

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:119

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:120

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:121

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:122

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:123

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:124

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:125

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:126

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:127

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:128

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:129

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:130

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:131

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:132

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:133

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:134

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:135

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:136

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:137

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:138

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:139

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:140

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:141

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:142

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:143

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:144

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:145

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:146

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:147

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:148

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:149

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:150

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:151

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:152

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:153

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:154

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:155

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:156

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:157

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:158

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:159

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:160

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:161

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:162

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:163

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:164

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:165

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:166

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:167

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:168

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:169

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:170

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:171

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:172

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:173

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:174

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:175

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:176

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:177

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:178

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:179

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:180

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:181

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:182

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:183

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:184

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:185

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:186

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:187

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:188

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:189

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:190

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:191

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:192

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:193

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:194

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:195

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:196

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:197

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:198

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:199

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:200

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:201

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:202

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:203

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:204

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:205

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:206

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:207

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:208

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:209

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:210

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:211

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:212

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:213

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:214

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:215

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:216

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:217

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:218

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:219

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:220

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:221

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:222

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:223

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:224

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:225

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:226

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:227

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:228

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:229

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:230

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:231

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:232

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:233

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:234

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:235

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:236

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:237

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:238

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:239

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:240

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:241

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:242

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:243

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:244

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:245

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:246

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:247

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:248

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:249

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:250

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:251

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:252

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:253

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:254

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:255

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:256

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:257

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:258

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:259

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:260

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:261

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:262

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:263

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:264

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:265

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:266

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:267

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:268

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:269

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:270

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:271

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:272

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:273

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:274

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:275

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:276

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:277

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:278

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:279

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:280

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:281

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:282

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:283

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:284

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:285

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:286

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:287

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:288

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:289

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:290

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:291

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:292

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:293

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:294

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:295

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:296

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:297

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:298

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:299

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:300

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:301

Call before a court to answer a criminal charge is

QUESTION ID:302

Indictment means

QUESTION ID:303

Salience means

QUESTION ID:304

Captain Vs Generals
Pak army doesn't want to take over govt but it doesn't know how post-Imran-arrest protest will pan out
Following Imran Khan's dramatic arrest on Tuesday. Pakistan's 'polycrisis' has not only deepened but also morphed into a systemic question for that country. There can be no doubting that the manner of khan's arrest - it is the paramilitary Rangers that picked him up from the premises of the Islamabad high court was meant to send out a clear message to the former Pakistani PM: that he had crossed a red line by repeatedly pointing fingers at Pakistan's military-security establishment. But Khan has emerged as the most popular Pakistani leader in over a decade. And his refusal to play by the army's hybrid regime playbook has brought Pakistan to an inflection point.
As protests by Khan's PTI supporters spread, the hybrid regime is facing its sternest test. By all accounts the Shehbaz Sharif government wants to delay national polls scheduled for later this year.. It hopes this will take the wind out of Khan's political sails as cases pile up against him-the latest being the indictment in the Toshakhana case. But if the protests sustain. army chief Asim Munir would be forced to make a tough choice either directly step in and take control or put at risk the army's pre-eminent position in Pakistani society. The generals have played the role of Pakistan's stabiliser for decades, notwithstanding messy outcomes.
However, another military takeover would be tricky today's geopolitical climate. Pakistan's salience in international politics has rapidly declined over the last decade, particularly after the US withdrawal from Afghanistan. True, china is still a benefactor through its CPEC projects. But that closely tracks Beijing's strategic and mercantilist interests. Therefore, without US backing. a Pakistan under generals would likely be shut out from IMF bailouts its dysfunctional economy needs desperately - forex reserves are still paltry, inflation is climbing and there's widespread general hardship.
Thus, General Munir will try his best to sustain the hybrid regime. He may even choose to allow the protests to continue till calls for more robust intervention arise. But popular movements are unpredictable. While we are not there yet. India should watch out for cracks in the Pakistani military establishment. Pakistan in utter chaos is not good news for India.

Pakistan's prominence in world politics declined gradually. The facts which are true regarding this are:
A. Over the last decade.
B. After the US withdrawal from Afghanistan.
C. Pakistan was never prominent in world politics.
D. China is a benefactor of this declination stated above.

QUESTION ID:305

Captain Vs Generals
Pak army doesn't want to take over govt but it doesn't know how post-Imran-arrest protest will pan out
Following Imran Khan's dramatic arrest on Tuesday. Pakistan's 'polycrisis' has not only deepened but also morphed into a systemic question for that country. There can be no doubting that the manner of khan's arrest - it is the paramilitary Rangers that picked him up from the premises of the Islamabad high court was meant to send out a clear message to the former Pakistani PM: that he had crossed a red line by repeatedly pointing fingers at Pakistan's military-security establishment. But Khan has emerged as the most popular Pakistani leader in over a decade. And his refusal to play by the army's hybrid regime playbook has brought Pakistan to an inflection point.
As protests by Khan's PTI supporters spread, the hybrid regime is facing its sternest test. By all accounts the Shehbaz Sharif government wants to delay national polls scheduled for later this year.. It hopes this will take the wind out of Khan's political sails as cases pile up against him-the latest being the indictment in the Toshakhana case. But if the protests sustain. army chief Asim Munir would be forced to make a tough choice either directly step in and take control or put at risk the army's pre-eminent position in Pakistani society. The generals have played the role of Pakistan's stabiliser for decades, notwithstanding messy outcomes.
However, another military takeover would be tricky today's geopolitical climate. Pakistan's salience in international politics has rapidly declined over the last decade, particularly after the US withdrawal from Afghanistan. True, china is still a benefactor through its CPEC projects. But that closely tracks Beijing's strategic and mercantilist interests. Therefore, without US backing. a Pakistan under generals would likely be shut out from IMF bailouts its dysfunctional economy needs desperately - forex reserves are still paltry, inflation is climbing and there's widespread general hardship.
Thus, General Munir will try his best to sustain the hybrid regime. He may even choose to allow the protests to continue till calls for more robust intervention arise. But popular movements are unpredictable. While we are not there yet. India should watch out for cracks in the Pakistani military establishment. Pakistan in utter chaos is not good news for India.

Asim Munir would be forced to make:
A. A tough choice.
B. choice of directly stepping in and taking control.
C. choice to put at risk the army's pre-eminent position in pakistani society.
D. To stop china from taking advantage in CPEC projects.

QUESTION ID:306

Right-wingers believe that ceasefire is no solution to Kashmir problem. We must have the will to __________

QUESTION ID:307

Choose the appropriate one word substitute for:

A person who shows selfless concern for the well-being and happiness of others

QUESTION ID:308

My great uncle's gift of several lakh rupees was enough to AMELIORATE my financial condition. Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters

QUESTION ID:309

Choose the grammatically correct sentence:

QUESTION ID:310

choose the correctly spelt word from the given options

QUESTION ID:311

If a:b=3:5, then (-a²+b²):(a²+b²) is:

QUESTION ID:312


QUESTION ID:313

Instead of walking along two adjacent sides of a rectangular field, a boy took a short-cut along the diagonal of the field and saved a distance equal to half of the longer side. Find the ratio of the length of the shorter side to that of the longer side of the field.

QUESTION ID:314

By selling an electric iron for ₹700. a shopkeeper incurred a loss of 30%. At what price should he have sold the electric iron to gain 40%?

QUESTION ID:315

A water tank can be filled by two pipes P and Q in 60 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the empty tank if pipes P and Q are opened for first half of the time. after which only pipe Q is opened for next half of the time?

QUESTION ID:316

If AMAN equals 79, then HAPPY=?

QUESTION ID:317

Answer the question by using the below mentioned statement and conclusions.

Statement: All teachers are student
Some students are girls

Conclusions:- I. All teachers are girls.
II. Some girls are teachers.
III. Some girls are student.

QUESTION ID:318

Choose the correct alternative that will complete the pattern 0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13, ?

QUESTION ID:319

Manoj is taller than Sam but shorter than Rakesh. Rakesh is taller than Rohit but shorter than Govind. If Sam is taller than Rohit, then who is the shortest among all?

QUESTION ID:320

Introducing a man to her husband, a woman said. "His sister's father is the only son of my grandfather". How is the woman related to this man?

QUESTION ID:321

'Chor Minar' in the Hauzkhas of Delhi was constructed by

QUESTION ID:322

Match List I with List II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:323

'Jhuming' is a type of

QUESTION ID:324

A. The speed of sound is maximum in gases and minimum in solids.
B. The speed of sound remains unchanged by increase or decrease of pressure.
C. The speed of sound increases with increase of temperature of the medium.
D. The speed of sound is less in humid air than in dry air.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:325

Which music composer of India has won the prestigious Grammy Awards 2023?

QUESTION ID:326

Which of the following enzymes introduce negative supercoiling in prokaryotic DNA?

QUESTION ID:327

To detect infection of SARS-CoV2 in humans, RT-PCR technique is used to quantify:

QUESTION ID:328

Which cell organelle is involved in the synthesis of glycosphingolipids and glycoproteins inside the cell?

QUESTION ID:329

Actinomycin D inhibits:

QUESTION ID:330

Which of the following event occurs during the Diplonema Diplotene stage of meiosis?

QUESTION ID:331

The anti-parallel nature of double standard DNA is due to:

QUESTION ID:332

All human antibody types possess a proline-rich flexible 'hinge region' except:

QUESTION ID:333

The drug Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of:

QUESTION ID:334

Neuroglia found in peripheral nervous system (PNS) contains the following cells:

QUESTION ID:335

Hyaluronic acid is composed of:

QUESTION ID:336

Separation of two different alleles from each other during gamete formation in a heterozygote follows:

QUESTION ID:337

A lizard like reptile which is considered as a "Living fossil" is:

QUESTION ID:338

The world's only floating national park is situated in:

QUESTION ID:339

Calculate the value of median from the given data:

2.90, 3.57, 3.73, 2.98, 3.64, 3.75
3.30, 3.62, 3.76, 3.38, 3.66, 3.76

QUESTION ID:340

In the course of evolution. first horses appeared in which period?

QUESTION ID:341

Teak is a dominant tree species of which of the following types of forests in India?

QUESTION ID:342

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Food chains are short.
Reason R: There is a loss of 10% of energy at each trophic level

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:343

Which is the correct sequence of events in urine formation?

QUESTION ID:344

All of the following are amniotes except:

QUESTION ID:345

The first definitive evidence for the chromosomal theory of inheritance was provided by:

QUESTION ID:346

Carina is:

QUESTION ID:347

The egg of birds and fishes have only one small area which is free of yolk and where division takes place. Such an egg is known as:

QUESTION ID:348

Which of the hominins first migrated out of Africa?

QUESTION ID:349

The ribozyme that catalyses peptide bond formation during prokaryotic protein synthesis is:

QUESTION ID:350

Cosmid vector is made up of:

QUESTION ID:351

A population has 600 individuals. 150 of genotype AA. 300 of genotype Aa and 150 of genotype aa. What is the frequency of allele A?

QUESTION ID:352

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:353

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scurvy is a disease due to deficiency of Vitamin C.
Reason R: Scurvy is characterised by long digits and extensibility of joints.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:354

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The wing of a bird, forelimb of human and forelimb of lizard are homologous.
Reason R: Organ's underlying similarity arises due to their derivation from common ancestors.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:355

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scaffolding proteins are non-histone chromosomal proteins.
Reason R: Scaffolding proteins are abundant in lysine and Arginine.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:356

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Treatment of immunoglobulin IgG with ẞ-mercaptoethanol gives rise to two heavy chains and two light chains peptides on SDS-PAGE.
Reason R: ẞ-mercaptoethanol breaks peptide bond at the site of disulphide linkage.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:357

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Monkeys and chimpanzees cannot mate in present day conditions.
Reason R: Reproductive isolation is reversible.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:358

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with antibiotic resistance.
Reason R: Plasmodium is dependent on Hexose monophosphate shunt and reduced glutathione for their optimum growth in RBCs.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:359

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Salamanders belong to order Apoda of class Amphibia.
Reason R: The order Apoda of class Amphibia includes elongated, limbless and burrowing creatures.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:360

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Sponges are the only major phylum that lack nerves.
Statement II: The simplest nervous system occurs in platyhelminthes.

In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:361

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Messenger RNA capping. polyadenylation and splicing are coupled to transcription in eukaryotes.
Statement II: Transcription and translation are compartmentalized in prokaryotes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:362

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Transduction is virus-mediated bacterial DNA-recombination.
Statement II: Transduction is also used for bacterial gene linkage and gene mapping studies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:363

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter the citric acid cycle or combine with each other to form ketone bodies.
Statement II: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter glycolysis or combine to form glucose.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:364

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:365

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Spleen participates in the immune response against blood-borne pathogens.
Statement II: The lymph node is a highly specialized primary lymphoid organ.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:366

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Parthenogenesis plays an important role in social organization in colonies of certain bees, wasps. and ants.
Statement II: In bees, large number of males (drones) are produced parthenogenetically, whereas sterile female workers and reproductive females (queens) are produced sexually.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:367

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A circadian rhythm cannot be entrained.
Statement II: Hormone melatonin regulates circadian rhythums.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:368

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:369

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:370

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:371

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:372

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:373

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:374

Match List I with List II      (DROP)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:375

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:376

Arrange the steps involved in cloning of gene into plasmid:
A. Selection of confirmation of recombinant clones
B. Ligation of the gene of interest and plasmid
C. Amplification of the gene of interest using template DNA
D. Transformation of bacterium using the recombinant plasmid
E. Restriction endonuclease treatment of the suitable plasmid and gene of interest.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:377

The flow of water in syconoid type of water canal system in sponges follows the course of:
A. Osculum
B. Spongocoel
C. Radial canals
D. Incurrent canals
E. Dermal Ostia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:378

Choose the correct sequence involved in transcription and translation process in eukaryotes:
A. mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribosome in cytosol
B. RNA processing
C. Transcription
D. Peptic bond formation between amino acids
E. Ribosome assembly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:379

Identify the sequence in the mechanism of local inflanımatory response:
A. Presence of pathogen at the site of injury
B. Capillaries widen and become more permeable
C. Most cells release histamines
D. Entry of anti-microbial peptides at the site of injury
E. Signals released by immune cells, attract neutrophills which digest the pathogen and heals the tissue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:380

Arrange the following toxonomic categories from lower to higher level:
A. Family
B. Class
C. Kingdom
D. Order
E. Species

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:381

There are both excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. The inhibitory neurotransmitters from the following are:
A. Glycine
B. γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C. Norepinephrine
D. Taurine
E. Glutamate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:382

Following are the characteristics of Mollusc's:
A. Mollusc's are protostomes, have coelom reduced to cavities surrounding heart. nephridia and gonads.
B. Mollusc's members possess a head-foot, visceral mass. mantle and mantle cavity.
C. The rasping organ consists of muscular belt with rows of posteriorly curved teeth.
D. The molluscan body form in the cephalopoda undergoes a 180° anti-clockwise twisting of visceral mass.
E. Protostome characteristics for molluscs also include trocophore larvae spiral cleavage and schizococelous coelom formation.

Choose the set with correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:383

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:384

Teratogens are:
A. Environmental compounds that can alter development. B. Act at specific times when certain organs are farming.
C. The teratogen class includes drugs, chemicals, viruses and radiations.
D. Heavy metals such as zinc are teratogens but lead and mercury are not considered as teratogens.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:385

Proteins can be separated according to size by following techniques except:
A. Isoelectric focusing
B. SDS-PAGE
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Molecular exclusion chromatography

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:386

The following statements are associated with human female reproductive physiology.
A. The uterine cycle during menstruation includes follicular phase, ovulation and luteal phase.
B. The degeneration of corpus luteum is called luteolysis.
C. An increase in plasma progesterone level synchronises with the luteal phase.
D. After oocyte maturation, ovulation takes place.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:387

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: During gel electrophoresis. DNA moves from anode to cathode.
Reason R: DNA is negatively charged.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:388

Identify the correct statements:
A. Tumor cells differ from normal cells by changes in the regulation of growth. B. Proto-oncogenes encode defective proteins.
C. Tumor cells can display tumor-specific antigens/novel antigens.
D. Several cytokines including IFN and TNF help to mediate tumor-cell killing.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:389

Arrange the primates in order from oldest to recent in terms of evolution:
A. Old world monkeys
B. Orangutons
C. Gibbons
D. Gorillas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:390

Arrange the major thematic events of xenopus gastrulation from early to late stage.
A. Epiboly of the ectoderm around the entire embryo.
B. Extension of the body along anterior-posterior axis.
C. Formation of bottle cells and internalisation of the endoderm and mesoderm.
D. Cortical rotation and formation of grey crescent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:391

In TCA cycle, succinyl CoA synthetase is involved in the conversion of:

QUESTION ID:392

The following statements are related to sensory tissues of animals.
A. Proprioceptors are commonly called 'stretch receptors' that respond to mechanically-induced changes.
B. Certain flagellated protozoa like Euglena that contains chlorophyll possess a mass of bright red protoreceptor granules called stigma.
C. 'Neuromasts' are the primary photoreceptors in sharks, some fishes and aquatic amphibians.
D. Meissner's corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles primarily help to detect chemical stimulus in animals. E. Most reptiles possess Jacobson's (Vomeronasal) organs for olfactory reception.

Choose the set of correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:393

Autoclaving is used as a sterilisation technique. The conditions used for autoclaving are:

QUESTION ID:394

The gradient used in ultracentrifugation for fractionation of DNA is:

QUESTION ID:395

In normal cells. progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Event that occurs at G1/S checkpoint is:

QUESTION ID:396

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the GIS. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints. the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Continuously dividing cells do not exit the cell cycle but they proceed through G1, S. G2 and M phase.
Statement II: Cancer cells are unable to enter GO phase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:397

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Choose the correct statement:

QUESTION ID:398

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talır and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Western Ghats of India is one of the biodiversity hotspots.
Reason R: The criteria for categorisation as a biodiversity hotspot is high number of endemic species (at least 1500 species of vascular plants), the region must have lost 30% of its natural vegetation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:399

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Nilgiri Tahr is an:

QUESTION ID:400

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talu and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Some frogs such as poison dart frog exhibit bright coloration which serves as a warning signal for its predators. It is known as:

QUESTION ID:401

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life? 

QUESTION ID:402

Animal species should be preserved mainly because 

QUESTION ID:403

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate? 

QUESTION ID:404

Which of the following types of animals does man chiefly protect? 

QUESTION ID:405

The wild life is about to become extinct mainly because: 

QUESTION ID:406

Synonym of the word 'CELESTIAL' is: 

QUESTION ID:407

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the following options: 

India is one of the richest countries _________ the world in terms of biodiversity. Due __________ anthropogenic activities, many species have lost their habitat and even become extent. International Union _________  conservation _________ nature and natural resources has categorized with flora and fauna into eight categories. 

QUESTION ID:408

Fill in the blank with suitable word from the options given below: 

Light _________ in a straight line. 

QUESTION ID:409

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:410

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:411

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:412

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:413

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:414

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:415

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:416

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:417

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:418

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:419

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:420

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:421

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:422

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:423

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:424

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:425

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:426

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:427

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:428

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:429

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:430

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:431

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:432

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:433

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:434

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:435

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:436

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:437

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:438

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:439

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:440

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:441

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:442

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:443

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:444

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:445

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:446

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:447

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:448

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:449

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:450

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:451

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:452

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:453

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:454

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:455

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:456

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:457

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:458

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:459

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:460

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:461

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:462

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:463

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:464

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:465

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:466

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:467

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:468

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:469

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:470

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:471

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:472

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:473

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:474

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:475

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:476

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:477

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:478

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:479

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:480

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:481

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:482

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:483

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:484

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:485

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:486

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:487

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:488

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:489

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:490

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:491

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:492

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:493

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:494

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:495

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:496

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:497

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:498

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:499

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:500

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:501

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:502

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:503

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:504

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:505

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:506

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:507

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:508

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:509

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:510

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:511

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:512

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:513

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:514

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:515

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:516

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:517

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:518

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:519

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:520

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:521

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:522

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:523

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:524

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:525

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:526

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:527

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:528

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:529

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:530

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:531

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:532

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:533

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:534

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:535

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:536

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:537

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:538

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:539

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:540

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:541

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:542

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:543

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:544

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:545

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:546

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:547

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:548

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:549

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:550

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:551

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:552

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:553

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:554

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:555

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:556

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:557

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:558

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:559

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:560

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:561

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:562

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:563

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:564

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:565

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:566

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:567

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:568

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:569

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:570

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:571

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:572

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:573

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:574

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:575

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:576

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:577

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:578

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:579

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:580

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:581

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:582

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:583

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:584

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:585

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:586

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:587

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:588

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:589

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:590

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:591

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:592

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:593

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:594

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:595

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:596

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:597

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:598

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:599

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:600

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:601

Call before a court to answer a criminal charge is

QUESTION ID:602

Indictment means

QUESTION ID:603

Salience means

QUESTION ID:604

Captain Vs Generals
Pak army doesn't want to take over govt but it doesn't know how post-Imran-arrest protest will pan out
Following Imran Khan's dramatic arrest on Tuesday. Pakistan's 'polycrisis' has not only deepened but also morphed into a systemic question for that country. There can be no doubting that the manner of khan's arrest - it is the paramilitary Rangers that picked him up from the premises of the Islamabad high court was meant to send out a clear message to the former Pakistani PM: that he had crossed a red line by repeatedly pointing fingers at Pakistan's military-security establishment. But Khan has emerged as the most popular Pakistani leader in over a decade. And his refusal to play by the army's hybrid regime playbook has brought Pakistan to an inflection point.
As protests by Khan's PTI supporters spread, the hybrid regime is facing its sternest test. By all accounts the Shehbaz Sharif government wants to delay national polls scheduled for later this year.. It hopes this will take the wind out of Khan's political sails as cases pile up against him-the latest being the indictment in the Toshakhana case. But if the protests sustain. army chief Asim Munir would be forced to make a tough choice either directly step in and take control or put at risk the army's pre-eminent position in Pakistani society. The generals have played the role of Pakistan's stabiliser for decades, notwithstanding messy outcomes.
However, another military takeover would be tricky today's geopolitical climate. Pakistan's salience in international politics has rapidly declined over the last decade, particularly after the US withdrawal from Afghanistan. True, china is still a benefactor through its CPEC projects. But that closely tracks Beijing's strategic and mercantilist interests. Therefore, without US backing. a Pakistan under generals would likely be shut out from IMF bailouts its dysfunctional economy needs desperately - forex reserves are still paltry, inflation is climbing and there's widespread general hardship.
Thus, General Munir will try his best to sustain the hybrid regime. He may even choose to allow the protests to continue till calls for more robust intervention arise. But popular movements are unpredictable. While we are not there yet. India should watch out for cracks in the Pakistani military establishment. Pakistan in utter chaos is not good news for India.

Pakistan's prominence in world politics declined gradually. The facts which are true regarding this are:
A. Over the last decade.
B. After the US withdrawal from Afghanistan.
C. Pakistan was never prominent in world politics.
D. China is a benefactor of this declination stated above.

QUESTION ID:605

Captain Vs Generals
Pak army doesn't want to take over govt but it doesn't know how post-Imran-arrest protest will pan out
Following Imran Khan's dramatic arrest on Tuesday. Pakistan's 'polycrisis' has not only deepened but also morphed into a systemic question for that country. There can be no doubting that the manner of khan's arrest - it is the paramilitary Rangers that picked him up from the premises of the Islamabad high court was meant to send out a clear message to the former Pakistani PM: that he had crossed a red line by repeatedly pointing fingers at Pakistan's military-security establishment. But Khan has emerged as the most popular Pakistani leader in over a decade. And his refusal to play by the army's hybrid regime playbook has brought Pakistan to an inflection point.
As protests by Khan's PTI supporters spread, the hybrid regime is facing its sternest test. By all accounts the Shehbaz Sharif government wants to delay national polls scheduled for later this year.. It hopes this will take the wind out of Khan's political sails as cases pile up against him-the latest being the indictment in the Toshakhana case. But if the protests sustain. army chief Asim Munir would be forced to make a tough choice either directly step in and take control or put at risk the army's pre-eminent position in Pakistani society. The generals have played the role of Pakistan's stabiliser for decades, notwithstanding messy outcomes.
However, another military takeover would be tricky today's geopolitical climate. Pakistan's salience in international politics has rapidly declined over the last decade, particularly after the US withdrawal from Afghanistan. True, china is still a benefactor through its CPEC projects. But that closely tracks Beijing's strategic and mercantilist interests. Therefore, without US backing. a Pakistan under generals would likely be shut out from IMF bailouts its dysfunctional economy needs desperately - forex reserves are still paltry, inflation is climbing and there's widespread general hardship.
Thus, General Munir will try his best to sustain the hybrid regime. He may even choose to allow the protests to continue till calls for more robust intervention arise. But popular movements are unpredictable. While we are not there yet. India should watch out for cracks in the Pakistani military establishment. Pakistan in utter chaos is not good news for India.

Asim Munir would be forced to make:
A. A tough choice.
B. choice of directly stepping in and taking control.
C. choice to put at risk the army's pre-eminent position in pakistani society.
D. To stop china from taking advantage in CPEC projects.

QUESTION ID:606

Right-wingers believe that ceasefire is no solution to Kashmir problem. We must have the will to __________

QUESTION ID:607

Choose the appropriate one word substitute for:

A person who shows selfless concern for the well-being and happiness of others

QUESTION ID:608

My great uncle's gift of several lakh rupees was enough to AMELIORATE my financial condition. Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters

QUESTION ID:609

Choose the grammatically correct sentence:

QUESTION ID:610

choose the correctly spelt word from the given options

QUESTION ID:611

If a:b=3:5, then (-a²+b²):(a²+b²) is:

QUESTION ID:612


QUESTION ID:613

Instead of walking along two adjacent sides of a rectangular field, a boy took a short-cut along the diagonal of the field and saved a distance equal to half of the longer side. Find the ratio of the length of the shorter side to that of the longer side of the field.

QUESTION ID:614

By selling an electric iron for ₹700. a shopkeeper incurred a loss of 30%. At what price should he have sold the electric iron to gain 40%?

QUESTION ID:615

A water tank can be filled by two pipes P and Q in 60 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the empty tank if pipes P and Q are opened for first half of the time. after which only pipe Q is opened for next half of the time?

QUESTION ID:616

If AMAN equals 79, then HAPPY=?

QUESTION ID:617

Answer the question by using the below mentioned statement and conclusions.

Statement: All teachers are student
Some students are girls

Conclusions:- I. All teachers are girls.
II. Some girls are teachers.
III. Some girls are student.

QUESTION ID:618

Choose the correct alternative that will complete the pattern 0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13, ?

QUESTION ID:619

Manoj is taller than Sam but shorter than Rakesh. Rakesh is taller than Rohit but shorter than Govind. If Sam is taller than Rohit, then who is the shortest among all?

QUESTION ID:620

Introducing a man to her husband, a woman said. "His sister's father is the only son of my grandfather". How is the woman related to this man?

QUESTION ID:621

'Chor Minar' in the Hauzkhas of Delhi was constructed by

QUESTION ID:622

Match List I with List II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:623

'Jhuming' is a type of

QUESTION ID:624

A. The speed of sound is maximum in gases and minimum in solids.
B. The speed of sound remains unchanged by increase or decrease of pressure.
C. The speed of sound increases with increase of temperature of the medium.
D. The speed of sound is less in humid air than in dry air.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:625

Which music composer of India has won the prestigious Grammy Awards 2023?

QUESTION ID:626

Which of the following enzymes introduce negative supercoiling in prokaryotic DNA?

QUESTION ID:627

To detect infection of SARS-CoV2 in humans, RT-PCR technique is used to quantify:

QUESTION ID:628

Which cell organelle is involved in the synthesis of glycosphingolipids and glycoproteins inside the cell?

QUESTION ID:629

Actinomycin D inhibits:

QUESTION ID:630

Which of the following event occurs during the Diplonema Diplotene stage of meiosis?

QUESTION ID:631

The anti-parallel nature of double standard DNA is due to:

QUESTION ID:632

All human antibody types possess a proline-rich flexible 'hinge region' except:

QUESTION ID:633

The drug Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of:

QUESTION ID:634

Neuroglia found in peripheral nervous system (PNS) contains the following cells:

QUESTION ID:635

Hyaluronic acid is composed of:

QUESTION ID:636

Separation of two different alleles from each other during gamete formation in a heterozygote follows:

QUESTION ID:637

A lizard like reptile which is considered as a "Living fossil" is:

QUESTION ID:638

The world's only floating national park is situated in:

QUESTION ID:639

Calculate the value of median from the given data:

2.90, 3.57, 3.73, 2.98, 3.64, 3.75
3.30, 3.62, 3.76, 3.38, 3.66, 3.76

QUESTION ID:640

In the course of evolution. first horses appeared in which period?

QUESTION ID:641

Teak is a dominant tree species of which of the following types of forests in India?

QUESTION ID:642

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Food chains are short.
Reason R: There is a loss of 10% of energy at each trophic level

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:643

Which is the correct sequence of events in urine formation?

QUESTION ID:644

All of the following are amniotes except:

QUESTION ID:645

The first definitive evidence for the chromosomal theory of inheritance was provided by:

QUESTION ID:646

Carina is:

QUESTION ID:647

The egg of birds and fishes have only one small area which is free of yolk and where division takes place. Such an egg is known as:

QUESTION ID:648

Which of the hominins first migrated out of Africa?

QUESTION ID:649

The ribozyme that catalyses peptide bond formation during prokaryotic protein synthesis is:

QUESTION ID:650

Cosmid vector is made up of:

QUESTION ID:651

A population has 600 individuals. 150 of genotype AA. 300 of genotype Aa and 150 of genotype aa. What is the frequency of allele A?

QUESTION ID:652

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:653

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scurvy is a disease due to deficiency of Vitamin C.
Reason R: Scurvy is characterised by long digits and extensibility of joints.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:654

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The wing of a bird, forelimb of human and forelimb of lizard are homologous.
Reason R: Organ's underlying similarity arises due to their derivation from common ancestors.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:655

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scaffolding proteins are non-histone chromosomal proteins.
Reason R: Scaffolding proteins are abundant in lysine and Arginine.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:656

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Treatment of immunoglobulin IgG with ẞ-mercaptoethanol gives rise to two heavy chains and two light chains peptides on SDS-PAGE.
Reason R: ẞ-mercaptoethanol breaks peptide bond at the site of disulphide linkage.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:657

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Monkeys and chimpanzees cannot mate in present day conditions.
Reason R: Reproductive isolation is reversible.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:658

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with antibiotic resistance.
Reason R: Plasmodium is dependent on Hexose monophosphate shunt and reduced glutathione for their optimum growth in RBCs.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:659

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Salamanders belong to order Apoda of class Amphibia.
Reason R: The order Apoda of class Amphibia includes elongated, limbless and burrowing creatures.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:660

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Sponges are the only major phylum that lack nerves.
Statement II: The simplest nervous system occurs in platyhelminthes.

In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:661

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Messenger RNA capping. polyadenylation and splicing are coupled to transcription in eukaryotes.
Statement II: Transcription and translation are compartmentalized in prokaryotes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:662

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Transduction is virus-mediated bacterial DNA-recombination.
Statement II: Transduction is also used for bacterial gene linkage and gene mapping studies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:663

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter the citric acid cycle or combine with each other to form ketone bodies.
Statement II: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter glycolysis or combine to form glucose.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:664

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:665

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Spleen participates in the immune response against blood-borne pathogens.
Statement II: The lymph node is a highly specialized primary lymphoid organ.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:666

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Parthenogenesis plays an important role in social organization in colonies of certain bees, wasps. and ants.
Statement II: In bees, large number of males (drones) are produced parthenogenetically, whereas sterile female workers and reproductive females (queens) are produced sexually.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:667

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A circadian rhythm cannot be entrained.
Statement II: Hormone melatonin regulates circadian rhythums.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:668

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:669

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:670

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:671

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:672

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:673

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:674

Match List I with List II      (DROP)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:675

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:676

Arrange the steps involved in cloning of gene into plasmid:
A. Selection of confirmation of recombinant clones
B. Ligation of the gene of interest and plasmid
C. Amplification of the gene of interest using template DNA
D. Transformation of bacterium using the recombinant plasmid
E. Restriction endonuclease treatment of the suitable plasmid and gene of interest.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:677

The flow of water in syconoid type of water canal system in sponges follows the course of:
A. Osculum
B. Spongocoel
C. Radial canals
D. Incurrent canals
E. Dermal Ostia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:678

Choose the correct sequence involved in transcription and translation process in eukaryotes:
A. mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribosome in cytosol
B. RNA processing
C. Transcription
D. Peptic bond formation between amino acids
E. Ribosome assembly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:679

Identify the sequence in the mechanism of local inflanımatory response:
A. Presence of pathogen at the site of injury
B. Capillaries widen and become more permeable
C. Most cells release histamines
D. Entry of anti-microbial peptides at the site of injury
E. Signals released by immune cells, attract neutrophills which digest the pathogen and heals the tissue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:680

Arrange the following toxonomic categories from lower to higher level:
A. Family
B. Class
C. Kingdom
D. Order
E. Species

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:681

There are both excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. The inhibitory neurotransmitters from the following are:
A. Glycine
B. γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C. Norepinephrine
D. Taurine
E. Glutamate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:682

Following are the characteristics of Mollusc's:
A. Mollusc's are protostomes, have coelom reduced to cavities surrounding heart. nephridia and gonads.
B. Mollusc's members possess a head-foot, visceral mass. mantle and mantle cavity.
C. The rasping organ consists of muscular belt with rows of posteriorly curved teeth.
D. The molluscan body form in the cephalopoda undergoes a 180° anti-clockwise twisting of visceral mass.
E. Protostome characteristics for molluscs also include trocophore larvae spiral cleavage and schizococelous coelom formation.

Choose the set with correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:683

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:684

Teratogens are:
A. Environmental compounds that can alter development. B. Act at specific times when certain organs are farming.
C. The teratogen class includes drugs, chemicals, viruses and radiations.
D. Heavy metals such as zinc are teratogens but lead and mercury are not considered as teratogens.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:685

Proteins can be separated according to size by following techniques except:
A. Isoelectric focusing
B. SDS-PAGE
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Molecular exclusion chromatography

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:686

The following statements are associated with human female reproductive physiology.
A. The uterine cycle during menstruation includes follicular phase, ovulation and luteal phase.
B. The degeneration of corpus luteum is called luteolysis.
C. An increase in plasma progesterone level synchronises with the luteal phase.
D. After oocyte maturation, ovulation takes place.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:687

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: During gel electrophoresis. DNA moves from anode to cathode.
Reason R: DNA is negatively charged.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:688

Identify the correct statements:
A. Tumor cells differ from normal cells by changes in the regulation of growth. B. Proto-oncogenes encode defective proteins.
C. Tumor cells can display tumor-specific antigens/novel antigens.
D. Several cytokines including IFN and TNF help to mediate tumor-cell killing.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:689

Arrange the primates in order from oldest to recent in terms of evolution:
A. Old world monkeys
B. Orangutons
C. Gibbons
D. Gorillas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:690

Arrange the major thematic events of xenopus gastrulation from early to late stage.
A. Epiboly of the ectoderm around the entire embryo.
B. Extension of the body along anterior-posterior axis.
C. Formation of bottle cells and internalisation of the endoderm and mesoderm.
D. Cortical rotation and formation of grey crescent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:691

In TCA cycle, succinyl CoA synthetase is involved in the conversion of:

QUESTION ID:692

The following statements are related to sensory tissues of animals.
A. Proprioceptors are commonly called 'stretch receptors' that respond to mechanically-induced changes.
B. Certain flagellated protozoa like Euglena that contains chlorophyll possess a mass of bright red protoreceptor granules called stigma.
C. 'Neuromasts' are the primary photoreceptors in sharks, some fishes and aquatic amphibians.
D. Meissner's corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles primarily help to detect chemical stimulus in animals. E. Most reptiles possess Jacobson's (Vomeronasal) organs for olfactory reception.

Choose the set of correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:693

Autoclaving is used as a sterilisation technique. The conditions used for autoclaving are:

QUESTION ID:694

The gradient used in ultracentrifugation for fractionation of DNA is:

QUESTION ID:695

In normal cells. progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Event that occurs at G1/S checkpoint is:

QUESTION ID:696

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the GIS. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints. the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Continuously dividing cells do not exit the cell cycle but they proceed through G1, S. G2 and M phase.
Statement II: Cancer cells are unable to enter GO phase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:697

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Choose the correct statement:

QUESTION ID:698

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talır and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Western Ghats of India is one of the biodiversity hotspots.
Reason R: The criteria for categorisation as a biodiversity hotspot is high number of endemic species (at least 1500 species of vascular plants), the region must have lost 30% of its natural vegetation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:699

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Nilgiri Tahr is an:

QUESTION ID:700

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talu and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Some frogs such as poison dart frog exhibit bright coloration which serves as a warning signal for its predators. It is known as:

QUESTION ID:701

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life? 

QUESTION ID:702

Animal species should be preserved mainly because 

QUESTION ID:703

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate? 

QUESTION ID:704

Which of the following types of animals does man chiefly protect? 

QUESTION ID:705

The wild life is about to become extinct mainly because: 

QUESTION ID:706

Synonym of the word 'CELESTIAL' is: 

QUESTION ID:707

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the following options: 

India is one of the richest countries _________ the world in terms of biodiversity. Due __________ anthropogenic activities, many species have lost their habitat and even become extent. International Union _________  conservation _________ nature and natural resources has categorized with flora and fauna into eight categories. 

QUESTION ID:708

Fill in the blank with suitable word from the options given below: 

Light _________ in a straight line. 

QUESTION ID:709

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:710

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:711

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:712

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:713

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:714

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:715

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:716

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:717

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:718

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:719

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:720

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:721

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:722

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:723

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:724

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:725

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:726

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:727

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:728

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:729

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:730

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:731

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:732

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:733

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:734

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:735

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:736

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:737

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:738

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:739

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:740

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:741

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:742

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:743

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:744

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:745

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:746

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:747

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:748

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:749

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:750

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:751

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:752

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:753

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:754

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:755

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:756

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:757

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:758

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:759

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:760

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:761

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:762

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:763

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:764

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:765

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:766

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:767

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:768

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:769

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:770

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:771

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:772

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:773

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:774

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:775

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:776

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:777

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:778

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:779

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:780

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:781

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:782

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:783

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:784

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:785

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:786

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:787

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:788

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:789

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:790

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:791

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:792

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:793

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:794

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:795

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:796

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:797

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:798

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:799

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:800

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:801

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:802

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:803

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:804

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:805

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:806

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:807

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:808

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:809

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:810

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:811

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:812

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:813

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:814

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:815

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:816

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:817

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:818

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:819

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:820

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:821

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:822

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:823

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:824

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:825

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:826

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:827

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:828

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:829

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:830

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:831

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:832

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:833

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:834

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:835

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:836

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:837

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:838

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:839

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:840

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:841

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:842

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:843

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:844

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:845

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:846

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:847

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:848

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:849

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:850

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:851

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:852

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:853

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:854

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:855

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:856

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:857

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:858

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:859

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:860

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:861

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:862

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:863

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:864

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:865

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:866

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:867

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:868

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:869

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:870

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:871

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:872

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:873

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:874

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:875

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:876

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:877

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:878

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:879

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:880

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:881

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:882

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:883

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:884

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:885

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:886

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:887

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:888

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:889

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:890

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:891

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:892

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:893

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:894

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:895

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:896

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:897

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:898

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:899

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:900

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :