Previous Year Questions

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QUESTION ID:1

Match LIST-I with LIST-II   

LIST-ILIST-II
A. ProtoplastI. Ability of cell to develop into a new plant
B. ExplantII. Unorganized mass of cells
C. TotipotencyIII. Naked cell
D. CallusIV. Any plant tissue used to regenerate new tissue/organ/plant in vitro
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:2

Match LIST-I with LIST-II  

LIST-ILIST-II
A. AuxinI. undifferentiated mass of cell
B. ProtoplastII. 6-Furfuryl amino purine
C. CallusIII. Indole 3 Acetic Acid
D. CytokininIV. Pectinase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:3

Match LIST-I with LIST-II  

LIST-ILIST-II
A. GynogenesisI. Callus culture
B. Culturing in liquid mediumII. Ovary culture
C. AndrogensisIII. Suspension culture
D. Culturing on agar mediumIV. Pollen culture
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:4

Which of the following will be present in the F1 multicellular embryo, derived from a cross of female plant (A) with male plant B, through "bulbosum method"?

QUESTION ID:5

Arrange the steps in PEG induced protoplast fusion in correct sequence -

A. Treatment of protoplast mixture with 28-50% PEG for 15-30 minutes.

B. Protoplast aggregation.

C. Washing of protoplast (alkaline medium pH 9-10), and high Ca2+ concentration

D. Selection of protoplasts of different strains / species.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:6

Match LIST-I with LIST-II  

LIST-I (Scientist)LIST-II (Landmark discovery)
A. Van OverbeekI. Transgenic Bt-cotton
B. WhiteII. Introduced coconut water as a media component
C. WentIII. First synthetic plant tissue culture medium
D. MonsantoIV. First plant growth hormone ie IAA
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:7

Match LIST-I with LIST-II  

LIST-ILIST-II
A. Sea weedsI. Isolation of DNA from gel.
B. Staining of DNAII. Gel electrophoresis
C. ElutionIII. Source of agarose
D. Separation of DNA fragmentsIV. Ethidium bromide
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:8

What will be the energy of one photon of light having a wavelength of 200 nm?

h=6.6×1034 Js, c=3.0×108 ms1]

QUESTION ID:9

A black body has a temperature of 4830 K. The wavelength of peak emission (
\lambda_{\text{max}}
) of the radiation emitted from it is approximately equal to

QUESTION ID:10

Identify the correct statements.

(A). Coriolis force is an apparent force.

(B). Coriolis force is maximum at the equator.

(C). Coriolis force plays an important role in wind systems on earth.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:11

The Richter's magnitude scale measures earthquakes in ________ scale.

QUESTION ID:12

Arrange the following rocks in the increasing grade of metamorphism.

(A). Phyllite

(B). Slate

(C). Gneiss

(D). Shale

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:13

The boundary between the mantle and outer core is marked by an abrupt ________ in the P-wave velocity.

QUESTION ID:14

In igneous rocks, the plutonic equivalent of basalt is

QUESTION ID:15

The crystal habit of asbestos is

QUESTION ID:16

Arrange the following minerals in the increasing order of Mohs scale of hardness.

(A). Orthoclase

(B). Fluorite

(C). Corundum

(D). Gypsum

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:17

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Mineral)List-II (Mineral Group)
(A). Muscovite(I). Garnet
(B). Actinolite(II). Amphibole
(C). Diopside(III). Mica
(D). Pyrope(IV). Pyroxene
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:18

Which of the following are examples of a sedimentary rock?

(A). Dolomite

(B). Mudstone

(C). Hornfels

(D). Slate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:19

The energy that derives the hydrological cycle on Earth comes from

QUESTION ID:20

Arrange the geologic era and periods in order starting from the oldest to the most recent one.

(A). Neoproterozoic, Precambrian

(B). Quaternary period, Cenozoic era

(C). Jurassic period, Mesozoic era

(D). Permian period, Paleozoic era

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:21

Arrange the following radiations in decreasing order of their frequencies.

(A). Microwave

(B). UV A

(C). UV B

(D). UV C

(E). Infrared

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:22

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Rocks/Minerals)List-II (Type)
(A). Quartz(I). Volcanic igneous rock
(B). Rhyolite(II). Mineral
(C). Marble(III). Plutonic igneous rock
(D). Granite(IV). Metamorphic rock
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:23

Calculate the molarity of a solution containing 10 g of NaOH in a 500 mL solution.

QUESTION ID:24

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Compound)List-II (Application)
(A). Calcium chloride(I). Antifreeze
(B). Sulphuric acid(II). Drain clearing agent
(C). Ethylene glycol(III). To melt ice on roads
(D). Potassium hydroxide(IV). Battery
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:25

Arrange the following II B (or 12) group elements in decreasing order of their Pauling electronegativities.

(A). Zn

(B). Cd

(C). Hg

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:26

Choose the correct statements

(A). Oxygen is the least abundant element on Earth

(B). Iron and Nickel found in the Core of the Earth

(C). Oceanic Crust is rich in magnesium and iron

(D). Continental Crust is rich in magnesium and iron

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:27

What will be the concentration of nitrogen (N) in water containing 310 ppb of NO3- ions?

QUESTION ID:28

What are the values of X, Y and Z in the following equation?

Cr2O72XH+ Ye→ 2Cr3+ H2O

QUESTION ID:29

A solution is prepared by adding 7 g of a substance A to 18 g of water. Calculate the mass percent of the solute.

QUESTION ID:30

Arrange the following minerals in order of their crystallization during cooling of magma.

(A) Olivine

(B) Amphibole

(C) K-Feldspar

(D) Quartz

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:31

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Mountain/Hill Ranges)List-II (Age / Type of rocks)
(A) Higher Himalaya(I) Palaeoproterozoic rocks
(B) Shivalik Hills(II) Granitic rocks of Cenozoic Age
(C) Lesser Himalaya(III) Young Sedimentary rocks
(D) Trans Himalaya(IV) Phanerozoic Sedimentary rocks
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:32

Which of the following is the most abundant element in bulk earth crust?

QUESTION ID:33

The yellow color and round seed shape traits are dominant over green color and wrinkled seed shape, respectively. Which of the following statements is true for the F1 generation if homozygously yellow colored and round seed-shaped plants are crossed with homozygously green colored and wrinkled seed-shaped plants?

QUESTION ID:34

The correct sequence of eukaryotic cell cycle starting from beginning is

(A). G1

(B). G2

(C). S

(D). M

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:35

Match List-I with List-II 

List-IList-II
(A). Natality(I). The number of individuals of the population left the habitat during the time period under consideration.
(B). Mortality(II). The number of deaths in the population during a given period.
(C). Immigration(III). The number of individuals of the same species enter the habitat during the time period under consideration.
(D). Emigration(IV). The number of births during a given period in the population is added to the initial density.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:36

Choose the correct statement(s)

(A). Sickle cell anemia occurs because of single amino acid change, repeated in the two beta chains of the hemoglobin molecule.

(B). Sickle cell anemia occurs because of two amino acid change, repeated in the single beta chains of hemoglobin molecule.

(C). Sickle cell anemia is a hereditary disease affecting hemoglobin molecules in blood.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:37

Match List-I with List-II

List-IList-II
(A). Induction(I). Switching off the gene expression using any agent.
(B). Repression(II). Insertion of plasmid in Eukaryotic cells.
(C). Transfection(III). Insertion of plasmid in prokaryotic cells.
(D). Transformation(IV). Process of switching on any gene by a molecule.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:38

Which is NOT a general process of concentrating and sampling of bioaerosols?

QUESTION ID:39

Covaxin used for the vaccination of COVID-19 contains

QUESTION ID:40

Which of the following events is Not correct?

(A). The replication occurs on one strand at a time.

(B). The replication process is semi-conservative.

(C). The replication starts at multiple points.

(D). In eukaryotic cells, several mutations occur in every cycle due to the absence of a repair mechanism.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:41

Which of the amino acid has the isoelectric point at pH < 4?

QUESTION ID:42

In many grass species of temperate origin and also in some dicots, starch is not the major product of photosynthesis, rather sucrose and fructose polymers to form compounds collectively known as

QUESTION ID:43

In the three step process of respiration, namely glycolysis, Kreb cycle and electron transport system (ETS), the step that can occur in absence of O2 is

QUESTION ID:44

One characteristic of flowers belonging to Compositae family, which has dense headlike inflorescence that consists of aggregation of few to hundred flowers crowded together on a receptacle, is called as

QUESTION ID:45

Match List-I with List-II 

List-IList-II
(A). Eudicots(I). Base of carpels or fused carpels that contains ovules
(B). Ovary(II). Two cotyledons
(C). Apomyxis(III). Velamen
(D). Orchid roots(IV). Fruit Seeds formed asexually
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:46

Which of the following statements are correct for the aquatic ecosystem?

(A). Floating green microorganisms such as Volvox, Spirogyra and plants are called Zooplanktons.

(B). Phytoplanktons are floating animals such as Cyclops and Cypris.

(C). Benthic animals are the bottom dwellers, such as molluscs.

(D). No light is available in the euphotic zone at anytime of day.

(E). Nektons are animals that can swim and navigate at their will, such as fishes.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:47

Which of the following health condition is caused by cadmium poisoning?

QUESTION ID:48

The above-ground living biomass and its nutrient content is highest for which of the following tree species at maturity?

QUESTION ID:49

The amount of energy expended by an animal while at rest in a neutral temperate environment or at the minimum rate of metabolism is known as

QUESTION ID:50

Choose the incorrect statement.

QUESTION ID:51

Radioactive decay follows ______ order kinetics and the T1/2 is ______ of the initial concentration.

QUESTION ID:52

Match List-I with List-II

List-I: EcologistsList-II: Theory/Hypothesis
(A). Victor Ernest Shelford(I). Law of minimum
(B). Justus Von Liebig(II). Law of Tolerance
(C). David Lack(III). Natural selection
(D). Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace(IV). Theory of Maximum reproduction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:53

The hierarchy of animal classification is

(A). Class

(B). Kingdom

(C). Phylum

(D). Order

(E). Family

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:54

Choose the correct statements

(A). Amensalism is the negative association between two species in which one species restricts or harms other species without being adversely affected or harmed.

(B). Mutualism is the relationship in which one of the species benefits while the other is neither harmed nor benefited.

(C). Commensalism is the association between two species in which both of the species benefit.

(D). In competition, both species are harmed.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:55

Bone present in the fore arm of human is known as.

QUESTION ID:56

Which of the following genetic disorder is caused by dominant gene?

QUESTION ID:57

The least number of fossils in rocks are expected in which of the following geological era?

QUESTION ID:58

The Brundtland Commission Report defining the term Sustainable Development is referred to as

QUESTION ID:59

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Wetland)List-II (State)
(A). Keoladeo(I). Jammu & Kashmir
(B). Loktak(II). Rajasthan
(C). Pong(III). Manipur
(D). Wular(IV). Himachal Pradesh
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:60

The 'Red list' is a catalogue of taxa that are facing the risk of extinction. Which of the following institutions published this?

QUESTION ID:61

Which of the following state in India has highest number of Ramsar sites as on Feb, 2025 ?

QUESTION ID:62

Which of the following are green house gases?

(A). Nitrous oxide

(B). Carbon tetrachloride

(C). Ozone

(D). Water vapour

(E). Oxygen

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:63

Smog formed as a result of SO2 released from coal combustion in presence of water vapour in ambient atmosphere is an example of..........

QUESTION ID:64

________ is a philosophical approach to environmental ethics in which the environment deserves direct moral consideration instead of merely relying on human interests.

QUESTION ID:65

Which of the following gas is not emitted from landfill sites?

QUESTION ID:66

A sound pressure of 0.002 Pa is equivalent to a sound pressure level of.................

QUESTION ID:67

The workers in coal mines are sometimes suffering from black lung disease due to inhaling coal dust. This condition is also known as

QUESTION ID:68

Which of the following zone of a lake can support rooted vegetation?

QUESTION ID:69

Which of the following is metallic mineral?

QUESTION ID:70

Dissolved Oxygen in surface water of a lake or pond................ keeping all other conditions same.

QUESTION ID:71

Average salinity of ocean water is

QUESTION ID:72

Which of the following are important factors that influence soil development?

(A). Climate

(B). Organisms

(C). Relief

(D). Parent material

(E). Time

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:73

Arrange the following acts in chronological order (old to recent) of the year of their enactment in India.

(A). Environmental Protection Act

(B). Biodiversity Act

(C). Air (Prevention and control of pollution) Act

(D). Water (Prevention and control of pollution) Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:74

A sample has an absorbance of 0.24 at a wavelength of 270 nm when measured using a standard spectrophotometer. The molar extinction coefficient of the sample is 96000 M-1 cm-1. Calculate the concentration of the sample.

QUESTION ID:75

The speed of locomotion in some lower animals is regulated by light. This phenomenon is also known as.

QUESTION ID:76

An absorbance of a protein solution at 280 nm was found to be 0.2. What will be the concentration of the protein if the εM(280) = 10000 M-1 cm-1 and measured in 1 cm cuvette?

QUESTION ID:77

An analyst reported γ-lindane concentrations in a synthetic standard, having concentration of 15 ± 0.6 ppb, using GC-MS as 14, 14.1, 16, 15.8, 15.9, 14.8 ppb. The data is:

QUESTION ID:78

Which of the following instruments work on the principal of Bragg's equation?

QUESTION ID:79

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Water quality parameter)List-II (Detail)
(A). Biological oxygen demand(I). High concentrations of nutrients lead to excessive biological growth in water bodies.
(B). Chemical oxygen demand(II). Measures of light transmission through water may indicate pollutants or bacterial contamination in water.
(C). Eutrophication(III). Measure of quantity of oxygen used by microorganisms in the oxidation of organic matter.
(D). Turbidity

(IV). Measure of the capacity of water to consume oxygen during the decomposition of organic matter and

oxidation of inorganic chemicals such as ammonia and nitrite.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:80

The speed (v) of a wind blowing at ~12 km altitude over a mid-latitude region is varying with time (t) as follows:

v(t)=a0t3+v0​

where
a_0
and
v_0
are constants and have unit m s2\text{m s}^{-2} and m s1\text{m s}^{-1}, respectively. The acceleration (in m s2\text{m s}^{-2}) of wind at time
t = 3\,\text{s}
will be:

QUESTION ID:81

In the Bardenpho process of activated sludge system, which of the following is removed along with nitrogen?

QUESTION ID:82

Arrange the following species of marsh community in their correct order in the food chain

(A). Frog

(B). Dragon Fly

(C). Hawks

(D). Butterfly

(E). Snake

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:83

Which of the following relationships is/are not true?

(A) Most probable velocity = √(2RT / M)

(B) pV = 3/2 kT

(C) Compressibility factor  Z = pV / nRT

(D) Average kinetic energy of gas = 1/2 kT

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:84

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Electronic Configuration)List-II (First Ionisation energy kJ mol-1)
(A). ns2(I). 2100
(B). ns2np1(II). 1400
(C). ns2np3(III). 800
(D). ns2np6(IV). 900
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:85

The shielding constant of a 2p electron (calculated using Slater's rules) is:

QUESTION ID:86

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Spectroscopy)List-II (Property)
(A). Raman(I). Polarizability
(B). FTIR(II). Dipole Moment
(C). UV-Visible(III). Absorbance
(D). NMR(IV). Spin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:87

The structure of protein comprises of:

(A). Primary structure of protein is associated with amino acids

(B). Secondary structure of protein is associated to peptides

(C). Tertiary structure of protein is associated with polypeptide chains

(D). Quaternary structure of protein is associated with polypeptide chains

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:88

In a chromatographic analysis of lemon oil a peak for limonene has a retention time of 8.36 min with a baseline width of 0.96 min. γ-Terpinene elutes at 9.54 min with a baseline width of 0.64 min. What is the resolution between the two peaks?

QUESTION ID:89

Which of the following statements are correct about photosynthesis?

(A). Photosystem I has a greater number of a particular type of chlorophyll molecule called chlorophyll a

(B). Photosystem II is maximally activated at wavelengths shorter than 680 nm

(C). In photosystem I, NADPH is produced.

(D). Photosystem II is maximally activated at wavelengths larger than 680 nm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:90

Even at relatively high resolution, most of the peaks in a HNMR spectrum of a protein are broad, which makes it difficult to extract information about biological samples using NMR. This is because:

QUESTION ID:91

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Spectroscopic Technique)List-II (Application in Biophysics)
(A). UV-Visible Spectroscopy(I). Concentration of a sample
(B). Fluorescence Spectroscopy(II). Chemical Characteristics
(C). Infrared Spectroscopy(III). Molecular conformation and dynamics
(D). Electron Spin Resonance(IV). Fluidity of membranes and the dynamics of proteins
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:92

Which of the following are the properties of a good cloning vector?

(A). Ideally should be less than 10 kb

(B). Isolation and purification should be easy

(C). Should contain a unique target site

(D). Able to replicate autonomously

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:93

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Oxides of Nitrogen)List-II (Name)
(A) N2O(I) Dinitrogen trioxide
(B) NO(II) Nitrous oxide
(C) N2O3(III) Nitric oxide
(D) N2O4(IV) Dinitrogen tetroxide
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:94

Siderophores are small polydentate ligands and have a high affinity for:

QUESTION ID:95

A group of transposable elements described as retroelements encompass:

QUESTION ID:96

Monoclonal antibodies can be employed for:

(A). Early detection of cancers

(B). Clear detection of pathogens

(C). Classification of blood group

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:97

Ripening delayed tomatoes are produced by:

QUESTION ID:98

Which of the following statement regarding Innate immunity is wrong?

(A) The response time is minute to hours.

(B) The specificity of innate immunity is highly diverse.

(C) The major components of innate immunity are B cells and T cells.

(D) The major components of innate immunity are phagocytes.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:99

Which of the following are chiral molecules?


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:100

Which of the following microorganism plays an important role in the early stages of cheese production?

(A). Brevibacterium linens

(B). Penicillium candidum

(C). Lactococcus cremoris

(D). Lactococcus lactis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:101

Which of the following in vitro technique is used to find Protein-Protein Interaction?

QUESTION ID:102

The presence and distribution of specific mRNAs within a cell can be detected by:

QUESTION ID:103

Agrobacterium tumefaciens is frequently used as a vector to create transgenic plants. Under laboratory conditions Agrobacterium mediated plant transformation does not require:

QUESTION ID:104

Two-dimensional gel electrophoresis carries out protein based on:

QUESTION ID:105

Cosmids contain:

(A). Replication origin

(B). Unique restriction sites

(C). A selectable marker from a plasmid

(D). Cos site from phage genome

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:106

In the enzyme-linked antibody used in ELISA, the interaction between the enzyme and antibody is stabilized by:

QUESTION ID:107

Eicosanoids are a type of polyenoic fatty acids that consist of:

(A). Leukotrienes

(B). Prostaglandins

(C). Lipoxins

(D). Cholesterol

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:108

RNA polymerase responsible for the synthesis of tRNA:

QUESTION ID:109

Arrange the following bacteriophages in the increasing order of size in terms of nucleotide base pairs

(A). T4 phage
(B). λ phage
(C). T7 phage
(D). φX174 phage

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:110

What is the role of the p53 gene in cancer development?

QUESTION ID:111

The sequence of reactions catalyzed by pyruvate dehydrogenase complex are:

(A). Decarboxylation of pyruvate

(B). Formation of Acetyl-CoA

(C). Formation of acetyl lipoamide

(D). Oxidation of dihydrolipoamide

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:112

The urea cycle takes place in which of the following compartments of the cell?

(A). Cytosol

(B). Endoplasmic reticulum

(C). Mitochondrial matrix

D). Peroxisomes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:113

Consider the following reactions in which all the reactants and products are in gaseous state.

             K1=4×104

PQ+12R2PQR             K2=5×103K_2 = 5 \times 10^{-3}

The value of K3K_3 for the equilibrium

is

QUESTION ID:114

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Antibiotic)List-II (Microorganism)
(A). Penicillin G(I). Streptomyces griseus
(B). Gentamycin(II). Bacillus subtilis
(C). Bacitracin(III). Penicillium chrysogenum
(D). Cycloheximide(IV). Micromonospora purpurea
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:115

The Michaelis constant (Km) in enzyme kinetics represents:

QUESTION ID:116

[Co(NH3)4(NO2)2]Cl exhibits.

(A) Ionisation isomerism
(B) Linkage isomerism
(C) Geometrical isomerism
(D) Coordination isomerism
(E) Solvate isomerism

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:117

The alpha particles are:

QUESTION ID:118

Which of the following are components of lipid raft in plasma membrane?

QUESTION ID:119

The amino acid Tryptophan exhibits maximum UV absorption at what approximate wavelength?

QUESTION ID:120

Which one of the following regions of the target gene is NOT used for making an RNAi construct to knock down its expression?

QUESTION ID:121

Which of the following statements regarding restriction enzymes used in recombinant DNA technology is correct?

QUESTION ID:122

Every continuous real valued function on [a, b] is:

(A). Constant.

(B). Bounded above.

(C). Bounded below.

(D). Unbounded.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:123

*Let <G, *> be a group. Then for all a,b,cGa, b, c \in G

(A). (ab)cG(a * b) * c \in G

(B). ab=baa * b = b * a

(C). a(bc)=(ab)ca * (b * c) = (a * b) * c

(D). ab=aca * b = a * c implies
b = c
.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:124

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Set)List-II (Property in R)
(A) Set of natural numbers, N(I) open
(B) Open interval (a, b)(II) closed
(C) Set of rational numbers, Q(III) unbounded and uncountable
(D) Set of irrational numbers, R \ Q(IV) unbounded below and countable
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:125

 The solution of 

QUESTION ID:126

Let ff be a continuous real-valued function, defined by f(x)=sinxf(x) = \sin x, for all 

Then which of the following does not hold.

QUESTION ID:127

Let an unbiased die be thrown and the random variable X be the number appears on its top. Then the expectation of X is:

QUESTION ID:128


QUESTION ID:129

The equation of a straight line passes through the point  and is perpendicular to the straight line 3x+4y+5=03x + 4y + 5 = 0

QUESTION ID:130

Which of the following subsets form subgroups of the group ?

H1={0}

H2={n+1:nZ}

H3={2n:nZ}

H4={2n+1:nZ}

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:131

The series 

QUESTION ID:132

If a subset B is a basis of a vector space V, then:

(A). B generates V.

(B). B contains zero vector.

(C). B is linearly independent.

(D). B is the only basis of V.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:133

Bacteria have specialized Two component system for the signaling, which among these is the part or sensory domain?

QUESTION ID:134

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Type of Chromatography)List-II (Basis of Operation)
(A). Affinity Chromatography(I). Phase
(B). Ion-Exchange Chromatography(II). Shape and size
(C). Molecular sieve chromatography(III). Chemical Structure
(D). Planar chromatography(IV). Charge
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:135

In Transcription, which among these Transcription factors have Helicase activity?

QUESTION ID:136

Match List-I with List-II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:137

Amino acid that can form Di-sulfide linkage in protein:

QUESTION ID:138

Which bacteria is called the DNA repair champion?

QUESTION ID:139

What is the most significant advantage of using Subroutines or Functions in computer programming?

QUESTION ID:140

Which of the following is typically considered part of the MSU (likely meant VDU/System Unit context or specific acronym)?

(A) Monitor

(B) Keyboard

(C) Motherboard

(D) CPU

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QUESTION ID:141

What is the difference between clock speed and instruction cycle time?

QUESTION ID:142

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Statement)List-II (Description)
(A) if statement(I) can have multiple conditions.
(B) switch statement(II) can only have one condition.
(C) break statement(III) skips the current iteration and continues with the next.
(D) continue statement(IV) exits the entire loop.
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QUESTION ID:143

Which of the following is not the benefit of using an inline function in C++?

(A). It can improve code readability and reduce function call overhead.

(B). It can make the code more modular and easier to maintain.

(C). It allows for dynamic function calls at runtime.

(D). It can be used to define recursive functions.

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QUESTION ID:144

What is the difference between one-dimensional and two-dimensional arrays in C++?

QUESTION ID:145

What are the risks of using pointers without proper care?

QUESTION ID:146

What is the main difference between LCD and LED displays?

QUESTION ID:147

What is the fundamental assumption behind a Markov model?

QUESTION ID:148

What is the key principle behind Monte Carlo simulation?

QUESTION ID:149

The first ever biological sequence database which was developed by Dayhoff and Eck's 1965 is:

QUESTION ID:150

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Tool/Database)List-II (Organization/Database)
(A). WebMol(I). PDB
(B). Cn3D(II). NCBI
(C). DeepView(III). ExPASy
(D). PROCHECK(IV). EBI
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:151

Electronic Polymerase Chain Reaction (e-PCR) is a computational procedure that is used..

QUESTION ID:152

Readseq one of the most popular computer programs written by Don Gilbert at Indiana University used for:

QUESTION ID:153

Which are the correct statetments regrading INSDC....

(A). Promotion of Human Genome Project

(B). It is collaboration of GenBank, EMBL and DDBJ databases.

(C). Facilitating exchange of sequence data on daily basis

(D). Validation of 3D model of protein with respect to structure solved by either X-ray crystallography or NMR spectroscopy

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QUESTION ID:154

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (BLAST Type)List-II (Description)
(A). BLASTN(I). Uses protein sequences as queries to search against a protein sequence database
(B). BLASTP(II). Queries nucleotide sequences with a nucleotide sequence database
(C). TBLASTX

(III). Uses nucleotide sequences as queries and translates them in all six reading frames

to produce translated protein sequences, which are used to query a protein sequence database.

(D). BLASTX

(IV). Uses nucleotide sequences, which are translated in all six frames, to search against a

nucleotide sequence database that has all the sequences translated in six frames.

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QUESTION ID:155

SAKURA is a:

QUESTION ID:156

An example of primary database is:

(A). GenBank

(B). EMBL

(C). DDBJ

(D). PDB

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QUESTION ID:157

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Scientist)List-II (Contribution/Concept)
(A). Needleman and Wunsch(I). BLOSUM
(B). Smith and Waterman(II). Dynamic Programing in Global Alignment
(C). Margaret Dayhoff(III). Dynamic Programing in Local Alignment
(D). Henikoff and Henikoff(IV). PAM
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QUESTION ID:158

During catabolism when ATP is produced directly from energy-rich intermediates, the process is called:

QUESTION ID:159

Which of the following sugar derivative(s) is found in bacterial cell wall?

(A). Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

(B). Lipid A

(C). N-acetyl muramic acid

(D). D-galactosamine

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QUESTION ID:160

Name the phase of microbial growth cycle when there is no net increase or decrease in cell number.

QUESTION ID:161

The organisms which have the ability to grow in a very dry environment are known as:

QUESTION ID:162

Match List-I with List-II

List-IList-II
(A). Chemostat(I). The culture is maintained at high cell density by repeated addition of the nutrient till the reactor reaches its maximum capacity
(B). Turbidostat(II). It is a closed culture system
(C). Batch culture(III). Growth rate and cell density of the culture is controlled by the concentration of limiting nutrient
(D). Fed Batch Culture(IV). Growth rate and cell density of the culture is controlled by the turbidity of the culture
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QUESTION ID:163

Calculate the melting temperature (°C) of the following primer:

Primer Sequence  5'-AGCTAATCCGGGCTACCG-3'

QUESTION ID:164

Arrange the following steps of polymerase chain reaction in correct sequence.

(A). Annealing
(B). Denaturation
(C). Cooling at 4 °C
(D). Extension

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QUESTION ID:165

In a vector, antibiotic resistance is often used as a:

QUESTION ID:166

Which of the following is the most abundant protein on earth?

QUESTION ID:167

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Microorganism)List-II (Category)
(A). Azotobacter(I). Free living nitrogen fixing phototrophic bacteria
(B). Rhodobacter(II). Free living nitrogen fixing chemoorganotrophic bacteria
(C). Rhizobium(III). Free living nitrogen fixing chemolithotrophic bacteria
(D). Alcaligenes(IV). Symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria associated with peas
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QUESTION ID:168

Which of the following biological materials has not been patented?

QUESTION ID:169

In vertical gel electrophoresis, the function of the β-mercaptoethanol is:

QUESTION ID:170

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Author)List-II (Contribution)
(A). Martinus Beijerinck(I). One gene-one enzyme hypothesis
(B). Sergei Winogradsky(II). First time isolation of nitrogen fixing bacterium Clostridium pasteurianum
(C). George Beadle and Edward Tatum(III). Restriction enzymes
(D). Hamilton Smith, Daniel Nathans, Werner Arber(IV). Enrichment culture technique
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QUESTION ID:171

Arrange the steps followed in the differential Gram staining of bacteria.

(A). Add iodine solution for 1 minute

(B). Stain the smear with crystal violet for 1 minute

(C). Spread culture in thin film and air dry followed by heat fixing

(D). Counter stain the smear with safranin solution for 1-2 minutes

(E). Decolorize with alcohol briefly for 20 seconds

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QUESTION ID:172

Coenzymes and Prosthetic groups are small non-protein molecules that take part in catalysis. What is the major difference between the two cofactors?

QUESTION ID:173

How many ATPs are produced on complete oxidation of 1 glucose molecule through oxidative phosphorylation and substrate-level phosphorylation?

QUESTION ID:174

Flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA is known as transcription. Which of the following represents RNA transcript sequence for the given DNA molecule?

5'-TTAGCCTCGTGTAA-3'

3'-AATCGGAGCACATT-5'

QUESTION ID:175

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Enzyme)List-II (Function)
(A). DNA Pol I(I). Relaxes supercoils ahead of replication fork
(B). DNA gyrase(II). Unwinds DNA double helix at replication fork
(C). DNA ligase(III). Excises RNA primer and fills in gaps
(D). Helicase(IV). Seals nicks in DNA
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:176

What is a missense mutation?

QUESTION ID:177

Which of the following facts is/are true about Shuttle vectors?

(A). Vectors that have the capability to replicate in only related host organisms

(B). Vectors that have the capability to replicate in two unrelated host organisms

(C). Shuttle vectors have two origins of replication

(D). Shuttle vectors do not have a selection marker

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:178

To purify RNA molecules, oligo dT containing matrix is used. This type of chromatography is:

QUESTION ID:179

Which of the following can not be separated using electrophoresis?

QUESTION ID:180

Arrange the sequence of regulation of chemotaxis.

(A) Interaction with flagellar motor switch

(B) Adaptation

(C) Activation of response regulators

(D) Interaction of transducers and Che proteins

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QUESTION ID:181

Arrange the replication cycle of a bacterial virus.

(A) Synthesis of nucleic acid and protein by host cell

(B) Penetration of virion

(C) Attachment of the virion to the host

(D) Assembly of capsid and packaging of genome into new virion

(E) Release of mature virions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:182

During cell cycle, DNA duplication and transcription occur during:

QUESTION ID:183

Which of the following statements about Denitrification are true?

(A). Atmospheric nitrogen is easily used as a source of nitrogen by bacteria than nitrate.

(B). Denitrification is conversion of nitrate to gaseous nitrogen compounds.

(C). Denitrification is a detrimental process for agriculture.

(D). Denitrification is a beneficial process in waste water treatment.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:184

Mycorrhizae is an association between:

QUESTION ID:185

Which of the following oligonucleotide probes (fluorescent tag) will hybridize to a target RNA sequence?

5'-GAAACCUCUGGCAAUCCGAUGUGCCAA-3'

QUESTION ID:186

Which of the following is not used as mobile phase in gas chromatography?

QUESTION ID:187

Arrange the following vectors on the basis of insert size carrying capacity.

(A). Cosmids

(B). Bacteriophages

(C). Plasmids

(D). Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:188

Which of the following technique is known as chain termination DNA sequencing method?

QUESTION ID:189

Which of the following is not a fermented food product?

(A). Sauerkraut

(B). Sake

(C). Soy Sauce

(D). Ragi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:190

Solutes in the environment change the availability of water molecules to microbes. Microbiologists quantitatively estimate the degree of water availability by determining:

QUESTION ID:191

When a petite mutant isolated from aerobically cultured yeast is crossed with wild-type strain, the progeny obtained is all wild type. Identify the type of mutation.

QUESTION ID:192

Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of actinomycetes?

QUESTION ID:193

Which of the following are features of chlorosomes?

(A). Light harvesting

(B). Contain chlorophyll a

(C). Present in green bacteria

(D). Galactolipid membrane

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QUESTION ID:194

What are the functions of peroxisomes in the cell?

(A). Peroxisomes are the sites where oxidation of substrates takes place and hydrogen peroxide is formed.

(B). Peroxisomes harbor catalase enzyme which decomposes hydrogen peroxide.

(C). In plants and fungi, fatty acid oxidation takes place in the peroxisomes.

(D). In animal cells, fatty acid oxidation takes place in the peroxisomes and mitochondria.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:195

If organism A possesses 55% G+C content and organism B has 25% of the G+C content in their genome, what inference can be drawn?

QUESTION ID:196

Out of all given options, which ones are stop codons?

QUESTION ID:197

Which of the following is not an Antigen Presenting Cell?

QUESTION ID:198

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Amino acids)List-II (Side chain type)
(A). Cys(I). basic
(B). Asp(II). nonpolar aromatic
(C). Trp(III). acidic
(D). Arg(IV). sulphur containing
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:199

Arrange the following steps of complement activation in the correct order.

(A). Formation of C3 convertase

(B). Binding of C1 to Antigen antibody complex

(C). Formation of MAC

(D). C5 convertase formation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:200

Enzyme sequence involved in formation of L-isoleucine from L-Threonine is regulated by:

QUESTION ID:201

Which of the following statements are true about human ABO blood groups?

(A). Glycosyltransferase enzyme is responsible for transfer of carbohydrate moiety on protein.

(B). Almost all individuals possess H substance.

(C). A antigen has one extra monosaccharide group N-acetylgalactosamine added to H substance.

(D). B antigen has one extra monosaccharide group galactose added to H substance.

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QUESTION ID:202

Which of the following is not used as a cyanobacterial biofertilizer?

QUESTION ID:203

Which of the following cause depletion of ozone layer?

QUESTION ID:204

Arrange the steps of binary fission in a rod shaped prokaryote in sequence.

(A). Cell elongation

(B). Cell separation

(C). Septum formation

(D). DNA replication

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:205

TCR of Cytotoxic T lymphocytes interacts with which of the following?

QUESTION ID:206

The first cells to reach the site of inflammation are:

QUESTION ID:207

Arrange the steps for wastewater treatment processes in correct sequence.

(A). Screening and Sedimentation

(B). Anoxic digestion and oxidation

(C). Separation into soluble and insoluble components

(D). Drying and Disinfection of the two components

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:208

What is the major activity occurring in germinal centers?

QUESTION ID:209

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Interaction type)List-II (Effect)
(A). Commensalism(I). Where one population derives food from the host without causing death of the host
(B). Competition(II). Population one is inhibited and other is not affected
(C). Amensalism(III). One population benefits and other population (host) is not affected
(D). Parasitism(IV). Each species is directly inhibited by the other
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:210

Which of the following is an exotoxin producing anaerobic organism associated with food poisoning?

QUESTION ID:211

Which of the following is not a mechanism of antimicrobial resistance?

QUESTION ID:212

Arrange the following intermediates on the basis of their synthesis in citric acid cycle.

(A). Citrate
(B). Succinyl CoA
(C). α-ketoglutarate
(D). Oxaloacetate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:213

Which of the following statements is/ are true about agglutination?

(A). Excess antibody inhibits agglutination reactions.

(B). Coombs test works on the principle of agglutination.

(C). Agglutination reactions work only with soluble antigens.

(D). The antibody titer is the lowest dilution of serum at which agglutination is observed.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:214

Arrange the steps in RNA synthesis in the correct order.

(A). Release of polymerase

(B). Release of sigma factor followed by elongation

(C). Recognition of promoter by sigma factor

(D). Identification of terminator site

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:215

What is the function of impellers in a fermentor?

QUESTION ID:216

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for synthesis of mRNA in prokaryotes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:217

Which of the following is an example of DNA containing virus?

QUESTION ID:218

Which of the following tests are used to check spoilage of milk?

(A). Clot on boiling test

(B). Resazurin reduction assay

(C). MBRT

(D). MPN test

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:219

Which of the following is not a feature of peptide bond?

QUESTION ID:220

Which of the following media is used for isolation of Staphylococcus?

QUESTION ID:221

Which of the following is exclusively recessive X-linked trait ?

QUESTION ID:222

In a dihybrid cross, if the percentage of recombinant trait is 20%, what will be the distance between the genes?

QUESTION ID:223

Which of the following is not a primary metabolite?

QUESTION ID:224

What is the mode of action of alcohol as a sanitizer and disinfectant?

QUESTION ID:225

Which of the following is/are distinguishing features of group translocation?

(A). A molecule is chemically modified when transported into the cell.

(B). Molecule doesn't get modified during transport.

(C). Molecule gets phosphorylated during transport.

(D). It is a secondary active transport mechanism.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:226

Which of the following is not an asexual method of reproduction in fungi?

QUESTION ID:227

Which of the following forms of DNA is produced with a DNA sequence made up from alternating purine and pyrimidine nucleotides?

(A). B form

(B). Z form

(C). A form

(D). C form

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:228

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Technique)List-II (Description)
(A). Study to analyze pools of DNA from an environmental sample containing organisms that have not been isolated and identified(I). Proteomics
(B). Genome wide study of the structure, function and activity of organism's proteins(II). Metagenomics
(C). Global study of transcription is done by monitoring the total RNA generated under chosen growth conditions(III). Systems Biology
(D). The term used for integration of different fields of research to give an overview of an organism or a cell(IV). Transcriptomics
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QUESTION ID:229

Which of the following statements is/ are applicable to fixed angle rotors?

(A). During rotor acceleration, reorientation of the sample and gradient occur.

(B). Sedimentation and separation of the particles occur during centrifugation.

(C). Bands of separated particles appear when the rotor is at rest.

(D). The centrifuge tube is filled with gradient and then loaded with sample.

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QUESTION ID:230

Which of the following treaty/convention provided "international recognition of microorganisms" for the purpose of patent procedure?

QUESTION ID:231

B cell maturation in birds occurs in:

QUESTION ID:232

Which of the following statements is true about the lac operon?

(A). Lac operon is under positive regulation through CRP.

(B). Lac operon has three structural genes.

(C). Lac repressor binds to the lac promoter.

(D). Lac operon is expressed in the presence of both glucose and lactose.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: