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Previous Year Questions

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QUESTION ID:1

Very often plants produce undifferentiated mass of cells at the site of wound which is known as:

QUESTION ID:2

Root culture is used to produce: 

QUESTION ID:3

Synthetic seeds are:

QUESTION ID:4

Polyphenolic compounds are oxidized by polyphenol oxidases in the plants resulting in the darkening and spoilage of explants while performing tissue culture. The procedures used to overcome this issue include:

(A). Adding antioxidants to culture medium

(B). Presoaking explants in antioxidants

(C). Adding ascorbic acid in the media

(D). Frequently transferring explants into fresh media

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:5

Endosperm culture is useful for the development of: 

QUESTION ID:6

Cytokinins:

(A). Are derivatives of adenines

(B). Are important for shoot induction

(C). Have property of cell elongation

(D). Usually promotes cell division if added together with auxin in culture

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:7

Match List I with List II:

LIST I (Type of plant tissue culture)LIST II (Application)
A. Seed CultureI. Development of seed-less fruits
B. Anther cultureII. Useful for doing genetic manipulation easily in plants
C. Endosperm cultureIII. Generating plants of small seeds having less food reserve
D. Protoplast cultureIV. Haploid production
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:8

Match List I with List II: 

LIST I

(Enzymes used for protoplast isolation)

LIST II

(Source)

A. CellulaseI. Rhizopus spp
B. HelicaseII. Trichoderma
C. ZymolyaseIII. Arthobacter spp
D. MaceraseIV. Helix spp
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:9

Match List I with List II: 

LIST I

(Crop)

LIST II

(Somaclonal variants obtained)

A. RiceI. High carotene content
B. MaizeII. Grain color
C. CarrotIII. Sterility mutant
D. WheatIV. Glyphosate resistance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:10

Match List I with List II: 

LIST I

(Phases of plant cells in culture)

LIST II

(Changes in growth pattern)

A. Lag phaseI. Rate of cell division and elongation decreases
B. Exponential phaseII. Cell division slows but cell expansion increases
C. Linear phaseIII. Cells prepare to divide
D. Deceleration phaseIV. Highest rate of cell division
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:11

Shoot tip culture is performed through the following steps:

(A). Shoot tip collection from the plant

(B). Axillary shoot proliferation

(C). Rooting of shoots

(D). Primary culture of tip

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:12

Different steps for regeneration via organogenesis:

(A). shoot formation

(B). callus formation

(C). Initial explant

(D). plantlet

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:13

Following steps are used in Bergmann cell plating technique:

(A). Passing cells through gauge

(B). Mixing cells with molten agar medium

(C). Plating cells in petridishes

(D). Cell suspension

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:14

In vitro techniques to produce haploids are used to generate:

QUESTION ID:15

The chromosome number of a haploid plant can be doubled using:

QUESTION ID:16

Different plant tissue culture methods used to produce haploids:

QUESTION ID:17

Development of haploid plants from male gametophytic tissue is known as:

QUESTION ID:18

When anthers containing microspores at the middle to late uninucleate stage are cultured on solid media then they form:

QUESTION ID:19

Microspores may give rise to the plants having:

QUESTION ID:20

Problem of mixoploidy associated with anther culture was overcome by:

QUESTION ID:21

Gynogenic embryogenesis can be developed by culturing:

QUESTION ID:22

Chromosome elimination technique was established for the production of:

QUESTION ID:23

For the development of diploid plantlets, the order of tissue culture steps will be:

(A). Development of haploid plantlet

(B). Collection of flowers

(C). Isolation and culture of anthers

(D). Colchicine treatment

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:24

Different steps involved in the elimination of chromosomes in cereals through plant tissue culture:

(A). Embryo culture

(B). Chromosome elimination

(C). Crossing

(D). Monoploid plant development

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:25

Homozygous lines developed through the anther culture must be analysed to check their ploidy status through:

(A). The colour of the flowers

(B). Counting of plastids in stomata

(C). Chromosome number

(D). Number of nucleoli

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:26

Match List I with List II:

LIST I (In plant tissue culture)LIST II (Related method/process/example)
A. Ploidy level checkingI. Morus indica
B. DiploidizationII. Haploid induction
C. Exclusive generation of male plantsIII. Plastid number in stomata
D. Gynogenic plantsIV. Endomitosis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:27

Most commonly used chemical for the protoplast fusion:

QUESTION ID:28

Protoplasts are:

QUESTION ID:29

Plant cell protoplasts can be prepared by treating cells with: 

QUESTION ID:30

Fluorescein diacetate (FDA) stain is used for: 

QUESTION ID:31

Agar in plant tissue culture acts as:

QUESTION ID:32

Following sequence is followed for the protoplast culture:

(A). Plant regeneration

(B). Treatment of cells with enzyme mixture

(C). Callus culture

(D). Leaf sterilization and removal of epidermis to expose mesophylls

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:33

Different steps in the generation of somaclonal variation without in vitro selection:

(A). Explant selection

(B). Whole plant generation

(C). Callus formation

(D). Shoot generation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:34

Following are the disadvantages of somaclonal variation:

(A). Novel variants may arise

(B). Variations are cultivar dependent

(C). Most of the variations are of no apparent use

(D). Variations are not always stable and heritable

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:35

The somatic hybrids produced through protoplast fusion needs authentication and purification due to very low efficiency of fusion, homofusion and no fusion, this may be performed by the following complementations:

(A). Alpha-complementation

(B). Chlorophyll deficiency complementation

(C). Auxotroph complementation

(D). Resistance marker complementation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:36

Match List I with List II: 

LIST I

(First species for intergeneric hybrid)

LIST II

(Second species for intergeneric hybrid)

A. Solanum tuberosumI. Atropa belladona
B. Arabidopsis thalianaII. Echinochloa oryzicola
C. Datura innoxiaIII. L. esculentum
D. Oryza sativaIV. B. campestris
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:37

Match List I with List II: 

LIST I (Somatic hybrids)LIST II (Traits transferred via protoplast fusion)
A. Nicotiana tabacumI. High nicotine content
B. Solanum sppII. Black rot resistance
C. Brassica sppIII. Tobacco mosaic virus resistance
D. Nicotiana rusticaIV. Potato virus X resistance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:38

Match List I with List II: 

LIST I

(Terms related to Plant tissue culture)

LIST II

(Suitable explanation of the terms)

A. CybridsI. In vitro development of plants through tissue culture
B. Somatic embryosII. Development of male plants from anther
C. MicropropagationIII. Cytoplasmic sterile line is fused with another cell line mixing the cytoplasmic genome
D. AndrogenesisIV. Embryos produced from somatic cells
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:39

Match List I with List II: 

LIST I (Plants)LIST II (Somaclonal variants for herbicide resistance)
A. Nicotiana tabacumI. Imidazolinone
B. Beta vulgarisII. Chlorosulfuron
C. Glycine maxIII. Glyphosate
D. Datura innoxiaIV. Imazethapyr
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:40

Nitrobacter spp involved in nitrogen cycle converts:

QUESTION ID:41

Nitrification is a process of conversion of:

QUESTION ID:42

Free living bacteria having nitrogenase converts atmospheric nitrogen to:

QUESTION ID:43

Nitrosomonas spp is useful for plants because it:

QUESTION ID:44

Leguminous plants have bacteria for:

QUESTION ID:45

Denitrification is carried by:

QUESTION ID:46

Nodules for the purpose of nitrogen fixation in non-leguminous plants are induced by:

QUESTION ID:47

Biological nitrogen fixation is performed by:

(A). Azotobacter and Beijerinckia

(B). Nostoc and Anabaena

(C). Rhizobium, Rhodospirillum, and Frankia

(D). Nitrobacter and Pseudomonas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:48

Biological nitrogen fixation is performed by some:

(A). Symbiotic bacteria

(B). Free-living anaerobic bacteria

(C). Cyanobacteria

(D). Free-living aerobic bacteria

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:49

Match List I with List II: 

LIST I (Host Plant)LIST II (N-fixing symbionts)
A. SugarcaneI. Nostoc
B. Water fernII. Acetobacter
C. CasuarinaIII. Anabaena
D. GunneraIV. Frankia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:50

Match List I with List II: 

LIST I (Plant)LIST II (Free-living Plant Growth Promoting Bacteria)
A. SoybeanI. Rhizobium leguminosarum
B. AlfalfaII. Azorhizobium
C. CloverIII. Sinorhizobium meliloti
D. SesbaniaIV. Bradyrhizobium japonicum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:51

Nodule formation in plants happen through different steps:

(A). Plant cell differentiation

(B). Curling of the root hair

(C). Contact of Rhizobium with root hair

(D). Infection thread progression to cortex cells

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:52

The systematic production of proteinase inhibitors in young tomato plants is triggered by a complex sequence of events:

(A). Synthesis of systemin

(B). Synthesis of prosystemin on the wound site

(C). Activation of several genes including proteinase inhibitors

(D). Synthesis of jasmonic acid

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:53

The correct order of steps for developing a transgenic plant through plant tissue culture will be:

(A). Putative transgenic adult plant

(B). Regeneration on selection media

(C). Explant selection

(D). Addition of acetosyringone and Agrobacterium having transgene

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:54

Which of the following molecule DOES NOT have an auxin-like activity?

QUESTION ID:55

Which of the following tissue would be most suitable for raising virus free plants?

QUESTION ID:56

During the organogenesis from the callus, relatively high ratio of BAP to IAA would be favoured for?

QUESTION ID:57

Which of the following is a carbohydrate, but CANNOT be used as carbon source for in vitro plant tissue culture?

QUESTION ID:58

Match the following plant tissue culture media components in list I with their functions:

LIST ILIST II
A. GelriteI. Prevent oxidation of phenols
B. 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acidII. Media solidification agent
C. PolyvinylpyrrolidoneIII. Stress hormone
D. Abscisic acidIV. Callus induction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

 

QUESTION ID:59

In plant tissue culture, explants are dedifferentiated to form callus. Callus tissue can be regenerated into complete plantlets primarily by altering the concentration of: 

QUESTION ID:60

For ex-vitro rooting, shoots are treated with _____ and transplanted directly in the potting mix. Choose the correct option.

QUESTION ID:61

Colchicine is used for the production of:

QUESTION ID:62

Technique of anther culture was described for the first time by: 

QUESTION ID:63

Which of the following tissue would be most suitable for the development of haploids from a male sterile plant?

QUESTION ID:64

Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE for the haploid plants? 

QUESTION ID:65

Following are the various stages of a diploid plant generation from anthers:

(A). Homozygous diploid plants

(B). Explant preparation

(C). Differentiating callus

(D). Incubating anthers on culture media

(E). Colchicine treatment

(F). Haploid plantlets

Choose the correct answer from the options given below, that represent the events in sequencing order:

QUESTION ID:66

Frequency of albino production is high in?

QUESTION ID:67

Choose the correct combination of statements from the given list:

(A). Haploid plants regenerated through the callus culture would always be exactly similar to the parent plant.

(B). Production of haploids is very useful for developing homozygous lines that can be used for breeding research.

(C). Time taken to produce homozygous lines through doubled haploids is same as for selfing/inbreeding.

(D). Haploids have been successfully coupled with the breeding programs in several crops.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:68

Match List I with List II:

LIST ILIST II
A. Polyethylene glycolI. Somatic hybrids
B. HomokaryonsII. Cell wall degrading enzymes
C. Doubled haploidsIII. Fusogen
D. MacerozymeIV. Anther culture
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:69

The first isolation of protoplasts by mechanical method was achieved by:

QUESTION ID:70

Water fern Azolla can be used as biofertilizer because: 

QUESTION ID:71

How many ATPs are required to generate four molecules of NH3 during symbiontic nitrogen fixation? 

QUESTION ID:72

Which of the following element play a key role in the process of biological nitrogen fixation in legumes?

QUESTION ID:73

Which of the following is a biological control method to control pests?

QUESTION ID:74

Which of the following organism can be used as a biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant diseases?

QUESTION ID:75

Nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium in nodule requires:

QUESTION ID:76

How much of protein content makes an E. coli cell, in terms of the percentage of the total weight of the cell?

QUESTION ID:77

The science of collecting small molecules in a given cell under a specific set of conditions is called:

QUESTION ID:78

Pairs of stereoisomers that are not mirror images of each other are called:

QUESTION ID:79

In 2014, scientists from Scripps Research Institute, California announced the development of 6 base DNA. A new base pair that they added to the standard 4 base (ATGC) DNA was called:

QUESTION ID:80

How much percentage of human genome is represented by the exome?

QUESTION ID:81

The most abundant monosaccharide in nature is:

QUESTION ID:82

From the evolutionary standpoint, extreme thermophiles are more closely connected with which one of the following:

QUESTION ID:83

Sulfur bacteria are examples of which of the following:

QUESTION ID:84

Which of the following has the highest heat of vaporization (J/g)?

QUESTION ID:85

At 25 °C, the degree of ionization of pure water at equilibrium is

QUESTION ID:86

From the following data, identify the correct pH value of sea water:

QUESTION ID:87

Hungry bone syndrome is associated with:

QUESTION ID:88

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Functional group)List-II (Description)
(A). Hydroxyl(I). DNA
(B). Carboxyl(II). Proteins
(C). Amino(III). Polar
(D). Phosphate(IV). Fatty acids
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:89

In cytosol, the product yield from the oxidation of one molecule of glucose is:

QUESTION ID:90

Match List-I with List-II: 

List-IList-II
(A). Hypokalemia(I). Sweat glands
(B). Hypocapnia(II). CO2
(C). Sudoriferous glands(III). Spermatogenesis
(D). Sertoli cells(IV). Potassium
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:91

An antigenic determinant to which a given antibody binds is called:

QUESTION ID:92

4-hydroxyproline is an example of:

QUESTION ID:93

A substance that can act either a base or an acid, is called:

QUESTION ID:94

A DNA or amino acid sequence consisting of the residues that most commonly occur at each position in a set of similar sequences are called:

QUESTION ID:95

A spatial arrangement of substituent groups that are free to assume different positions in space, without breaking any bonds (due to freedom in bond rotation) is called:

QUESTION ID:96

A series of overlapping clones defining an uninterrupted section of a genome, is called:

QUESTION ID:97

Enzymes that create a phosphodiester bond between the 3' end of one DNA segment and the 5' end of another, are called:

QUESTION ID:98

The component of the total energy of a system that can do work at constant temperature and pressure, is called:

QUESTION ID:99

The pH at which an amino acid has no net electric charge and thus does not move in an electric field, is called:

QUESTION ID:100

Enzymes that play two distinct roles, at least one of which is catalytic, the other may be catalytic, regulatory or structural, are called:

QUESTION ID:101

Which of the following statements are correct?

(A). DNA microarray is a collection of DNA sequences immobilized on a solid surface that can be probed by hybridization

(B). Differential centrifugation describes the separation of cell organelles by different rates of sedimentation

(C). Amino acids that cannot be synthesized by humans but are synthesized by microbes are called essential amino acids

(D). Equilibrium constant is specific for each chemical reaction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:102

Read the following statements carefully:

(A) DNA ligases are enzymes that create a phosophodiester bond between DNA fragments

(B). A protein containing one or more prosthetic groups is called a conjugated protein

(C). A type of enzyme inhibition reversed by increasing the substrate concentration is called competitive inhibition

(D). Two stereoisomers of a given sugar that differ only in the configuration about carbonyl carbon atom are called anomers

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

QUESTION ID:103

A researcher engineers a lac operon on a plasmid inactivating all parts of the lac operator and the lac promoter, replacing them with the binding site for the LexA repressor and promoter regulated by LexA. The plasmid is introduced into E. coli cells that has a lac operon with an inactive lacZ gene. Under what conditions will these transformed cells produce β-galactosidase?

QUESTION ID:104

Which one of the following is the basis for protein structural classification?

QUESTION ID:105

The catabolic lysosomal degradation of cellular proteins is called:

QUESTION ID:106

Which one of the following i.e, no. of molecules per gram molecular weight, represents the Avogadro's number (N) ?

QUESTION ID:107

The energy derived from noncovalent interactions between enzyme and substrate is called:

QUESTION ID:108

One calorie (cal) equals to how many joules (J)?

QUESTION ID:109

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Protein name)List-II (Molecular weight (KDa))
(A). β-galactosidase(I). 14.4
(B). Bovine Serum Albumin(II). 116.25
(C). Ovalbumin(III). 45
(D). Lysozyme(IV). 66.2
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:110

The number of enzyme units per miligram of total protein is called:

QUESTION ID:111

When a protein has two or more polypeptide subunits, their folding arrangement is called:

QUESTION ID:112

When wool sweaters are washed in hot water, they shrink. In contrast, when silk clothes are washed they do not shrink when washed under the same conditions.

(A). The β-woolen polypeptide chains are converted to the native α-helical conformation

(B). The structure of silk-β sheets is more stable than that of the wool

(C). The β-woolen polypeptide chains remain in their native conformation

(D). The structure of silk-β sheets is less stable than that of the wool protein structure

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:113

A genetic mutation that limits the production of glucocerebrosidase, an enzyme that is responsible for breaking down fats, leads to which of the following disease:

QUESTION ID:114

Which one of the following is a disease caused by defect in the enzymes necessary for heme biosynthesis?

QUESTION ID:115

A mutation in the GLA (alpha galactosidase A) gene leads to which one of the following conditions?

QUESTION ID:116

A group of contiguous nucleotides codons in DNA molecule that does not include a termination codon is called:

QUESTION ID:117

The step in an enzymatic reaction of a pathway that needs greatest amount of activation energy is called:

QUESTION ID:118

A sequence in an mRNA that is required for binding bacterial ribsomes is called:

QUESTION ID:119

Hyponatremia is a condition where the concentration of the following ion decreases below normal level in plasma.

QUESTION ID:120

A human condition of acid-base disturbance with high H+ ions in the blood is called:

QUESTION ID:121

In kidneys the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) depends upon:

(A). the difference in hydrostatic and oncotic pressures between the glomerular capillaries and the lumen of the nephron

(B). the nature of glomerular basement membrane

(C). total available filtration area

(D). relative concentration of ions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:122

A decrease in the concentration of serum albumin lead to which of the following condition:

QUESTION ID:123

A patient presents herself with stunted growth, web like neck and an absence of X chromosome. What would be your diagnosis of this genetic condition?

QUESTION ID:124

Which of the following is the main cause of liver failure?

QUESTION ID:125

What is the rate of mortality in the acute liver failure?

QUESTION ID:126

In E.coli the enzyme that fills gaps in duplexes by stepwise addition of nucleotides to 3' end is called:

QUESTION ID:127

The enzyme reverse transcriptase:

QUESTION ID:128

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Type of food)List-II (% trans fatty acids / gram)
(A). French Fries(I). 2
(B). Pizza(II). 28
(C). Muffin(III). 9
(D). Chocolate bar(IV). 14
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:129

Another name for Vitamin D3 is:

QUESTION ID:130

Warfarin has which of the following functions?

QUESTION ID:131

Which of the following statements are correct?

(A). Some types of lipids play critical roles as cofactors or signals

(B). Prostaglandins are derived from arachidonate

(C). Steroid hormones are derived from sterols

(D). Vitamins D, A and E are fat soluble

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:132

Phosphatidylcholine and phosphatidylserine are examples of:

QUESTION ID:133

Match List-I with List-II: 

List-I (Category)List-II (Examples)
(A). Fatty acids(I). Tetracycline
(B). Prenol lipids(II). Farnesol
(C). Saccharolipids(III). Lipopolysaccharide
(D). Polyketides(IV). Oleate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:134

Match List-I with List-II:  

List-I (Animal plasma membrane)List-II (Type of sterol)
(A). Human myelin sheath(I). Sitosterol
(B). Maize leaf(II). Ergosterol
(C). Yeast(III). Cholesterol
(D). Paramecium(IV). Stigmasterol
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:135

Match List-I with List-II:   

List-I (Ion channel defects)List-II (Disease)
(A). Na+(I). Polycystic kidney disease
(B). Ca2+(II). Generalized epilepsy
(C). K+(III). Cystic fibrosis
(D). Cl-(IV). Dominant deafness
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:136

In a substrate-enzyme reaction, the term Ka denotes which one of the following?

QUESTION ID:137

A metabolic condition in which the capacity of the body to buffer OH- is diminished, is called:

QUESTION ID:138

Immune cells that ingest large particles and cells by phagocytosis are called:

QUESTION ID:139

Enzymes that are involved in the transfer of electrons (hydride ions or H atoms) are called:

QUESTION ID:140

Among following enzymes, which one has the highest turnover number (Kcat ?

QUESTION ID:141

Albinism is a genetic disorder associated with:

QUESTION ID:142

Of the following pH values which one is the lowest?

QUESTION ID:143

Among the following Liver Function Tests, which one indicates the hepatocellular damage?

QUESTION ID:144

The causes of increased Gamma-glutamyl Transferase (GGT) in human serum can be due to:

(A). Alcoholism

(B). Hepatitis

(C). Pancreatitis

(D). Liver metastasis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:145

Human acute liver failure can be due to:

(A). viral hepatitis

(B). medicine

(C) toxins

(D). ischemia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:146

Read the following statements carefully:

(A). ultracentrifugation separates molecules based on their density

(B). gel electrophoresis separates molecules based on their mobility in an electric field

(C). gel filtration separates molecules based on their size

(D). NMR separates molecules based on their proton signal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:147

One Angstrom (Å) is equal to :

QUESTION ID:148

In 1953, Frederick Sanger determined the amino acid sequence of which protein?

QUESTION ID:149

A substance that receives electrons in an oxidation-reduction reaction is called:

QUESTION ID:150

The substrate concentration at which an enzyme-catalyzed reaction proceeds at one-half of its velocity is called:

QUESTION ID:151

The portion of transmembrane proteins that cross the lipid bilayer are usually:

QUESTION ID:152

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Enzyme)LIST II (Function)
A. Cytochrome oxidaseI. Electron transport system
B. TopoisomerasesII. Change linking number
C. CohesinsIII. DNA Replication
D. PCNAIV. Cell cycle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:153

Which of the following enzyme is inhibited by citrate in Kreb's cycle?

QUESTION ID:154

Why is the presence of proline destabilizes α-helix?

A. Proline residue introduces a destabilizing kink in the α-helix
B. In proline, the nitrogen atom is a part of a rigid ring, and rotation about N–C bond is not possible
C. The nitrogen atom of a proline residue in a peptide linkage has no substituent hydrogen to participate in hydrogen bonds with other residues
D. Proline residue works as a helix linker

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:155

Which of the following are components of lipid raft in plasma membrane?

A. Cholesterol

B. Sphingolipids

C. Glycolipids

D. Phospholipids

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:156

Which of the following enzymes is defective in galactosemia- a fatal genetic disorder in infants?

QUESTION ID:157

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Vitamin)LIST II (Disorder/Property)
A. Vitamin-AI. Night blindness
B. Vitamin- DII. Scurvy
C. Vitamin- CIII. Fat soluble vitamin
D. Vitamin- KIV. Blood clotting
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:158

Identify the correct sequence of the given intermediates formed during glycolysis

A. Fructose 1,6-biphosphate

B. Fructose 6 phosphate

C. Lactate

D. Phosphoenolpyruvate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:159

Identify the correct sequence of the given enzymes involved in TCA cycle:

(A) Aconitase
(B) Fumarase
(C) Malate dehydrogenase
(D) α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

QUESTION ID:160

Which of the following is not a fluorescence dye?

QUESTION ID:161

The technique used to identify the specific DNA in bacterial colonies is-

QUESTION ID:162

Which metal is used for electron beam generation in scanning electron microscopy?

QUESTION ID:163

What is the role of sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS) in protein electrophoresis

(A). Add net negative charge to the protein

(B). Seperate lipids on the basis of their molecular weight

(C). Modify native conformation of a protein

(D). Allows direct destaining of the proteins

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:164

Isoelectric focusing allows seperation of the proteins according to their-

QUESTION ID:165

Match List I with List II

LIST ILIST II
A. Western BlottingI. DNA identification
B. Southern BlottingII. Protein identification
C. Northern BlottingIII. Protein-protein interaction
D. Yeast two-hybrid systemIV. RNA identification
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:166

Arrange the given steps involved in polymerase chain reaction-

(A). Denaturation

(B). Annealing

(C). Extension

(D). Cycling

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:167

Vertical gel electrophoresis is routinely used for the seperation of-

QUESTION ID:168

Which is not a unit of radioactivity?

QUESTION ID:169

In the technique called centrifugation, the centrifugal field (G) is calculated as-

QUESTION ID:170

Match List I with List II

LIST I (DNA/RNA modifying enzymes)LIST II (Reactions)
A. DNase II. cleaves and digests RNA and not DNA
B. RNase AII. cleaves and digest the RNA strand of RNA-DNA heteroduplex
C. S1 nucleaseIII. produces single-stranded nicks in DNA
D. RNase HIV. degrades single-stranded DNA and RNA
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:171

Number of chromosomes present in Arabidopsis thaliana is-

QUESTION ID:172

What percentage of genes are found in human genome? 

QUESTION ID:173

Match List I with List II

LIST ILIST II
A. Histone erasersI. Methyltransferase
B. Histone readersII. Deacetylases
C. Histone writersIII. Topoisomerase
D. DNA UnwindingIV. Bromodomains proteins
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:174

Nucleosome is basically composed of-

(A). Histone core

(B). Linker histone

(C). Core DNA

(D). Linker DNA

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:175

Arrange according to their lower to higher genome size:

(A) Lambda (λ)
(B) T4
(C) ΦX174
(D) T7

QUESTION ID:176

With the addition of linking number (Lk) by +2 to a relaxed DNA consisting of Lk = 200

QUESTION ID:177

What are the function of topoisomerases?

QUESTION ID:178

Arrange the given processes involved in nitrogen cycle

(A). Ammonia formation

(B). Organic nitrogen formation

(C). Soil organic nitrogen formation

(D). Nitrate formation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:179

The complete proteins produced by an organism at any one time, is called

QUESTION ID:180

Retroviruses are enveloped viruses that can be engineered to deliver how many bases of single-stranded RNA

QUESTION ID:181

Adenoviruses are frequently used in gene delivery experiments. Their average genome size is 36,000 base pairs. Of their total DNA content, upto how much of adenovirus genome can be replaced by foreign DNA?

QUESTION ID:182

Gene gun is one of the popular physical delivery method. Microparticles that are loaded to deliver DNA are made up of which metal?

QUESTION ID:183

While delivering genes by chemical methods, one popular conjecture about what happens to poly(ethylenimine)/DNA complexes following endocytosis is known as the proton sponge hypothesis, which entails the following steps

(A). PEI/DNA complexes are endocytosed.

(B). V-ATPases will pump protons into the vesicular interior

(C). Water will enter the vesicle to balance the osmotic gradient

(D). The vesicle will swell due to the entry of ions and water, leading to rupture

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:184

Arrange the steps in the correct order as they are involved in RNA interference (RNAi).

(A). Formation of small interfering RNAs (siRNAs)

(B). Activation of RNase III like enzyme Dicer

(C). Inactivation of target RNA

(D). Formation of RISC complex

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:185

Arrange the different steps of transcription in the correct order-

(A). Transcription bubble formation

(B). Phosphorylation of CTD tail

(C). Recruitment of elongation factors

(D). Dephosphorylation of CTD tail

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:186

In human karyotype, chromosomes are divided into how many groups?

QUESTION ID:187

In human karyotype, X chromosome belongs to which group?

QUESTION ID:188

Which one of the recombinant DNA technique is alsmost obsolete?

QUESTION ID:189

What is the function of DNA gyrase in circular DNA?

QUESTION ID:190

Which of the following is the example of Gram-negative bacteria?

QUESTION ID:191

Which of the following are viral diseases-

(A). Yellow fever

(B). Hepatitis B

(C). Chickenpox

(D). Rabies

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:192

Lederberg and Tatum describe the phenomena of-

QUESTION ID:193

Match List I with List II

LIST ILIST II
A. D'Herelle and TwortI. Bacterial transformation
B. Beadle and TatumII. Penicillin
C. FlemingIII. One-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis
D. GriffithIV. Bacterial viruses
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:194

Vaccine is not available for which disease-

QUESTION ID:195

Antibody formed immediately after infection is-

QUESTION ID:196

Arrange the steps involved in Gram-stain procedure-

(A). Staining with Crystal Violet

(B). Staining with Gram's Iodine

(C). Decolorization

(D). Staining with Safranine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:197

Yellow fever is caused due to the human-to-human transmission by-

QUESTION ID:198

Amino acid that serves as precursor for formation of the pigment responsible for human skin color is

QUESTION ID:199

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Body part)LIST II (Bone involved)
A. ShoulderI. Tarsals
B. ThighII. Carpals
C. WristIII. Humerus
D. AnkleIV. Femur
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:200

The propagation of action potential in myelinated nerve fiber is faster because of

QUESTION ID:201

Calcitonin is produced by

QUESTION ID:202

The lymphoid stem cells in the bone marrow form

(A). Natural killer cells

(B). Platelets

(C). B lymphocyte

(D). Neutrophils

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:203

The perforation between left and right atria of a fetal heart is known as

QUESTION ID:204

On the basis of type of body cavity, platyhelminthes can be categorized as

QUESTION ID:205

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Procedure)LIST II (Features)
A. Radiation hybrid mappingI. DNA can be cut into large fragments and circularized for use in chromosome walking
B. Sequence tagged site (STS) mappingII. Useful for cloning of overlapping DNA fragments (restricted to about 200 kb)
C. Chromosome jumpingIII. Fragment genome into large pieces and locate markers and genes
D. Chromosome walkingIV. Applicable to any part of DNA sequence if some sequence information is available
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:206

A clotting disorder which is sex-linked disease -

QUESTION ID:207

Which one of the following is a peat moss?

QUESTION ID:208

The basal portion of a mature ligule of Selaginella is called as:

QUESTION ID:209

Vessels are present in:

QUESTION ID:210

Match List I with List II 

LIST I (Transposons)LIST II (Organism)
A. P elementI. Drosophila
B. LINE and SINEII. Human
C. Ty elementIII. Yeast
D. Tn elementIV. Bacteria
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:211

The peptidyl transferase enzyme activity is located in the

QUESTION ID:212

Transcription factors that mediate the binding of RNA polymerase to DNA template are

(A). TFIIA

(B). TATA box

(C). TFIIB

(D). Small nuclear ribonucleoproteins

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:213

The histone that links two histone octamers is

QUESTION ID:214

tRNA is synthesized by

QUESTION ID:215

The gene transmission from a male parent to a female offspring ("child") to a male "grandchild" is called:

QUESTION ID:216

Which of the following statement is true for Barr body?

QUESTION ID:217

Which of the following combinations of statements are true about C4 cycle?

(A). Malic acid formed in the chloroplast of mesophyll cells

(B). Malic acid is transported to the chloroplast of bundle sheath cell

(C). Pyruvic acid produced in mesophyll cells move to the chloroplast of bundle sheath cells

(D). Malic acid is transported to the chloroplast of mesophyll cells

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:218

Which of the following statement is true for X linked recessive inheritance?

QUESTION ID:219

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Condition)LIST II (Characteristics)
A. Color blindnessI. deficiency of clotting factor VIII
B. Hemophilia BII. Insensitivity to green and red light
C. Hemophilia AIII. deficiency of clotting factor IX
D. G-6-PD deficiencyIV. severe anemic condition
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:220

Non-vascular land plants are called:

QUESTION ID:221

Taxol medicine used in treatment of cancer is extracted from:

QUESTION ID:222

The leaves used for wrapping tobacco in a 'bidi' are...

QUESTION ID:223

Choose the correct sequence of electron transport during electron transport chain of light reaction:

(A) Pheophytin

(B) Plastoquinone

(C) Cytb6-f complex

(D) Plastocyanin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:224

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Photoperiodism)LIST II (Explanation)
A. Short Day Plants (SDP)I. day light period of 14-16 hours
B. PRII. absorbs light at 730-735nm
C. Long Day Plants (LDP)III. dark period of about 14-16 hours
D. PFRIV. absorbs light at 660-665nm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:225

Following are the steps involved in processing of green tea:

(A). Fermentation and drying

(B). Twisting and rolling of leaves to facilitate break up

(C). Initial removal of moisture content

(D). Crushing, Tearing and Curling by CTC method

QUESTION ID:226

What will be the energy of 1 mole of photon having a wavelength of 200 nm?

[h=6.6×10−34 Js, c=3.0×108 ms−1]

QUESTION ID:227

A black body has a temperature of 2900 K. The wavelength of peak emission (
⁡\lambda_{\max}) of the radiation emitted from it is approximately equal to

QUESTION ID:228

Identify the correct statements.

A. Eddy diffusion is a dominant mixing process in the stratosphere.

B. Height of the troposphere at poles is less than that over the equator.

C. Mean free path of molecules in the mesosphere is longer than that in the troposphere.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:229

Earthquakes occur in

QUESTION ID:230

Arrange the following minerals in the correct sequence of crystallization starting from a cooling magma.

A. Oligoclase

B. Muscovite

C. Anorthite

D. Quartz

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:231

The coal mining carried out by land owners/local miners in Meghalaya state of India in form of a long narrow opening is known as

QUESTION ID:232

What is the hardness of corundum in the Mohs scale of hardness?

QUESTION ID:233

Match List-I with List-II 

LIST ILIST II
A. FeldsparI. Halide
B. GypsumII. Silicate
C. AzuriteIII. Carbonate
D. HaliteIV. Sulfate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:234

Which of the following minerals have platy crystal habit?

A. Muscovite

B. Sillimanite

C. Asbestos

D. Biotite

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:235

What is the plutonic equivalent of rhyolite?

QUESTION ID:236

In asthenosphere, the velocity of S-waves ________ thereby indicating that this zone consists of partly molten rocks.

QUESTION ID:237

Which of the following were the characteristics of the prebiotic primitive earth?

(A). Presence of CO2
(B). Presence of CH4
(C). Presence of H2O vapour
(D). Presence of O2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:238

Water that got trapped during the formation of sedimentary rock is referred to as

QUESTION ID:239

Cooking pans made from which of the following metals would need less heat to achieve a certain cooking temperature?

QUESTION ID:240

Match List-I with List-II 

LIST I (Experiment)LIST II (Conclusion)
A. Photoelectric effectI. Ether medium does not exist
B. Michelson -MorleyII. Light is made up of photons
C. Stern- GerlachIII. Quantization of electronic orbit
D. Franck-HertzIV. Electron spin moment
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:241

Arrange the following II B (or 12) group elements in the increasing order of their Pauling electronegativities.

A. Zn

B. Hg

C. Cd

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:242

What will be the molar concentration of ammonium ion in a 100 ppb ammoniacal solution?

QUESTION ID:243

In which of the following pair of chemical species, S does not have same oxidation number?

QUESTION ID:244

Which of the following chemical species will dominantly exist in water having a pH of less than 5?

QUESTION ID:245

Which of the following microbial species are helpful in denitrification process?

A. Rhizobium sp

B. Achromobacter

C. Pseudomonas

D. Nitrosomonas

E. Azotobacter

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:246

Which of the following phosphate species does not exist in water?

QUESTION ID:247

When ice starts melting from 0°C to 8.5°C, its density will ________

QUESTION ID:248

Which of the following metal is bioaccumulative in nature but does not undergo biomagnification to cause adverse health effects?

QUESTION ID:249

What will be the unit of equilibrium constant for the following reaction?

CH3​COCH3​+HCN ⇌ CH3​C(OH)(CN)CH3​

QUESTION ID:250

Partial pressure of nitrogen gas (N2 ) in atmosphere will be

QUESTION ID:251

Which of the following codons are called as nonsense codon?

QUESTION ID:252

Organogenesis in human takes place during ________.

QUESTION ID:253

The correct sequence of classification of house mouse is

A. Muridae

B. Mammalia

C. Chordata

D. Rodentia

E. Mus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:254

Hypothalamus is present in which part of the brain?

QUESTION ID:255

Match List-I with List-II 

LIST ILIST II
A. LigaseI. Reduce topological strain
B. HelicaseII. Adds phosphate group
C. GyraseIII. Joins two open ends of DNA
D. KinaseIV. Unwinds the DNA
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:256

There are several instances where the DNA of the bacteriophage reside inside the bacterial cell without replication and virus generation. The process of co-existence of the bacterium and phage DNA is known as

QUESTION ID:257

Which of the following organelle contains DNA?

QUESTION ID:258

The "Biofilm" is a thin layer that constitutes

QUESTION ID:259

Which of the following structure can not be taken by the single sub unit protein?

QUESTION ID:260

Overall Glycolysis yields some ATPs but in early stages, ATP is utilised to phosphorylate sugar substrate. In which of the following steps, ATP is consumed?

QUESTION ID:261

Starch, the major product of photosynthesis in leaves, gets accumulated in

QUESTION ID:262

Which of the following reproduce sexually by forming ascospores, which are small sacs commonly referred as "asci"

QUESTION ID:263

Which among the following is/are false?

A. Most conifers are monoecious, evergreen and produce resin.

B. Cycads are dioecious.

C. There is one living species in the phyllum Ginkgophyta.

D. Gnetum, show the presence of two distinct Archegonia in a female gametophyte.

E. Compositae family is known as Asteraceae.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:264

Fungal diversity is currently classified into

QUESTION ID:265

Bryophytes are divided into three distinct phylla. The liverworts belong to the phyllum

QUESTION ID:266

It took 168 years for a population to increase from 0.4 million to 3.2 million. If we assume exponential growth at a constant rate over that period of time, the growth rate would be approximately

QUESTION ID:267

The main limiting factors for both plants and animals on a global scale are

A. Fire

B. pH

C. Temperature

D. Moisture

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:268

Match List-I with List-II 

LIST I - Ecological ParametersLIST II - Unit of Measurement
A. Net primary productivityI. g/m2
B. Absorbed photosynthetically active radiationII. g/L
C. PhosphorusIII. Joules/area/year
D. Plant biomassIV. gC/area/year
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:269

Island communities are a special case in community dynamics in which species makeup is driven by interaction between

A. Predator abundance

B. Disturbance

C. Colonization

D. Extinction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:270

Arrange the stages by which a species become invasive in an area

A. Introduced

B. Established

C. Pest

D. Imported

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:271

Polar species tend to have longer geographical range than tropical species in many taxonomic groups. This is generally known as

QUESTION ID:272

Choose the correct statements

A. In sickle cell anemia, a valine is substituted for the glutamic acid at a location on the surface of the protein near the oxygen binding site.

B. The red blood cells of people, who are homozygous for the sickle cell, allele collapse into sickled shaped when the oxygen level in the blood is low.

C. Individual who are heterozygous for the recessive valine-specifying allele are said to possess the sickle cell trait.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:273

Match List-I with List-II 

LIST I (Species)LIST II (Number of chromosomes)
A. Triticum vulgareI. 18
B. Brassica oleraceaeII. 42
C. Arabidopsis thalianaIII. 4
D. Machaeranthera gracilisIV. 10
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:274

Choose the correct statements

A. Many echinoderms are able to regenerate lost parts

B. In many echinoderms, respiration and waste removal takes place by means of skin gills

C. Sea urchins lack distinct arms but have the same five-part body plan as all other echinoderms

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:275

Bone present in the thigh region of human is known as

QUESTION ID:276

The monumental book 'Silviculture of Indian Trees' is written by

QUESTION ID:277

A geographical unit delineated by sharp gradients and precipitation or snow melt flows along one side of the gradient, depending upon local topography and natural hydrology is called

QUESTION ID:278

The publication 'The Future We Want' is outcome of

QUESTION ID:279

Match List-I with List-II 

LIST I (Aquaculture system)LIST II (Potential Environmental Impact)
A. Coastal PondI. Transfer of diseases
B. Inland PondII. Introduction of exotic species
C. Mollusk CultureIII. Destruction of mangroves
D. Net Pen/CageIV. Degradation of land
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:280

Arrange the following phase of successional development of vegetation community in a given habitat in a reverse order (last to 1st) as suggested by F.E. Clements.

A. Phase of migration

B. Phase of nudation

C. Phase of ecesis

D. Phase of reaction

E. Phase of stabilisation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:281

Photochemical smog formation in ambient atmosphere requires

(A). Volatile hydrocarbons
(B). Ozone
(C). SO2
(D). Sunlight temperature (>25 °C)
(E). NOx

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:282

Stratospheric ozone protects us from

QUESTION ID:283

Which of the following greenhouse gas is not emitted from the landfill sites?

QUESTION ID:284

A sound pressure level of 40 decibels is equivalent to a sound pressure of

QUESTION ID:285

Which of the following is a criteria pollutant as per National ambient air quality standards?

QUESTION ID:286

Match List-I with List-II 

LIST ILIST II
A. FragmentationI. Degradation of detritus into simple inorganic substances by bacteria and fungi
B. HumificationII. Release of nutrients from humus by microbial action
C. CatabolismIII. Breakdown of detritus by earthworm into smaller particles
D. MineralisationIV. Dark coloured substances, highly resistant to microbial action
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:287

Arrange the following green house gases in increasing order of their relative contribution to global warming.

A. CO2

B. N2O

C. CFCs

D. CH4

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:288

In a sewage water, which of the following is expected to be present in highest quantity (mg/l)?

QUESTION ID:289

The process that results in a chemical becoming increasingly concentrated at successive higher trophic levels in a food web is referred as

QUESTION ID:290

Acidic soils are mostly found in

A. Cold climate

B. Hot climate

C. Dry climate

D. Humid climate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:291

Arrange the following soil horizons as they occur from top to bottom

A. O horizon

B. A horizon

C. B horizon

D. E horizon

E. C horizon

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:292

A sample has an absorbance of 2. It's transmittance would be

QUESTION ID:293

Which of the following is a polar solvent?

QUESTION ID:294

An analyst reported 40.9 ppm Na in all 10 analysis of the standard solution having true value of
40.1±0.340.1 \pm 0.3 ppm. This data is

QUESTION ID:295

Find the limit of resolution of a microscope where numerical aperture of the objective is 1.4 and the beam of light have wavelength of 400 nm.

QUESTION ID:296

While separating the protein using polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis, the major ions which play an important role in stacking the protein are

i. glycine of the running gel buffer

ii. chloride ion

iii. the protein itself

Which of the following is correct?

QUESTION ID:297

Match List-I with List-II 

LIST I (Interaction)LIST II (Species A, Species B)
A. AmensalismI. (+, -)
B. PredationII. (-, -)
C. CommensalismIII. (+, 0)
D. CompetitionIV. (-, 0)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:298

The rate of decrease of dissolved oxygen (Lt) with time t in a waste water sample is directly proportional to the amount of oxygen present in the sample at time t. dLt/dt = -kLt. The unit of rate constant K will be

QUESTION ID:299

Which of the following is an example of a condition caused by chromosomal abnormality?

QUESTION ID:300

Which of the following forest type occupies largest area in India?

QUESTION ID:301

The causal agent of Byssinosis is:

QUESTION ID:302

The important characteristic of k-selected population is:

(A). convex survivorship curve

(B). low fecundity

(C). exist close to their carrying capacity

(D). intraspecific competition

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:303

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Processes)LIST II (Changes)
A. NudationI. Creation of barren area
B. EcesisII. Establishment of species
C. ReactionIII. Community in equilibrium with organisms
D. StabilizationIV. Modification of habitat
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:304

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The zone of transition between two communities is called an ecotone.

Reason (R): The ecotone has more diversity than either of the two communities.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:305

The decreasing order of concentration of greenhouse gases (GHGs) in the atmosphere is:

(A). CO2
(B). CH4
(C). CFCs
(D). N2O

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:306

Inverted ovules are called as:

QUESTION ID:307

The different methods to overcome self incompatibility are:

(A). mixed pollination

(B). bud pollination

(C). stub pollination

(D). intra-ovarian pollination

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:308

Match List I with List II 

LIST I (Processes)LIST II (Scientists)
A. Intra ovarian pollinationI. L. Haberlandt
B. Double fertilizationII. E. Strasburger
C. SyngamyIII. S. Nawaschin
D. Necrohormone theoryIV. Kanta
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:309

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Male sterility in angiosperms can be induced by inserting a bacterial gene called BARNASE.

Reason (R): BARNASE causes premature breakdown of tapetum resulting in arrest of microspore development.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:310

The most effective sugar in promoting pollen germination is:

QUESTION ID:311

The specimen collected from the same locality from where the holotype was collected is called as:

QUESTION ID:312

Free central placentation is present in the family of:

QUESTION ID:313

Match List I with List II 

LIST I (Taxonomic characters)LIST II (Families)
A. JaculatorsI. Apiaceae
B. Caryopsis fruitsII. Euphorbiaceae
C. CyathiumIII. Poaceae
D. Cremocarp fruitIV. Acanthaceae
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:314

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): APG classification system is not useful for adoption in herbaria and flora.

Reason (R): APG system taxa have been classified only up to the level of family.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:315

The important character of the family Asteraceae is:

(A). Inflorescence is a racemose head or capitulum

(B). Presence of cypsela fruit

(C). Presence of gynostegium

(D). Placentation is free central

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:316

Hanstein proposed -

QUESTION ID:317

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Root apical cell theory of Nageli does not hold good for flowering plants.

Reason (R): In flowering plants, a group of initials has been observed.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:318

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Stomata type)LIST II (Family)
A. AnomocyticI. Acanthaceae
B. AnisocyticII. Magnoliaceae
C. ParacyticIII. Apiaceae
D. DiacyticIV. Papaveraceae
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:319

The anomalous distribution of vascular tissues in older stem of Bougainvillea is due to:

(A). formation of accessory cambial rings

(B). formation of interxylary phloem

(C). abnormal behaviour of normal cambium

(D). abnormal behaviour of abnormal cambium

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:320

Malacophyllous leaves are found in:

QUESTION ID:321

Which amino acid(s) contain's the amino group (-NH2) attached as a side chain.

QUESTION ID:322

The ideal value for the backbone dihedral angles for antiparallel β-sheets are:

(A). ϕ=−120∘\phi = -120^\circ and ψ=+125∘\psi = +125^\circ
(B). ϕ=−139∘\phi = -139^\circ and ψ=+135∘\psi = +135^\circ
(C). ϕ=−120∘\phi = -120^\circ and ψ=+130∘\psi = +130^\circ
(D). ϕ=−115∘\phi = -115^\circ and ψ=+140∘

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:323

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Chemical nature of side chain)LIST II (Amino Acid)
A. Aliphatic amino acidI. Pro
B. Sulphur containingII. Gln
C. IminoIII. Val
D. AmideIV. Cys
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:324

Which of the following is correct statement about ATP  (DROP)

A. It contains two phosphodiester bond

B. It has one phosphate ester bond

C. It contains ribose sugar

D. It contains adenosine as nucleoside

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:325

Myoglobin is a globular protein, which is made up of ______ amino acids.

QUESTION ID:326

Which types of protein is commonly found in RBC?

QUESTION ID:327

N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) in the cell wall of bacteria are connected by:

QUESTION ID:328

What are the basic properties of Gram positive (+ve) bacteria

(A). Thick peptidoglycan layer is present

(B). Teichoic acids are present

(C). Periplasmic space is negligible

(D). Outer membrane is present

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:329

Match List I with List II

LIST I TermsLIST II Example
A. HalophileI. Thermus aquaticus
B. AcidophileII. Treponema
C. ThermophileIII. Halobacterium
D. MicroaerophileIV. Sulfolobus
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:330

Agrobacterium rhizogenes is used to genetically engineer the plant because of the following statement:

QUESTION ID:331

Which of the following technique is used to inactivate a gene by altering the DNA

QUESTION ID:332

Which is not a transmembrane protein?

QUESTION ID:333

'B' gene of ABCD flower model is made silenced in a plant. Which of the whorl is absent in the plant.

(A). Sepals

(B). Carpels

(C). Stamens

(D). Petals

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:334

The total number of ATP is required for the conversion of one N2 to 2NH4+ during biological N2 fixation?

QUESTION ID:335

Lignin

(A). is a polysaccharide

(B). is second most abundant organic compound

(C). is a polymer of aromatic alcohols

(D). synthetic pathway is peroxidase dependent

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:336

Jasmonic acid

QUESTION ID:337

The enzyme which converts citrate to isocitrate in TCA cycle is:

QUESTION ID:338

The amount of DNA present in the genome of a species is called as

QUESTION ID:339

Which of the following is the most common form of a DNA?

QUESTION ID:340

Which of the following is true about Poly(A) tail?

(A). Synthesizes post transcriptionally

(B). Usually shorter than 300 nt

(C). Its function is to protect the mRNA from cytoplasmic RNAases

(D). Its function is to stimulate translation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:341

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Group-1)LIST II (Group-2)
A. VNTR sequenceI. Gene regulation of the same chromosome
B. Leader sequenceII. Ribosome binding site
C. SD sequenceIII. DNA finger printing
D. Cis-acting sequenceIV. Function in attenuation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:342

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Euchromatin is transcriptionally active and contains most of the protein-coding DNA.

Reason (R): Heterochromatin is light staining and less condensed portion of the chromatin.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:343

Selenocysteine is an amino acid, which is:

QUESTION ID:344

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Osmosis is a special type of diffusion in which movement of substances occurs from higher solute concentration to lower solute concentration.

Reason (R): Diffusion is dominant mode of transport at the scale of a cell.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:345

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The application of transgenic plants are in the delayed ripening, production of bioplastic, plant as a bioreactor for the production of antibodies, etc.

Reason (R): Agrobacteria that carries a recombinant plasmid with both a selectable marker and a desired transgene are used to make plant transgenic.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:346

The role of ethylene in plants is:

QUESTION ID:347

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Plants source)LIST II (Uses)
A. Allium sativaI. Anticarcinogenic
B. Coptis japonicaII. Cardiac medicine
C. Taxus baccataIII. Insecticidal
D. Digitalis lanataIV. Antibacterial
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:348

The shape of chloroplast in Spirogyra is

QUESTION ID:349

Which of the following algae are used as bio-fertilizers?

QUESTION ID:350

Name the fungus whose extract from the sclerotia can be used to produce a powerful hallucinogenic drug?

QUESTION ID:351

Who discovered the heterothallism in fungi?

QUESTION ID:352

Match List I with List II

LIST ILIST II
A. PenicillinI. Aspergillus niger
B. Fermentation of sucrose and molasses to produce citric acidII. Phytophthora infestans
C. Fermentation of carbohydrates to produce ethyl alcohol and CO2III. Penicillium notatum
D. Irish potato famineIV. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:353

The alternate host for Puccinia graminis is

QUESTION ID:354

Which of the following is/are prophylactic (preventive) methods of plant disease control

(A). Eradication of alternate host

(B). Spraying plants with pesticides and fungicides on a regular basis

(C). Crop rotation practices to control soil borne diseases

(D). Growing antagonistic plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:355

Bryophytes are distinct from all other land plants in having an independent ______ and a dependent ______

QUESTION ID:356

Pseudoelaters, which help in the dispersal of spores, are present in

QUESTION ID:357

Which of the following is not an identifying feature of Cycas

QUESTION ID:358

Which of the following Gymnosperms possess winged pollen grains?

QUESTION ID:359

A stele which does NOT contain a central pith is called as:

QUESTION ID:360

What is the major secondary metabolite present in Clove buds?

QUESTION ID:361

Reserpine is obtained from the roots?

QUESTION ID:362

Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE for Retting in Jute

(A). It is a kind of fermentation process

(B). It employs the action of bacteria on plants

(C). In this, the cortical tissues and phloem tissues of the bark of the plants which contains free strands are decomposed to separate fibre from non-fibrous woody stem

(D). This process does not involve any microorganisms and is purely the outcome of long soaking hours

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:363

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Economically useful plant)LIST II (Family)
A. Corchorus sp.I. Piperaceae
B. Rosa damascenaII. Malvaceae
C. Piper nigrumIII. Rosaceae
D. Curcuma longaIV. Zingiberaceae
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:364

According to Vavilov, crop plants evolved from the wild species in the area which shows greater diversity and richness in variation. That area is called as:

QUESTION ID:365

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Numerical Change in Chromosome)LIST II (Symbolic representation)
A. AutotetraploidI. 4x
B. NullisomyII. 2x(1)+2x(2)+2x(3)
C. MonosomyIII. 2n-2
D. AllohexaploidIV. 2n-1
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:366

In sweet pea, the development of purple colored flowers requires the presence of two dominant genes, C and R, e.g. CCRR. When either C (e.g. ccRR) or R (e.g. CCrr) or both the genes (e.g. ccrr) are present in homozygous state, the purple color of flowers CANNOT be produced. If CCrr (white) is crossed with ccRR (white), what will be the modified dihybrid ratio at F2 generation.

QUESTION ID:367

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Penetrance and Expressivity are term which can be used interchangeably

Reason (R): Expressivity is the degree to which a genotype is expressed as a phenotype within an individual, while penetrance refers to the percentage of individuals with a particular genotype who express the associated phenotype.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:368

Calculate the degree of freedom, if the given data set represents a dihybrid cross?

QUESTION ID:369

The transfer of DNA from one bacterial strain to another by a virus and the subsequent recombination between the chromosomes of the recepient cells and the introduced DNA is called as:

QUESTION ID:370

In the Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis, what is the role of APS (ammonium persulphate)?

QUESTION ID:371

What is the correct sequence of the steps which takes place in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?

QUESTION ID:372

During the germination of cereal seeds, what is the role of alpha-amylase present in the aleurone layer?

QUESTION ID:373

Which disease is a severe form of protein-energy malnutrition which results when a person does not consume enough protein and calories?

QUESTION ID:374

There are different possible glucuronides that can be used as substrates for the β-glucuronidase (GUS-reporter system), depending on the type of detection needed.

The most common substrate for GUS histochemical staining is?

QUESTION ID:375

Which of the following cell organelle is regarded as semi-autonomous?

QUESTION ID:376

Sickle-cell anemia is a disease characterised by the patient's erythrocyte, having a characteristic sickle or crescent shape. Select the correct statement about the disease -

QUESTION ID:377

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Amino Acid)List-II (pK value)
(A) α-Carboxyl groups(I) 1.8-2.9
(B) α-Amino groups(II) 8.8-10.8
(C) Acidic Amino Acid - Asp(III) 12.5
(D) Basic Amino Acid - Arg(IV) 3.9
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:378

Gluconeogenesis synthesizes glucose from noncarbohydrate precursors.

(A) The main site of gluconeogenesis is the liver.

(B) Far lesser extent of gluconeogenesis occurs in kidneys.

(C) Very little gluconeogenesis occurs in brain or muscle.

(D) The second main site of gluconeogenesis is the heart.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:379

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Organism)List-II (Number of Chromosome)
(A) Fruit fly (Drosophila melanogaster)(I) Diploid number 40
(B) Nematode (Caenorhabditis elegans)(II) Haploid number 06
(C) Human (Homo sapiens)(III) Haploid number 23
(D) Mouse (Mus musculus)(IV) Diploid number 08
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:380

People with hemophilia are unable to produce a factor needed for blood clotting; the cuts, bruises, and wounds of hemophiliacs continue to bleed and, if not stopped by transfusion with clotting factor, can cause death. Select the correct statement about hemophilia -

(A) The principal type of hemophilia in humans is due to a recessive X-linked mutation.

(B) These males have inherited the mutation from their heterozygous mothers.

(C) Affected males never transmit the mutant allele to their sons.

(D) Nearly all the individuals who have hemophilia are male.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:381

Clinical Syndrome : Karyotype : Chromosome Formula : Estimated Frequency at Birth

(A). Down Syndrome : 47, +13 : 2n+1 : 1/20,000
(B). Patau Syndrome : 47, +21 : 2n+1 : 1/2,000
(C). Edward Syndrome : 47, +18 : 2n+1 : 1/8000
(D). Klinefelter Syndrome : 47, XXY : 2n+1 : 1/500 male births

Choose the correct answer for the above statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:382

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Enzyme)List-II (Type of reaction catalyzed)
(A) Alcohol Dehydrogenase(I) Bond formation coupled to ATP hydrolysis
(B) Trypsin(II) Transfer of electrons
(C) Hexokinase(III) Hydrolysis reactions
(D) Pyruvate carboxylase(IV) Transfer of functional groups
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:383

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Coenzyme)List-II (Precursor)
(A) Coenzyme A(I) Vitamin B1
(B) FAD, FMN(II) Pantothenic Acid
(C) NAD+, NADP+(III) Vitamin B2
(D) Thiamine pyrophosphate(IV) Niacin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:384

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Vitamin precursor)List-II (Deficiency disease)
(A) Vitamin B1(I) Pernicious anemia
(B) Vitamin B2(II) Beriberi
(C) Vitamin B6(III) Growth retardation
(D) Vitamin B12(IV) Dermatitis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:385

Which of the following statements are correct regarding immunoglobulin A?

(A) IgA is the main class of antibody in secretions such as tears, saliva.

(B) IgA is also found in secretions of lungs and intestine.

(C) IgA is the first line of defense against infection at these sites.

(D) IgA is the main immunoglobin in the bloodstream late in the primary immune response.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:386

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Pollutant)List-II (Characteristics)
(A) Sulphur dioxide(I) Colourless gas with an offensive 'rotten egg' odor, slightly water soluble
(B) Nitrogen dioxide(II) Colourless, heavy, water soluble gas, with a pungent order.
(C) Ozone(III) Reddish-brown gas, slightly water soluble.
(D) Hydrogen Sulfide(IV) Pale-blue gas, water soluble, unstable, sweetish odor.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:387

Identify the rule that suggests that the endothermic animals from cold climates tend to have shorter extremities (ears and limbs) compared with animals from warmer climate-

QUESTION ID:388

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Statistical Terminology)List-II (Definition)
(A) Median(I) The reciprocal of the average, of reciprocals, of the values, of items, of a series.
(B) Mean

(II) The value of the middle item, of series, when it is arranged in ascending or

descending order of magnitude.

(C) Mode

(III) The value which we get by dividing the total, of the values of various given

items in a series, by the total number of items.

(D) Harmonic mean(IV) The most commonly or frequently occurring value in a series
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:389

Calculate the harmonic mean of the numbers 4, 5, and 10 collected in one experiment.

QUESTION ID:390

Following are few statements with reference to Biostatistics. Choose the statement/s which are incorrect.

(A). Type II error : α-error
(B). Type I error : β-error
(C). Correct null hypothesis is rejected in β-error
(D). Wrong null hypothesis is accepted in α-error

Choose the correct option from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:391

After electrophoresis, the gel containing the seperated proteins, is immersed in an acid alcoholic solution, of the dye this -

(A) Denatures the proteins

(B) Fixes them in the gel

(C) Ensures they do not wash out

(D) Allows dye to bind them

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:392

In the process of protein sequencing, trypsin and chymotrpsin are used for generating fragments. Select tryptic peptide from the list-

QUESTION ID:393

Which of the following statements related to transcription in bacteria/eukaryotes are correct?

(A) During concurrent promoter sequence recognition and melting, melting commences with base flipping, where two bases are flipped out into pockets of the primary sigma factor.

(B) Binding of α-amanitin to RNA polymerase II permits entry of nucleotides into RNA polymerase II active site and synthesis of RNA, but prevents translocation.

(C) RNA polymerase I cannot bind to upstream promoters.

(D) FACT is associated with RNA polymerase during transcriptional elongation and helps displace one histone octamer during transcription.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:394

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Hormone)List-II (Site of synthesis)
(A) Progesterone(I) Adrenal cortex
(B) Testosterone(II) Corpus luteum
(C) Estrone(III) Testis
(D) Aldosterone(IV) Ovary
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:395

In the process of exploring eukaryote 80S ribosome, the following components may be observed -

(A) 28S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA

(B) 5S rRNA and 34 proteins

(C) 23S rRNA

(D) 5S rRNA and 49 proteins

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:396

In an experiment, two fly populations are separately maintained, for many generations. Population A, contains closely related individuals, whereas, population B contains a set of unrelated individuals. Over many generations, it was observed that the fitness of individuals, in population A, is lower than the fitness of those in Population B, because -

QUESTION ID:397

Papain digestion of IgG antibody molecule results into -

QUESTION ID:398

Select the plant or ecosystem known to have highest energy conversion efficiency -

QUESTION ID:399

Select the vegetation type, having highest productivity, per unit weight (g leaf biomass-1 year-1) from the following sites –

QUESTION ID:400

Which one of the following are correct characteristic features set for bony fishes?

QUESTION ID:401

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Hormone)List-II (Function)
(A) Leptin(I) Conversion of glycogen to glucose-1 phosphate
(B) Pancreatic polypeptide(II) Suppresses appetite
(C) Parathyroid hormone(III) Inhibits somatostatin secretion
(D) Epinephrine in skeletal muscle(IV) Promotes formation of calcitriol
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:402

Place these steps in temporal order, first to last:

(A) Exocytosis of synaptic vesicles.

(B) Binding of neurotransmitter molecules to its receptors.

(C) Opening of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels.

(D) Opening of Na+ channels and influx of sodium ions.

(E) Generation of post synaptic potential.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:403

Which of the following is NOT TRUE with respect to control of respiration?

QUESTION ID:404

The Asian mongoose and the American skunk, evolved independently of each other, but show similar structures and features, for e.g., ability to spray their attacker with musk. The similarities between the two organisms are most likely the result of -

QUESTION ID:405

Rifampicin, an inhibitor of RNA polymerase, is added to a bacterial culture. The culture is immediately divided into three fractions, to which radioactive thymine or uracil or methionine are added respectively. Five minutes later the cells are lysed and the radioactive label in all macromolecules is monitored. What will you observe?

QUESTION ID:406

N-linked glycosylation in proteins of eukaryotes is initiated in the -

QUESTION ID:407

Arrange the following in order of their action -

(A) G1 cyclin CDK Complex

(B) APC-cdh1

(C) S Phase cyclin CDK Complex

(D) APC-cdc20

Choose the correct SEQUENCE answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:408

Identify the correct statements related to sex linked inheritance in humans

(A) Males are considered to be hemizygous, for genes present on X-chromosome.

(B) Majority of sex-linked traits are carried on the X-chromosome.

(C) Genes that are not sex-linked are present in somatic cells and absent in germ cells.

(D) 1:1 ratio of males and females in humans, is the result of meiosis in males.

(E) The single X-chromosome, present in the father, is inherited by the son.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:409

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Structure)List-II (Details relating to structure)
(A) Diaphysis(I) The regions between the diaphysis and epiphysis
(B) Epiphysis(II) A thin membrane that lines the internal bone surface
(C) Metaphysis(III) The proximal and distal end of the bone
(D) Endosteum(IV) The long cylindrical main portion of the bone
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:410

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Species)List-II (Identifying Characters of species)
(A) Allopatric Species(I) Species inhabiting the same geographical area
(B) Sympatric Species(II) Species inhabiting different geographical areas
(C) Sibling Species(III) Species occupying separate areas, that share a common boundary
(D) Parapatric Species(IV) Species which are morphologically identical, but reproductively isolated.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:411

Arrange the events in correct order of sequence

(A) Cleavage

(B) Cortical rotation

(C) Mid-blastula transition

(D) Gastrulation

Choose the correct SEQUENCE answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:412

Arrange the following in the correct sequence of DNA packaging -

(A) DNA scaffold

(B) Nucleosome formation

(C) Chromatosome formation

(D) Histone dimerization

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:413

Arrange the following animals on the basis of their phyla, according to increasing level of complexity -

(A) Scolopendra

(B) Nereis

(C) Dentalium

(D) Euplectella

(E) Physalia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:414

Arrange the following evolutionary events in the history of horse evolution chronologically -

(A) Miohippus

(B) Orohippus

(C) Hyracotherium

(D) Merychippus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:415

Which of the following statements are true?

(A) Differential gene expression can occur only at the level of transcription

(B) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region to initiate transcription

(C) Enhancers regulate transcription

(D) Transcription factors can recognize specific sequences of DNA in heterochromatic region

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:416

Which two embryological structures together form the bilaminar disc?

QUESTION ID:417

Cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells consists of

(A) Peptidoglycans

(B) Microtubules

(C) Chitin

(D) Microfilaments

(E) Cellulose

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:418

Which of the following statements is true concerning infrared spectroscopy?

QUESTION ID:419

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Phase)List-II (Characteristics of the phase)
(A) Lag Phase(I) Dying cells are higher than the dividing cells.
(B) Log Phase(II) Number of new cells equal to dying cells.
(C) Stationary Phase(III) Adoption to the nutrient environment.
(D) Decline Phase(IV) Binary fission is at maximum rate.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:420

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Technique)List-II (Connecting/purpose)
(A) DNA footprinting(I) Protein-protein interaction
(B) Yeast two hybrid system(II) VNTR
(C) DNA fingerprinting(III) DNA binding protein
(D) SAGE(IV) Transcriptome analysis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:421

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Structure)List-II (Function)
(A) Ascending loop of Henle(I) Reabsorption of glucose
(B) Descending loop of Henle(II) Sodium is actively thrown out
(C) Proximal tubule(III) Diffusion of water
(D) Collecting duct(IV) Passive entry of sodium
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:422

Sequentially arrange the following steps involved in blood clot formation -

(A) Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

(B) Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

(C) Adhesion and aggregation of platelets on damaged vessels

(D) Prothrombinase formed by extrinsic or intrinsic pathway

(E) Reduction of blood loss by initiation of a vascular system

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:423

Estrous and menstrual cycle are two types of cycles, that occur in female mammals. Both cycles begin after sexual maturity in females. Reproductive hormones induce these cycles in females. These cycles happen in order to prepare female mammals, for holding a child during pregnancy.

The primary difference between estrous and menstrual cycles is -

QUESTION ID:424

Which of the following statements about cortisol are correct?

(A) It decreases the circulating lymphocytes

(B) It increases the circulating eosinophils.

(C) It decreases the production of prostaglandins

(D) It inhibits the production of fibroblasts

(E) It alters immune system responses and suppresses the digestive and the reproductive systems.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

QUESTION ID:425

Which of the following statements made with regards to plasmid incompatibility are true?

(A) Plasmids having the same origin of replication, belong to the same incompatibility group.

(B) Plasmids having different origins of replication, belong to the same incompatibility group

(C) Plasmids of the same incompatibility group are compatible.

(D) Plasmids of the same incompatibility group are incompatible.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:426

Which organism's species have greater diversity in the Western Ghats than the Eastern Ghats?

QUESTION ID:427

Which of the following is a feature of a stable community?

QUESTION ID:428

The transition zone in biosphere reserve -

QUESTION ID:429

Migratory species pose special preservation challenges, because

QUESTION ID:430

Which of the following protected areas are declared Tiger Reserves in India?

(A) Bandipur

(B) Bhitarkanika

(C) Manas

(D) Sunderbans

(E) Kaziranga

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:431

Which of the following disease in humans, is caused due to expanded microsatellite repeats?

QUESTION ID:432

Microorganisms that produce antibiotics are unaffected by the same antibiotic. One of the mechanism to explain this is -

QUESTION ID:433

A student was asked to clone a DNA fragment, flanked by BamHI (GGATCC) sites into a vector, cut with Bglll (AGATCT). The cloning was successful, as these two restriction enzymes are known to create compatible sites. Based on this, what will be the restriction site configurations of these two enzymes (indicates the point of enzymatic cleavage).

QUESTION ID:434

During gastrulation in Xenopus frog, the blastocoel

QUESTION ID:435

Following statements are with reference to oogonia. Which of these is incorrect?

QUESTION ID:436

The following is the list of steps, involved in the transfer of bacterial DNA by generalized transduction. Which option represents the correct sequence of steps?

(A) Packaging of host genomic DNA fragment, into P1 phage head.

(B) Injection of DNA of transducing particle, into bacterial host

(C) Injection of P1 phage DNA, into bacterial host.

(D) Release of transducing particle, into bacterial host.

(E) Fragmentation of host genomic DNA, by phage-encoded endonuclease.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:437

The following is the list of steps involved in cloning of a gene. Which option represents the correct sequence of the process?

(A) Transformation with blue and white selection.

(B) RFLP analysis.

(C) Isolation of plasmid DNA.

(D) Ligation of gene, into TA-cloning vector.

(E) Amplification of gene by PCR, using Taq DNA polymerase.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:438

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Mammalian order)List-II (Examples)
(A) Perissodactyla(I) Porcupines
(B) Primates(II) Flying lemurs
(C) Dermoptera(III) Rhinoceroses
(D) Rodentia(IV) Horse
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:439

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Taxonomic Unit)List-II (Representative Example)
(A) Brachiopods(I) Proboscis worms
(B) Ctenophores(II) Lamp shells
(C) Nemertea(III) Comb jellies
(D) Onychophorans(IV) Velvet worms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:440

Which of the following statements are INCORRECT?

(A) Many animals with protostome development undergo spiral cleavage.

(B) Flat worms exhibit radial symmetry.

(C) Ray-finned fishes are also called sarcopterygians.

(D) Lophophore is a crown of ciliated tentacles that function in feeding.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:441

Bacteria produce an enzyme methylase which plays role in:

QUESTION ID:442

Dung beetles live in regions where cattle graze, quickly burying and recycling cattle droppings. Because of the dung beetles' activities, breeding habitats for disease-carrying flies are reduced, and the plants upon which cattle feed are nourished. The relationship between the dung beetles and disease-carrying flies is a type of:

QUESTION ID:443

Being a medical science student, in your very first anatomical investigation of a female body, arrange the order of appearance of following organs of immunological importance, in anterior to posterior direction in the body.

(A) Thymus

(B) Adenoids

(C) Peyer's patches

(D) Spleen

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:444

Which of the following molecules is NOT found in the Eosinophilic granule?

QUESTION ID:445

The correlation between the observed and predicted values of the outcome variable is known as:

QUESTION ID:446

The square root of the variance is known as:

QUESTION ID:447

A protein coding gene in the mouse was mutated such that the resultant protein was non-functional. The phenotypic effect of the mutation was observed in homozygous mutant mice, in heterozygous mice that inherited the mutation from the mother, and in heterozygous mice that inherited the mutation from the father.

This suggests that:

QUESTION ID:448

In a sucrose density gradient, what is the order of organelle sedimentation from lower to higher concentration of sucrose?

QUESTION ID:449

Select the correct statement about the membrane transport:

(A) Channel proteins form open pores through which small-sized molecules/ions can cross the membrane.

(B) Carrier proteins selectively bind specific molecules, and transport them across the membrane by undergoing a conformational change.

(C) Transport of molecules across membranes, through channel proteins and carrier proteins, always involves active transport.

(D) Small uncharged molecules can diffuse freely through the phospholipid layers.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:450

Capacitation is a process in which the:

QUESTION ID:451

Viruses are

QUESTION ID:452

Who described microorganisms as 'wee animalcules' in his letter to Royal Society of London?

QUESTION ID:453

Which of the following statements is incorrect about the bacteria?

QUESTION ID:454

Match the following protozoa with their taxonomic groups:

List-I (Protozoa)List-II (Taxonomic Group)
(A). Entamoeba histolytica(I). Sporozoans
(B). Trypanosoma(II). Ciliophora
(C). Paramecium(III). Mastigophora
(D). Plasmodium(IV). Sarcodina
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:455

Mushrooms and puffballs belongs to ________ class of fungi.

QUESTION ID:456

The plaque assay is used for quantification of 

QUESTION ID:457

Match List-I with List-II

List-IList-II
(A). Lichens(I). Protein coat called capsid protects nucleic acid
(B). Viroids(II). Completely lack cell wall and smallest living cell
(C). Bacteriophage(III). Good pollution indicators
(D). Mycoplasma(IV). A free RNA lacking protein coat
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:458

Which of the following is not a mutagen? 

QUESTION ID:459

Which of the following kinds of organism/s in ecosystem is/are considered as decomposers? 

QUESTION ID:460

Which of the following is not used as seed inoculant for cereal crops? 

QUESTION ID:461

Recombinant DNA Technology for gene transfer has following sequence of steps

(A). Fragmentation of DNA by restriction endonucleases

(B). Isolation of desired DNA fragment and its ligation into a vector

(C). Isolation of DNA

(D). Transfer of recombinant DNA into a host and culture of host cells in a medium at large scale

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:462

Which of the following is not an abiotic component of the ecosystem?

QUESTION ID:463

Number of Barr body/bodies found in XXY individual:

QUESTION ID:464

Arrange the following steps in formation of Pre-initiation complex in correct order

(A). TBP binds to TATA box and TFIIA binds DNA upstream of TATA box

(B). TFIIE then TFIIH bind forming the pre-initiation complex.

(C). TFIIB interacts with TBP

(D). RNAP II and TFIIF join the other proteins at the promoter.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:465

Which of the following interactions plays an important role in protein folding?

QUESTION ID:466

Enzymes accelerate the rate of cellular reactions by:

QUESTION ID:467

Match List-I with List-II

List-IList-II
(A). Alleles(I). an inherited character
(B). Trait(II). a particular segment of DNA responsible for the inheritance of a character
(C). Gene(III). two or more alternative forms of a gene
(D). Recessive(IV). an allele not expressed in the presence of dominant allele

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:468

Test cross is a cross of F1 progeny with

QUESTION ID:469

A colourblind person cannot differentiate between

QUESTION ID:470

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Type of chromosome)List-II (Position of centromere)
(A). Metacentric(I). Chromosome has a terminal centromere
(B). Acrocentric(II). Chromosome has middle centromere forming two equal arms
(C). Sub metacentric(III). Centromere is present close to one end forming one very long and other very short arm
(D). Telocentric(IV). Centromere is present slightly away from the middle of the chromosome forming one shorter and other longer arm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:471

Match List-I with List-II

List-IList-II
(A). Syphilis(I). Mycobacterium
(B). Kala azar(II). Corynebacterium
(C). Tuberculosis(III). Leishmania
(D). Diphtheria(IV). Treponema

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:472

Which of the following statement/s is true for cell membrane?

(A). It is composed mainly of lipids.

(B). Its fluid nature is important for cell growth, endocytosis, cell division etc.

(C). Fluid mosaic model of its structure was given by Griffith

(D). Its one of the important function is transport of molecules across it.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:473

Psychrophilic algae responsible for imparting the red coloration to snowfields is:

QUESTION ID:474

Crossing over occurs during ________ stage of prophase 1 of meiosis.

QUESTION ID:475

The sequence of phases in cell cycle is

(A). M phase

(B). G1 phase

(C). G2 phase

(D). S phase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:476

The lag phase in a bacterial growth curve does not occur under which of the following conditions? 

QUESTION ID:477

Choose the true statements about psychrophiles.

(A). Their enzymes have greater amounts of beta-sheet secondary structure.

(B). Their cytoplasmic membranes have higher content of unsaturated fatty acids.

(C). Their enzymes have greater polar amino acid content.

(D). Their transport proteins function at low temperatures.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:478

The capsid symmetry of poxviruses is:

QUESTION ID:479

Which of the following statements is correct? 

QUESTION ID:480

Which of the following is a professional APC?

QUESTION ID:481

For the separation of DNA by electrophoresis which of the following methods is used

QUESTION ID:482

Which pathway replaces TCA cycle when E. coli is grown on acetate as the only carbon source?

QUESTION ID:483

Dissimilatory nitrate reduction takes place under

QUESTION ID:484

The Wobble hypothesis refers to the less stringent base pairing specifity of the

QUESTION ID:485

GUG codes for valine in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, but when GUG is initiation codon, it codes for

QUESTION ID:486

Arrange the following steps involved in bacterial transformation in correct order:

(A). Pairing followed by integration of transforming DNA

(B). Generation of a transformed cell.

(C). Binding and entry of extracellular DNA into the competent cell.

(D). Degradation of one strand of transforming DNA.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:487

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Protein)List-II (Function)
(A). Trypsin(I). A hormone
(B). Collagen(II). Enables glucose transport into cells
(C). Insulin(III). An enzyme
(D). GLUT-4(IV). Intercellular ground substance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:488

The correct sequence of enzyme action is

(A). Binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape

(B). Binding of substrate to active site of an enzyme

(C). Breaking of chemical bonds of substrate and formation of new enzyme-product complex

(D). Products of reaction are released by enzyme.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:489

Select the correct statements with reference to cofactors of enzymes

(A). They are non-protein constituents of enzymes that bound to enzyme to make it catalytically active.

(B). Prosthetic groups are tightly bound to apoenzymes.

(C). The protein part of an enzyme is called apoenzyme.

(D). Coenzyme NADP contains vitamin niacin.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:490

Which of the following is not a function of the human microbiome?

QUESTION ID:491

A single nucleotide pair is inserted near the 5'-end of a protein coding DNA sequence. The most likely effect will be production of

QUESTION ID:492

When a mutational event leads to the replacement of one codon for another coding for the same amino acid, the resulting mutation is called

QUESTION ID:493

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Mutagen/Agent)List-II (Function)
(A). Clastogen(I). causes fragmentation of chromosome
(B). Oncogen(II). induces tumor formation
(C). Teratogen(III). result in developmental abnormalities
(D). Ethyl methane sulphonate(IV). alkylating agent

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:494

Which of the following statement/s is/are not true regarding significance of meiosis

(A). It is a mechanism by which conservation of specific chromosome number of each species is achieved across generations in sexually reproducing organisms.

(B). Increase genetic variability

(C). Decrease genetic variability

(D). Variations are not important for the process of evolution

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:495

The primary target of HIV is

QUESTION ID:496

The sequence of steps for live recombinant vaccine production is

(A). Putting the cells in the presence of an inhibitor

(B). Transfection of newly created plasmid into previously infected host cells

(C). Formation of recombinant plasmid

(D). Expression of recombinant genes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:497

Which of the following is an inhibitor of complex IV of ETC?

QUESTION ID:498

Key enzyme of the ED pathway is:

QUESTION ID:499

Which of the following types of cheese utilize Lactococcus lactis in its early stages of production?

(A). Mozzarella

(B). Cheddar

(C). Roquefort

(D). Parmesan

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:500

Which of the following is not a primary pollutant contributing to global air pollution?

QUESTION ID:501

The oxygen liberated during photosynthesis comes from

QUESTION ID:502

Match List-I with List-II

List-IList-II
(A). Rennin(I). PCR technology
(B). Protease(II). Coagulation of milk
(C). DNA polymerase(III). Household detergent
(D). Invertase(IV). Soft-center candies

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:503

The sequence of transfer of electrons in Z scheme of light reaction is

(A). Downhill to NADP+ reducing it to NADPH + H+

(B). Excitation of electrons and transfer to another acceptor

(C). Through Photosystem II to uphill to the acceptor

(D). Down the ETS to Photosystem I

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:504

Which of the following statements is not applicable to anoxygenic photosynthesis?

QUESTION ID:505

Which of the following is not a disaccharide?

QUESTION ID:506

Select the correct statement/s regarding Abscisic acid as a growth hormone

(A). It acts as general plant growth inhibitor.

(B). It is also called as stress hormone.

(C). It inhibits seed germination.

(D). It plays an important role in seed development, maturation and dormancy.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:507

Match List-I with List-II

List-IList-II
(A). Ustilago tritici(I). Crown gall disease
(B). Puccinia(II). Blight of potato
(C). Agrobacterium tumefaciens(III). Loose smuts of wheat
(D). Phytophthora infestans(IV). Leaf rusts

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:508

Tetracyclin is:

QUESTION ID:509

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Population interaction)List-II (Characteristics)
(A). Commensalism(I). When one species is harmed and other is unaffected
(B). Mutualism(II). When one species is benefitted and other is unaffected
(C). Amensalism(III). When both the species are benefitted
(D). Predation(IV). When one species kills the other

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:510

Pyramid of energy in an ecosystem is always

QUESTION ID:511

Which of the following statements about linkage is incorrect?

(A). Genes linked on the same chromosome segregate together.

(B). Frequency of crossing over is proportional to the distance between two linked genes.

(C). Chromosome maps also provide information about linked genes.

(D). Linked genes assort independently.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:512

Which of the following is a left handed helix?

QUESTION ID:513

The species that invade the bare area are called

QUESTION ID:514

The sequence of steps for sewage treatment is

(A). Chlorination

(B). Screening and transfer to grit chamber

(C). Sedimentation and Aeration

(D). Anaerobic sludge digestion

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:515

RNA Splicing is a process:

QUESTION ID:516

Which of the following enzymes is a high fidelity thermostable polymerase?

QUESTION ID:517

The Shine Dalgarno sequence plays an important role in

QUESTION ID:518

In a food chain man is

QUESTION ID:519

What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is destroyed for some reason?

(A). The ocean as carbon sink is adversely affected

(B). The ocean ecosystem is not affected

(C). The density of ocean is drastically decreased

(D). The food chains in the ocean are adversely affected

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:520

The genotypic and phenotypic ratio of F2 generation is the same in which of the following situations?

QUESTION ID:521

Which of the following statements are correct about nitrogen fixation?

(A). Nitrogenase is the key enzyme for nitrogen fixation.

(B). The process involves conversion of nitrogen to nitrate.

(C). The process takes place in the presence of oxygen.

(D). Some plants can also fix nitrogen.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:522

Sodium dodecyl sulphate used in SDS-PAGE is

QUESTION ID:523

Which of the following are not fermentative food products?

(A) Dosa

(B) Kefir

(C) Kimchi

(D) Pasta

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:524

The resistance of bacterial endospores to adverse environmental conditions is due to

QUESTION ID:525

Select the correct statements regarding thin layer chromatography

(A). It has two phases: one mobile phase and other stationary phase

(B). The relative movement of each component of a mixture is expressed as Rf value

(C). Spots of compounds which absorb iodine will show up as green spots

(D). The spots of colourless compounds are detected by putting the plate in UV light

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:526

Protection against pathogens relies on several levels of defense mechanisms. Arrange the following defense mechanisms in the order of their occurrence:

(A) Adaptive immunity

(B) Complement/Antimicrobial proteins

(C) Anatomic barriers

(D) Innate immune cells

QUESTION ID:527

Which of the following is the secondary messenger in GPCR signaling:

QUESTION ID:528

Glycosidic linkages present in Glycogen are:

QUESTION ID:529

Steps in a gene cloning experiment are:

(A) The gene to be cloned, is inserted into a vector that transports the gene into a host cell.

(B) After a large number of cell divisions, a colony of identical host cells is produced.

(C) In the host cell the vector multiplies producing identical copies of itself as well as of the gene that it carries.

(D) When the host cell divides, copies of the recombinant DNA molecule are passed to the progeny.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:530

In the fuzzy matching of regular expressions with a query sequence:

(A) Degree of closeness between two strings is determined.

(B) Distance metric is known as edit distance.

(C) Edit distance determines how close two strings are, by finding the minimum number of edits required to transform one string to another.

(D) Four main types of edits are Insert, Delete, Switch and Replace.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:531

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Enzyme)LIST II (Reducing equivalent/Energy phosphate)
A. Pyruvate dehydrogenaseI. ATP
B. Succinate dehydrogenaseII. NADH
C. Succinate thiokinaseIII. NADPH
D. 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenaseIV. FADH2
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:532

Citrate a product of Kreb cycle/TCA cycle inhibit the process of Glycolysis, which enzyme is inhibited by Citrate

QUESTION ID:533

Glycosylation is type of post-translational modification in which the carbohydrate group is added to the protein amino acids, which amino acid is linked to N- linked Glycosylation:

QUESTION ID:534

The Michaelis constant (Km) in enzyme kinetics represents:

QUESTION ID:535

Which of the following class A tumor arising from endodermal tissue is linked to

QUESTION ID:536

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Antibiotic)LIST II (Microorganism)
A. Penicillin GI. Streptomyces griseus
B. GentamycinII. Bacillus subtilis
C. BacitracinIII. Penicillium chrysogenum
D. CycloheximideIV. Micromonospora purpurea
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:537

Match List I with List II

LIST ILIST II
A. G/AATTCI. EcoRI
B. A/GATCTII. HindIII
C. A/AGCTTIII. BamHI
D. G/GATCCIV. BglII
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:538

In the process of photosynthesis, electrons are produced from the photolysis of water molecules. Which among the following is the 1st electron carrier from Photosystem 2

QUESTION ID:539

Arrange the following in the increasing order of reducing power:

(A) Li+

(B) Zn2+

(C) Na+

(D) H+

QUESTION ID:540

In Gel Electrophoresis the gel matrices should have following properties:

(A). Adjustable pore size

(B). Should exhibit electroosmosis

(C). Chemically inert

(D) Pore size does not depend on the concentration of gels

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:541

Which cells are primarily responsible for producing antibodies in response to an infection

QUESTION ID:542

When influenza virus enters a cell, it immediately starts to do which of the following

QUESTION ID:543

Which of the following statements are correct for Shuttle Vectors:

(A). These vectors are created by the recombinant techniques.

(B). These vectors can be grown in one host and can be moved into another without any extra manipulations.

(C). They contain two origins of replications.

(D). They are designed to replicate in cells of two different species.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:544

A special type of template independent DNA polymerase which doesn't require a template strand for DNA synthesis:

QUESTION ID:545

In prokaryotes a polymerase enzyme DNA Pol I function in removing the RNA primer from the newly synthesized DNA strand, what is eukaryotic homolog of this enzyme

QUESTION ID:546

Which of the following is the most direct cause of polyteny in somatic cells of certain organisms

QUESTION ID:547

The presence and distribution of specific mRNAs within a cell can be detected by

QUESTION ID:548

The correct sequence of steps in PCR is:

(A). Denaturation

(B). Annealing

(C). Primer Extension

(D). A mixture of DNA fragment to be amplified, two primers, four deoxyribose triphosphate and DNA polymerase is created.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:549

Which among the following technique do not use PCR for polymorphism detection

QUESTION ID:550

The bacteria causing crown gall disease in plants

QUESTION ID:551

The transfer of tissue between genetically identical individuals is called

QUESTION ID:552

Technique could be used to demonstrate protein binding specific DNA sequence

QUESTION ID:553

Which of the following describes the process of introducing a plasmid into a host cell

QUESTION ID:554

Which of the following best describes homologous recombination:

QUESTION ID:555

DNA repair pathway which involves the enzyme glycosidases

QUESTION ID:556

In which Organelle the alpha-oxidation of fatty acids takes place

QUESTION ID:557

Types of mutation present in the gene which doesn't lead to any change in protein sequence:

QUESTION ID:558

Consider the set ℝ of all real numbers. The empty set ∅ in ℝ is

(A). closed

(B). open

(C). not open

(D). not closed

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:559

If Then l is equal to 

QUESTION ID:560

The order of the finite group U(13) is

QUESTION ID:561

The center of a group G is a subgroup of G, where G can be

QUESTION ID:562

If {u,v,w} is a linearly independent subset of a vector space V then which of the following sets are linearly independent subset of V.

(A). {u, u+v, u+v+w}

(B). {u+v, v+w, u-w}

(C). {u+w, v+w, u+v+w}

(D). {0}

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:563

If E and F are two events associated with the same sample space of a random experiment such that P(E)≠0P(E) \neq 0 and P(F)≠0P(F) \neq 0, then which of the following defines the conditional probability of the event
E given that the event F has already occured?

QUESTION ID:564

Let X be a random variable. If the mean of X is 3.4, then what is the mean of the random variable Y=2X+9?

QUESTION ID:565

What is the angle between the pair of lines 

QUESTION ID:566


QUESTION ID:567

Match the following List-I of differential equations with their respective order and degree in List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:568

Which of the following statement regarding salt bridge is correct:

(A). A salt bridge is a tube containing an electrolyte.

(B). A salt bridge is connected to the two half-cells.

(C). The salt bridge allows the flow of ions but prevents the mixing of different solutions.

(D). The salt bridge allows the flow of ions and the mixing of different solutions.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:569

Arrange the following electromagnetic radiation in the increasing order of wavelength

(A) Radio waves

(B) Microwaves

(C) IR

(D) UV

QUESTION ID:570

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Nature of Bonding)LIST II (Attributes)
A. Hydrogen BondsI. Electronegativity
B. London Dispersion ForcesII. Electrostatic attractive forces
C. Metallic BondingIII. Electrical Symmetry
D. Dipole-Dipole InteractionIV. Permanent dipoles
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:571

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Thermodynamic Quantity)LIST II (Significance)
A. Helmholtz free energyI. Disorderness of biological system
B. Gibbs Free EnergyII. Heat evolved in biological process at constant pressure
C. EntropyIII. Work Function
D. Internal EnergyIV. Maximum non-expansion work
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:572

Following are the statements about Limitations of GEIGER MULLER COUNTER:

(A). Müller tube is always of the same magnitude (regardless of the energy of the incident radiation), the tube cannot differentiate between radiation types.

(B). Muller tube cannot measure high radiation rates, because each ionization event is followed by a Dead Time.

(C). Neutrons cannot be counted due to their neutral electric nature by this counter.

(D). A Geiger counter with an end window tube cannot distinguish between alpha and beta particles.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:573

Which of the following statements are correct about Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy:

(A). NMR spectroscopy is a type of electromagnetic spectroscopy

(B). NMR uses radiations in the radio frequency (RF) portion of the spectrum.

(C). NMR works on the basic principle that a spinning charge (such as the nucleus of an atom) generates a magnetic field.

(D). NMR works on principle of diffraction of nuclear radiations from magnetic field produced by spinning electrons.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:574

Following are the full width of X-ray diffraction peak at half maxima (FWHM), obtained for four different crystalline materials:

(A). For material-A, FWHM = 0.4 units

(B). For material-B, FWHM = 1.8 units

(C). For material-A, FWHM = 0.2 units

(D). For material-A, FWHM = 1.0 units Arrange them in ascending order of crystallite size.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:575

Which of the following statements is true?

(A). Secondary structure is two dimensional, whereas tertiary structure is three dimensional.

(B). Primary structure is one dimensional, specifying only the sequence in which atoms or groups of atoms are connected to one another.

(C). Quaternary structure takes into account time as well as three dimensions in space.

(D). Biological molecules can also be polymers.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:576

The sequence of reactions catalyzed by pyruvate dehydrogenase complex are:

(A). Decarboxylation of pyruvate

(B). Formation of Acetyl-CoA

(C). Formation of acetyl lipoamide

(D). Oxidation of dihydrolipoamide

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:577

During UV Spectroscopy Tryptophan shows maximum/peak absorbance at

QUESTION ID:578

Match List I with List II

LIST ILIST II
A. WebMolI. PDB
B. Cn3DII. NCBI
C. DeepViewIII. ExPASy
D. PROCHECKIV. EBI
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:579

What is the purpose of substitution matrices like BLOSUM and PAM in sequence alignment

QUESTION ID:580

What are the two primary methods used in phylogenetic analysis for tree construction, based on character states and distances

QUESTION ID:581

The use of clustering techniques in a gene expression analysis involving multiple samples is typically used for finding genes that are

QUESTION ID:582

Which of the following is NOT a common feature of most Word Processors?

QUESTION ID:583

What is the difference between a compiler and an interpreter in programming languages?

QUESTION ID:584

What is the purpose of a Router in a network?

QUESTION ID:585

What is the difference between a variable and a constant in C++?

QUESTION ID:586

What is the base case in a Recursive Function?

QUESTION ID:587

What is the difference between a pointer variable and the data it points to?

QUESTION ID:588

What is the difference between Regular Expressions and String Searching algorithms in bioinformatics?

QUESTION ID:589

Match List I with List II

LIST ILIST II
A. CMYKI. Most commonly used for representing digital images on computer screens
B. RGBII. Primarily used for printing and is based on subtractive mixing of pigments
C. HeatmapsIII. Software development methodologies
D. Waterfall, Agile, and SpiralIV. To visualize the expression levels of genes across different samples
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:590

Which of the following is not used as Backpropagation in ANN training?

(A) To calculate the gradient of the loss function with respect to the network weights, allowing for weight updates to improve performance.

(B) To initialize the weights of the network randomly before training.

(C) To determine the optimal number of hidden layers and neurons in the network.

(D) To evaluate the accuracy of the network on the training data.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:591

What are the three main stages of RNA polymerase II transcription in eukaryotes?

QUESTION ID:592

One PAM distance between two protein homologs is

QUESTION ID:593

BLAST X program is used for searching -

QUESTION ID:594

The uptake of Iron into organisms involves special ligands known as:

QUESTION ID:595

Arrange the following bondings / interactions is ascending order on basis of their strength in biological systems: (Weaker bond to Stronger)

(A). Covalent Bonds

(B). Ion-induced dipole interactions

(C). Hydrogen Bonds

(D). Dipole-Dipole interactions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:596

Progress in DNA Sequencing methods have been in the following order

(A). Dideoxy sequencing

(B). Shotgun sequencing

(C). Second-generation sequencing

(D). Single Cell sequencing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:597

What is the purpose of the Entrez database in bioinformatics?

QUESTION ID:598

Match List I with List II

LIST ILIST II
A. Needleman and WunschI. BLOSUM
B. Smith and WatermannII. Dynamic Programing in Global Alignment
C. Margaret DayhoffIII. Dynamic Programing in Local Alignment
D. Henikoff and HenikoffIV. PAM
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:599

A bifurcating branch point in the phylogenetics tree is known as

QUESTION ID:600

Match List I with List II

LIST ILIST II
A. While creating a regular expression, if a position is restricted to a single conserved amino acid residueI. The position is indicated using residues to be included and placed within brackets
B. While creating a regular expression, if a position represents multiple alternative conserved residuesII. The position is indicated by residues to be excluded and placed in curly braces
C. While creating a regular expression, if the position excludes certain residuesIII. The position is indicated as such using the standard, one letter code
D. While creating a regular expression, if a position represents nonspecific residues.IV. The position is indicated by an X.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: