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Previous Year Questions

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QUESTION ID:1

Match List-I with List-II 

List-IList-II
(Receptor)(Ligand)
(A). GPCR(I). Triiodothyronine
(B). TxR(II). Erythropoetin
(C). RTK(III). Vasopressin
(D). NRTK(IV). IGF 1
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:2

Match List-I with List-II 

List-IList-II
(Disease/ Disorder)(Clinical parameter)
(A). Kidney failure(I). Hypoalbuminemia
(B). Liver Cirrhosis(II). Increase in creatine kinase
(C). Myocardial infarction(III). Increase in BUN
(D). Skeletal muscle disorders(IV). Increase in SGPT

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:3

Match List-I with List-II 

List-IList-II
(Types of Hypersensitivity)(Immune mechanism involved)
(A). Type I(I). IgG mediated
(B). Type II(II). T-cell mediated
(C). Type III(III). IgE mediated
(D). Type IV(IV). Immune complex mediated

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:4

The site on an antigen that binds to an antibody is known as

QUESTION ID:5

Which of the following is NOT a part of the healthy gut microbiome?

QUESTION ID:6

Which one of the following physiological processes is NOT regulated by hypoxia-induced HIF?

QUESTION ID:7

Which of the following is contraindicated for a person with phenylketonuria?

QUESTION ID:8

Which one of the following biomolecule is not present in plasma?

QUESTION ID:9

Arrange the following events in the correct sequence of their occurrence during starvation/fasting:

(A) Activation of adenylate cyclase
(B) Activation of CREB
(C) Activation of secretion by alpha cells
(D) Activation of PKA
(E) Synthesis of PEPCK

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:10

Which one of the following bonds is NOT a covalent bond?

QUESTION ID:11

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I

(Solute transport)

List-II

(Type of membrane transport)

(A). Release of carbon dioxide into the blood plasma(I). Primary active transport
(B). Glucose uptake by the intestinal epithelial cells(II). Facilitated diffusion
(C). Calcium uptake by sarcoplasmic endoplasmic reticulum for storage(III). Simple diffusion
(D). Glucose uptake by erythrocytes(IV). Secondary active transport

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:12

Which of the following is NOT a tumor suppressor gene product?

QUESTION ID:13

At which stage of the cell cycle, the dividing cell is arrested by colchicine treatment?

QUESTION ID:14

A chromatography was performed to separate four proteins (A, B, C, D) by anion exchange chromatography using a buffer with pH 7.5. The isoelectric points of the proteins A, B, C, D are 6.5, 7.0, 5.5, and 8.0, respectively. The proteins were eluted using a salt gradient. Arrange the order (from first to last) in which the four proteins will be eluted:

QUESTION ID:15

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I

(Regulatory protein)

List-II

(Function during the cell cycle)

(A). CKI(I). Cell cycle arrest in response to DNA damage
(B). APC/C(II). Binds to E2F and prevent the transcription of S-phase genes
(C). p53(III). Separation of sister chromatids during anaphase
(D). Rb protein(IV). Inhibits the activity of cyclin dependent kinases

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:16

Where will a secretory protein be transported from the Golgi complex, if its KDEL signal sequence is mutated to KEEL?

QUESTION ID:17

Dinitrophenol affects oxidative phosphorylation and ATP biosynthesis because:

QUESTION ID:18

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I

(Regulatory enzyme)

List-II

(Metabolic pathway)

(A). Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase(I). Urea cycle
(B). Carbamoyl phosphate synthase II(II). Fatty acid biosynthesis
(C). Phosphofructokinase-1(III). Gluconeogenesis
(D). Acetyl-CoA carboxylase(IV). Glycolysis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:19

Lipid rafts are rich in which of the following components?

QUESTION ID:20

How many centrioles are present in a cell that is at the prophase stage of the mitosis?

QUESTION ID:21

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I

(Biochemical technique)

List-II

(Application)

(A). Ion exchange chromatography(I). Isolation of mitochondria from a cell extract
(B). Centrifugation(II). Separation of a mixture of proteins
(C). ELISA(III). Separation of genomic DNA
(D). Agarose gel electrophoresis(IV). Detection of viral antigen in blood samples

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:22

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I

(Biomolecule)

List-II

(Cellular function)

(A). Enzyme(I). Cellular catalysis
(B). Cholesterol(II). Cellular communication
(C). Glycolipid(III). Membrane fluidity
(D). Glycoprotein(IV). Recognition of the cell

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:23

SDS-PAGE is NOT used for:

QUESTION ID:24

Which of the following statements are FALSE with reference to properties of hemoglobin and myoglobin?

(A). Heme is the prosthetic group, not present in both

(B). Both have same oxygen binding capacity

(C). Hemoglobin is an Fe containing tetramer with high oxygen binding capacity

(D). Myoglobin is a Mg containing monomer with high oxygen binding capacity

(E). Hemoglobin is a heterotetramer while myoglobin is a monomer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:25

Arrange the following steps involved in the activation of steroid receptor TxR by thyroxine in the correct order:

(A). Increase in BMR

(B). Binding to hormone response element (HRE)

(C). Dimerization and localization into the nucleus

(D). Binding of ligand to receptor

(E). Transcriptional regulation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:26

Positive nitrogen balance occurs in which one of the following conditions?

QUESTION ID:27

Familial hypercholesterolemia occurs due to mutation in:

QUESTION ID:28

Which of the following are the normal constituents of human urine?

(A). Urea

(B). Creatinine

(C). Ammonia

(D). Alanine

(E). Uric Acid

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:29

Who is known as the Father of microbiology?

QUESTION ID:30

During mating between Hfr strain and F- recipient cell:

QUESTION ID:31

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I

(Micronutrient deficiency)

List-II

(Symptoms)

(A). Copper(I). Megaloblastic anemia
(B). Folate(II). Normocytic hypochromic anemia
(C). Vitamin C(III). Microcytic hypochromic anemia
(D). Iron(IV). Bleeding gums

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:32

Chargaff rule states:

QUESTION ID:33

CpG island in the human genome is related to:

QUESTION ID:34

Which of the following cannot be converted to glucose in animals?

QUESTION ID:35

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I

(Enzyme)

List-II

(Function in DNA replication)

(A). Topoisomerase(I). ATP driven unwinding of DNA
(B). DNA primase(II). Seals the Okazaki fragments of lagging strand
(C). Helicase(III). Relieves torsional strain during unwinding of DNA
(D). DNA Ligase(IV). Initiates synthesis of RNA primers

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:36

Which of the following lipids is not present in the cell membrane?

QUESTION ID:37

Water is a universal solvent due to the following properties:

(A). Ability to form H-bonds

(B). High dielectric constant

(C). Low polarity

(D). Low specific heat

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:38

Arrange the following steps of formation of an atherosclerotic plaque in the order in which they occur.

(A). Infiltration of foam cells

(B). Formation of fatty streaks

(C). Injury to blood vessels

(D). Formation of calcified streak

(E). Formation of thrombus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:39

Albumin deficiency in blood may lead to:

QUESTION ID:40

Which of the following statements are true about the mechanism of action of CAP in lac operon?

(A). CAP is a positive regulator of lac operon.

(B). When glucose is absent and lactose is present, CAP is inactive due to high levels of cAMP.

(C). When glucose and lactose are present, CAP is inactive.

(D). When glucose is present and lactose is absent, CAP is inactive due to low levels of cAMP.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:41

Which of the following has the maximum standard free energy of hydrolysis?

QUESTION ID:42

When Luciferin yellow, a dye dissolved in buffer, is injected into a neuron of the retina, neighbouring neurons get labeled. If the retina is incubated with dopamine prior to injection of the dye, only the injected neuron is labeled. Because:

(A). Neurons communicate through gap junctions

(B). Dopamine moves through gap junctions

(C). Dopamine decreases gap junction permeability

(D). Dopamine inhibits synaptic transmission

(E). Luciferin yellow is hydrophobic and can move between cells

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:43

Which of the following are anaplerotic enzymes?

(A). Glutamine deaminase

(B). Aspartate transaminase

(C). Alanine transaminase

(D). Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

(E). Pyruvate carboxylase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:44

Which of the following enzyme catalyzes the substrate level phosphorylation?

QUESTION ID:45

In an enzyme catalyzed reaction, what fraction of Vmax would be obtained when S = 1/2 Km?

QUESTION ID:46

In a competitive ELISA, the color intensity is:

QUESTION ID:47

Arrange the following steps of T-cell response in the order in which they occur.

(A). Activation of Tc cells

(B). Destruction of the host cell

(C). Processing and presentation in association of MHC class I

(D). Formation of CTL and target cell synapse

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:48

Which of the following transmits antibiotic resistance in bacteria?

QUESTION ID:49

Arrange the steps for conversion of DHAP to acetyl CoA in the order in which they occur.

(A). Formation of PEP

(B). Movement to mitochondria

(C). Action of Pyruvate kinase

(D). Activity of PDH

(E). Formation of 1, 3 bisphosphoglycerate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:50

A child has no detectable T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes. The defect is likely to be in:

QUESTION ID:51

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder caused by which of the following?

QUESTION ID:52

Arrange the following steps involved in a polymerase chain reaction in the correct sequence of their occurrence.

(A). Annealing of primers with template DNA

(B). Denaturation of template DNA

(C). Analysis of the PCR product on agarose gel electrophoresis

(D). Extension of strand by polymerase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:53

For an enzyme catalyzed reaction, which of the following statements will be correct?

(A). Enzyme lowers the activation energy

(B). Enzyme changes the reaction equilibrium

(C). Enzyme does not affect the activation energy

(D). Enzyme increases the rate of the reaction

(E). Enzyme doesn't affect the reaction equilibrium

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:54

Which of the following events will be observed in a plasma cell undergoing a molecular rearrangement for class switching to IgA?

(A) DNA sequence containing V, D and J gene segments translocated near the Cα DNA exon

(B) mRNA specific for μ chain

(C) mRNA specific for λ and κ chains

(D) mRNA specific for β chain of TCR

(E) mRNA specific for α chain

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:55

Genome of virus is composed of single stranded DNA molecule which is 109 bases long. How many moles of genomic DNA is present in bacteria?

QUESTION ID:56

Which conformation of glucose is the most stable?

QUESTION ID:57

What is the order of sedimentation of various subcellular organelles in the differential centrifugation method?

(A). Mitochondria

(B). Microsomes

(C). Nucleus

(D). Peroxisomes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:58

IgM is a pentamer. Upon visualization of pure IgM sample on SDS-PAGE, the number of bands seen on the gel will be:

QUESTION ID:59

The wavelength of light used for measuring absorbance of protein samples by spectrophotometry is:

QUESTION ID:60

Amylose is a polymer of

QUESTION ID:61

Which DNA has a left-handed double helix?

QUESTION ID:62

Which of the following amino acids has the maximum and minimum number of allowed conformations in the Ramachandran plot, respectively?

QUESTION ID:63

Arrange the levels of DNA packaging observed in the eukaryotic genome in a hierarchical order.

(A). Chromosome

(B). Nucleosome

(C). Chromatin

(D). Solenoid

(E). 10nm chromatin fibril

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:64

Fatty acylated form of sphingosine is called:

QUESTION ID:65

If 6.5 grams of protein was fully oxidized in a human, what would be the net energy released?

QUESTION ID:66

Which of the following will have the highest glycemic index?

QUESTION ID:67

A strict vegan person will show deficiency symptoms of:

QUESTION ID:68

What is the ultimate electron acceptor in the electron transport chain of photophosphorylation?

QUESTION ID:69

How many fragments will be produced when the following peptide is digested with the chymotrypsin?

G-S-F-P-L-T-L-Y-S-W-S-S

QUESTION ID:70

Which of the following enzyme is used in the food industry for meat tendering process?

QUESTION ID:71

Which of the following is the inhibitor of protein synthesis in a cell?

QUESTION ID:72

Competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by:

QUESTION ID:73

To study the lateral diffusion rate of the membrane phospholipids, FRAP (Fluorescence recovery after photobleaching) was performed on a sample membrane under different experimental conditions. To study the effect of temperature, the temperature of the sample tube was gradually lowered from 37°C to 10°C. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

(A) Rate of phospholipid diffusion will be highest at 10°C
(B) Rate of phospholipid diffusion will be highest at 37°C
(C) Rate of phospholipid diffusion will be lowest at 10°C
(D) Rate of phospholipid diffusion will be lowest at 37°C
(E) Rate of phospholipid diffusion remains constant at all temperatures

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:74

Which class of enzymes hydrolyze the ATP molecule into ADP and Pi to generate energy for covalent bond formation?

QUESTION ID:75

Arrange the following molecules in order of their ability for transmembrane diffusion through a lipid bilayer (from the highest to the lowest diffusion rate).

(A). Glucose

(B). Calcium ion

(C). Carbon dioxide

(D). RNA

(E). Water

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:76

To observe the specific part of a tissue section under compound microscope, the contrast can be increased by:

QUESTION ID:77

Which of the following will be the part of the pellet, when tissue cells are homogenized and centrifuged at 1000g for 10 min.?

QUESTION ID:78

Arrange the following DNA fragments A, B, C, D separated after Gel Electrophoresis in increasing order of number of their base pairs.


QUESTION ID:79

Which of the following is not true about gel electrophoresis?

QUESTION ID:80

Which of the following are the types of column chromatography?

A. Paper chromatography
B. Affinity chromatography
C. Size exclusion chromatography
D. Ion-exchange chromatography

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:81

Tryptophan, tyrosine and phenylalanine absorb ultraviolet light. Therefore, the protein rich in these amino acids strongly absorbs the light of wavelength _________ due to aromatic side chain of these amino acids.

QUESTION ID:82

A scientist wants to separate three protein molecules by ion-exchange chromatography. The pH of the mobile phase of the column is maintained in such a way that the protein molecule (A) has a net charge of −2, protein molecule (B) has a net charge of +2 and protein molecule (C) has a net charge of +1. Which one of the molecule/s will elute first from a cation-exchange resin?

QUESTION ID:83

A technique for transferring denatured DNA molecules that have been separated electrophoretically from a gel to a matrix (such as a nitrocellulose or nylon membrane) on which a hybridization assay can be performed is called

QUESTION ID:84

The DNA of the bacterial cell is protected from the cell's own restriction enzymes by the addition of methyl group (–CH3) to ______ of cytosine.

A. 4th Carbon
B. 7th Carbon
C. 6th Carbon
D. 5th Carbon

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:85

Which of the following statements are correct regarding prokaryotic genomic organization?

A. Most prokaryotes contain a single large circle of double stranded DNA as its genome.
B. The nucleoid is an irregularly shaped region that contains the cell's chromosome and numerous proteins.
C. Nucleoid associated proteins (NAPs) are not particularly important during cell division for the compaction of chromosome.
D. Prokaryotic genomes are much smaller as compared to eukaryotes.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:86

In humans, one of the most recognized satellite DNA sequences, found mainly in the centromere region is:

QUESTION ID:87

Select correct statement about Euchromatin:

QUESTION ID:88

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Types of Chromosome)LIST-II (Position of centromere)
A. Metacentric chromosomeI. The centromere is located on one side of the central point of the chromosome.
B. Submetacentric chromosomeII. The centromere appears to be located at one end of the chromosome.
C. Acrocentric chromosomeIII. The centromere is located in the center of chromosome.
D. Telocentric chromosomeIV. The centromere is located close to one end of the chromosome.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:89

Telomerase acts as a cellular reverse transcriptase that provides the active site for:

QUESTION ID:90

Which of the following molecule/ion is not transported/buffered by hemoglobin? 

QUESTION ID:91

Which of the following pair of class and organism is not correctly matched? 

QUESTION ID:92

Which one of the following statement is incorrect regarding the work of Erwin Chargaff? 

QUESTION ID:93

Which of the following amino acids are essential amino acids in humans:

A. Leucine

B. Lysine

C. Isoleucine

D. Serine

Choose the correct answer:

QUESTION ID:94

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Vitamins)LIST-II (Major function in the body)
A. B7 (Biotin)I. Used in collagen synthesis
B. B12 (Cobalamin)II. Important in blood clotting
C. C (Ascorbic acid)III. Coenzyme in synthesis of fat, glycogen and amino acids
D. K (Phylloquinone)IV. Production of nucleic acids and red blood cells
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:95

The glycosidic bond between the monomers of sucrose is-

QUESTION ID:96

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Genes involved in E.coli DNA replication)LIST-II (Product or role)
A. pol AI. Helicase at OriC
B. pol BII. Primase
C. Dna GIII. DNA polymerase II
D. Dna B & CIV. DNA polymerase I
Choose the correct answer:

QUESTION ID:97

Arrange the steps of recombinant DNA-cloning procedure in correct sequence of their occurrence:

A. Joining the target DNA with cloning vector DNA by ligase enzyme.
B. Targeted DNA from a source organism is cleaved and cloning vector DNA is also cleaved by the same restriction endonuclease.
C. Selection of transformants from non-transformants through antibiotic resistance and color indicators.
D. Introduction of recombinant DNA into host cell.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:98

Tetracycline is usually mixed with the culturing medium as selective agents in selecting transformants in gene cloning technique. It acts by:

QUESTION ID:99

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Commercial Production)LIST-II (Microorganism)
A. Citric acidI. Corynebacterium glutamicum
B. EthanolII. Aspergillus niger
C. Amino acids and nucleotidesIII. Claviceps purpurea
D. AlkaloidsIV. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Choose the correct answer:

QUESTION ID:100

For sterilization, the culture media and glasswares must be generally autoclaved at:

QUESTION ID:101

Benzoic acid or benzoates are used to preserve food from:

A. Insects
B. Yeast
C. Clostridia
D. Molds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:102

The Bdellovibrio bacterium is a _____ bacteria:

A. Gram negative
B. Predator of gram negative bacteria
C. It has a single polar flagellum
D. Reproduce by producing spores called myxospore during nutrient deficit conditions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:103

Organisms belongs to the genus Bacteroides are:

QUESTION ID:104

A method for culturing anaerobes is the GasPak System, which uses hydrogen and a ______ catalyst to remove O2.

QUESTION ID:105

The antimicrobial agent mercuric chloride functions by

QUESTION ID:106

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Antimicrobial agent)LIST-II (Mode of action)
A. CephalosporinsI. Act by inhibition of biosynthesis of the peptidoglycan cell-wall structure.
B. Nalidixic acidII. Inhibition of DNA synthesis in gram-negative bacteria
C. IsoniazidIII. Inhibits protein synthesis as a result of binding on the 50S subunit ribosome.
D. ErythromycinIV. Blocking pyridoxin and nicotinamide catalyzed reactions in the microbial cell
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:107

The Ti plasmid and its T-DNA have been genetically modified for use as a vector for the insertion of recombinant DNA into plant chromosomes to prevent dicots from tumor diseases. The source of Ti plasmid is:

QUESTION ID:108

The ability of a molecule to function as an antigen depends on its:

A. Size
B. Structural complexity
C. Chemical nature
D. Degree of foreign nature to the host

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:109

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Immunoglobin class)LIST-II (Characteristics)
A. IgGI. Serves as part of B-cell receptor complex
B. IgAII. Anaphylactic mediating antibody
C. IgDIII. Most abundant in body fluid, neutralize toxins, opsonizes bacteria
D. IgEIV. Secretary antibody and protect mucous membrane.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:110

The cationic antimicrobial peptide, histatin is found in human’s ________:

QUESTION ID:111

Convalescent sera belongs to

QUESTION ID:112

Typhoid Vi antigen type of vaccine is:

QUESTION ID:113

Which one of the given statement is not correct about plant viruses?

QUESTION ID:114

Hepatitis C virus can cause liver cancer. It has:

QUESTION ID:115

The role of slow sand filters in water treatment facilities is: 

QUESTION ID:116

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Gene interaction)LIST-II (Modified F2 ratio)
A. Complementary gene actionI. 12:3:1
B. Supplementary gene actionII. 13:3
C. Inhibitory gene actionIII. 9:3:4
D. Masking gene actionIV. 9:7
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:117

The F1 hybrid (Rr Ii) is crossed with a variety double recessive for both the traits. How many types of zygotes will be produced in the cross?

QUESTION ID:118

Which of the following statement is wrong about C4 plants? 

QUESTION ID:119

The plants bloom when the light duration is less than 12 hours per day are know as:

QUESTION ID:120

A rock body through which ground water flows is called: 

QUESTION ID:121

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Bacterial DNA replication proteins)LIST-II (Functions)
A. Helicase

I. Removes RNA nucleotides of primer from 5' end and replaces them with DNA nucleotides added to 3' end of adjacent fragment.

B. DNA pol III. Unwinds parental double helix at replication forks.
C. DNA pol IIIIII. Relieves overwinding strain ahead of replication forks by breaking, swiveling, and rejoining DNA strands.
D. TopoisomeraseIV. Using parental DNA as a template, synthesis new DNA strand by adding nucleotides to a RNA primer or a pre-existing DNA strand.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:122

The left-handed helix, Z-DNA is 18 Å (1.8 nm) in diameter which contains ______.

QUESTION ID:123

Choose the correct sequence of events as they occur during a bacterial transcription

A. RNA polymerase sigma (σ) subunits recognizes promoters
B. DNA double helix unwind
C. Sigma (σ) subunit dissociates from the holoenzyme
D. Formation of hairpin secondary structure

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:124

Choose the correct answer regarding the translation of mRNA to proteins when AUG is the start codon and codes for methionine.

QUESTION ID:125

Choose the correct sequence of different regions on a typical eukaryotic DNA segment when we go from the upstream to the downstream of a transcription start point.

A. Initiation site
B. CAAT box
C. Enhancer
D. TATA box

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:126

Which one of the following acid is hydrophobic with non polar side chain?

QUESTION ID:127

Choose the correct order of steps involved in nucleotide excision repair of damaged bases as they occur.

A. A fresh burst of DNA synthesis
B. Cuts are made on both the 3′ side and the 5′ side of the damaged area
C. The DNA is unwound producing a “bubble”
D. A DNA ligase covalently binds the fresh piece into the backbone

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:128

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Types of DNA Repair Systems in E. coli)LIST-II (Enzymes/proteins)
A. Mismatch repairI. Dam methylase
B. Base-excision repairII. ABC excinuclease
C. Nucleotide-excision repairIII. AP endonucleases
D. Direct repairIV. DNA photolyases
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:129

Frequency of recombination between linked genes in Drosophila is affected by

A. Distance between genes
B. Sex of heterozygotes for linked genes
C. Age of female
D. Temperature

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:130

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Term)LIST-II (Type of change)
A. NullisomicI. One chromosome missing
B. MonosomicII. One chromosome pair missing
C. AllotetraploidIII. Four copies of the same genome present
D. AutotetraploidIV. Two distinct genomes: each has two copies
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:131

In general F2, F3 and the subsequent generations do not show segregation for a cytoplasmically inherited trait. This is because

QUESTION ID:132

Which of the given factors can affect frequency in Mendelian population?

A. Migration
B. Mutation
C. Selection
D. Random shift

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:133

In 1963, several varieties such as Sonalika and Kalyan Sona were introduced all over the wheat-growing belt in India. They were

QUESTION ID:134

Among the following species of bryophytes, which is not an example of mosses?

QUESTION ID:135

Who among the following is known as the father of Indian paleobotany?

QUESTION ID:136

The symmetry in which a flower can be divided into two equal and similar halves by only one vertical division is:

QUESTION ID:137

In homosporous pteridophyte species, the development of gametophyte is

QUESTION ID:138

More recently discovered plant hormone, Jasmonates, play an important role both in plant defense and development, is derived from which fatty acid?

QUESTION ID:139

Plants can assimilate only two inorganic forms of nitrogen. These are:

A. Nitrite (NO2-)
B. Ammonium (NH4+)
C. Nitric acid (HNO3)
D. Nitrate (NO3-)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:140

Lenticels permit the:

QUESTION ID:141

The membrane potential of a resting neuron is:

QUESTION ID:142

Which one of the following amino acids is involved in synthesis of hormone epinephrine in humans?

QUESTION ID:143

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Diseases)LIST-II (Causative agents)
A. Wool sorter's diseaseI. E.coli
B. Gas gangreneII. Human papilloma virus
C. Urinary tract infectionIII. Bacillus anthracis
D. Cervical cancerIV. Clostridum perfringens
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:144

Which one of the following granulocyte has following features?

Highly phagocytic; nucleus with three to five lobes; primary and secondary granules; limited life span.

QUESTION ID:145

Which of the following are autosomal recessive genetic disorder?

A. Huntington disease
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Lesch–Nyhan syndrome
D. Tay–Sachs disease

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:146

Which one of the following proteins is often referred to as “the guardian of the genome”?

QUESTION ID:147

Colibactin is a DNA-damaging compound and when taken up by human intestinal cells, colibactin results in double-stranded DNA break and can cause human colorectal cancers. It is synthesized by:

QUESTION ID:148

Agar is used for preparing solid media for culture. Which of the following is not true about agar media?

QUESTION ID:149

Which one of the following groups of animals is devoid of gill slits?

QUESTION ID:150

Which one of the following is not a tetrapod character?

QUESTION ID:151

Transformation in bacteria was discovered by:

QUESTION ID:152

In angiosperms, which process involves the fusion of male gamete with the egg cell?

QUESTION ID:153

Which of the following is used to stain endospores?

QUESTION ID:154

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Family/Characteristic)LIST-II (Species/Examples)
A. MyrtaceaeI. Psidium
B. Hypanthodium inflorescenceII. Carnation
C. CaryophyllaceaeIII. Fig
D. AsteraceaeIV. Inula
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:155

Which of the following bacteria belong to the coliform group?

A. Escherichia coli,

B. Streptococcus faecalis,

C. Clostridium perfringens,

D. Bacillus

QUESTION ID:156

To increase the amount of mugineic acid, rice plants were transformed (using Agrobacterium) with a fragment of barley genomic DNA containing two naat genes: naat-A and naat-B, encoding the subunits of the enzyme ___________.

QUESTION ID:157

Guttation occurs when:

QUESTION ID:158

A flower is hypogynous with axile placentation and swollen placenta. Which family does this flower belong to?

QUESTION ID:159

Flooding stress is also known as:

QUESTION ID:160

What is the role of NAD(P)H as a component of Nitrate reductase in Nitrogen fixation? 

QUESTION ID:161

White jute is obtained from:

QUESTION ID:162

The major phytochemicals present in leaves of Camellia sinensis are:

A. Epicatechin gallate,

B. Caffeine,

C. Theobromine,

D. Epigallocatachin gallate

QUESTION ID:163

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Plant Name)LIST-II (Most common part as medicine)
A. Withania somniferaI. Fruit
B. Aloe barbedensisII. All parts of plants
C. Aegle marmelosIII. Root
D. Datura metelIV. Leaves
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:164

The botanical name of Fenugreek (methi):

QUESTION ID:165

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Class of Mutagens)LIST-II (Examples)
A. Alkylating agentI. Acridine Orange
B. Base analogII. Nitrous acid
C. Intercalating agentIII. Mustard gas
D. Deamination agentIV. 5-Bromouracil
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:166

A specimen cited in the protologue is neither the holotype nor an isotype, nor one of the syntypes. If two or more specimens were simultaneously designated as types, they are known as:

QUESTION ID:167

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Gene Interaction)LIST-II (Dihybrid ratio for a single character)
A. Duplicate dominant epistasisI. 9:7
B. Duplicate recessive epistasisII. 15:1
C. Recessive epistasisIII. 9:3:4
D. Dominant & Recessive EpistasisIV. 13:3

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:168

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Characteristic, feature)LIST-II (Family)
A. Monoadelphous stamenI. Malvaceae
B. CremocarpII. Lamiaceae
C. Gynobasic styleIII. Apiaceae
D. CapitulumIV. Asteraceae

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:169

In which of the following molecular markers, polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is required?

A. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP),

B. Random Amplified Polymorphic DNAs (RAPD),

C. Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism (AFLP),

D. Sequence-Tagged Sites (STSs)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:170

The genera which belongs to the family Characeae are:

A. Tolypella,

B. Nitella,

C. Nigella,

D. Chara

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:171

The elements of the xylem are:

A. Tracheids

B. Vessels

C. Xylem parenchyma

D. Sclereids

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:172

The role of Bulliform cells in monocotyledonous leaves is: 

QUESTION ID:173

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Types of Sclereids)LIST-II (Examples)
A. AstrosclereidsI. Leaves of Monocots
B. MacrosclereidsII. Olive leaves
C. OsteosclereidsIII. Kidney bean seeds
D. TrichosclereidsIV. Nymphea leaves
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:174

Which of the following statements are correct regarding protein synthesis in eukaryotes?

A. 3'-Cap of mRNA present.

B. Ribosomes of 80S type dissociate into 40S and 60S subunits.

C. Translation is not simultaneous with transcription.

D. Initiation codon of mRNA is recognised by anticodon of MettRNA

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:175

Paracytic type of stomata are distinctive feature of:

QUESTION ID:176

Selaginella is also known as: 

QUESTION ID:177

Specialised cells are generally found in the plant leaves which contain outgrowths of epidermal cell wall, made of calcium carbonate or silicon dioxide in a cellulose matrix are called as:

QUESTION ID:178

Which of the following amino acid is basic in nature?

QUESTION ID:179

The example of facultative CAM plant which carries on C3 metabolism under unstressed conditions is:

QUESTION ID:180

Arrange the following substrates of the glycolysis pathway in a chronological order of their occurrence... starting from Glucose.

A. Fructose-6-phosphate

B. Pyruvic acid

C. Glucose-6-phosphate

D. 2-Phosphoglycerate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:181

Identify the plants from the following which do not exhibit Kranz anatomy:

A. Aloe

B. Zea mays

C. Agave

D. Opuntia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:182

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Minerals)LIST-II (Deficiency Symptoms in plants)
A. CalciumI. Intervenous chlorosis associated with the development of small necrotic spots
B. ZincII. Accumulation of Urea in the leaves
C. ManganeseIII. Necrosis of young meristematic regions such as root tips or young leaves
D. NickelIV. Display of rosette habit
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:183

What is the correct general scheme of the fungal succession on herbivore dung:

A. Basidiomycetes

B. Discomycetes

C. Phycomycetes

D. Pyrenomycetes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:184

Which of the following is a macrophyte?

QUESTION ID:185

The common inter-cellular parastic algae among the following is:

QUESTION ID:186

The requirement of sunlight for the germination of seeds, is known as: 

QUESTION ID:187

Among the following ecosystems, which has the least Net Primary Production (NPP)? 

QUESTION ID:188

Which of the following is NOT the characteristic feature of xerophytic plants? 

QUESTION ID:189

'Aconite', a drug used for nasal problems and sore throat, is obtained from tuberous roots of:

QUESTION ID:190

 If the number of chromosomes in the egg cell of a plant is 8, then what would be the number of chromosomes in its endosperm?

QUESTION ID:191

Which of the following mutations is most likely to contribute to the development of cancer? 

QUESTION ID:192

What is the correct sequence of Transmembrane multiprotein complexes of the electron transport chain during respiration?

A. Succinate dehydrogenase

B. NADH dehydrogenase

C. Cytochrome c oxidase

D. Cytochrome bc1 complex

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:193

Which nitrogen fixing symbiont is associated with sugarcane as a host plant?

QUESTION ID:194

Cytokinin treatment extends the life span of detached Xanthium leaves by delaying chlorophyll and protein degradation. This experiment is called:

QUESTION ID:195

Which among the following is responsible for imparting blue and purple colour in some type of berries? 

QUESTION ID:196

Synchytrium is

QUESTION ID:197

During sexual reproduction in Rhizopus, projections from two compatible hyphae are attracted towards each other. These hyphae are called

QUESTION ID:198

Arrange the stages in the life cycle of "Puccinia graminis" in correct order of their occurrence...

A. Teliospores appear as black raised streaks...

B. Basidiospores are discharged...

C. Uredinospores germinate on wheat...

D. Basidiospores germinate on the leaves of the alternate host.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:199

Which one of the following is a correct example of Fruticose Lichen? 

QUESTION ID:200

In Sphagnum, the sporogonium is elevated by a special gametophytic structure known as:

QUESTION ID:201

Censer mechanism for spore dispersal from the capsule occurs in

QUESTION ID:202

Circinate vernation in ferns refers to -

QUESTION ID:203

The characteristic of Cleistogamous flowers is:

QUESTION ID:204

What is the role of Gibberellic acid in plants?

QUESTION ID:205

Which of the following hormones is synthesized from methionine?

QUESTION ID:206

The early development of monocot and dicot embryo is similar up to which stage? 

QUESTION ID:207

Mesosome is a specialized and differentiated form of

QUESTION ID:208

In which specific region of the chloroplast, does Calvin cycle occurs? 

QUESTION ID:209

A eukaryotic cell is exposed to a chemical that inhibits the 5' capping of pre-mRNA. What is the most likely effect on translation?

QUESTION ID:210

What effect does the hypermethylation of promoter regions typically have on gene expression?

QUESTION ID:211

Treating chromatin with a non specific nuclease yields a segment of about 168 bp which is bound to 9 histone molecules... This whole structure is known as:

QUESTION ID:212

The correct karyotype description of Patau Syndrome is

QUESTION ID:213

What is the primary function of Bt toxin in genetically modified crops like Bt Cotton?

QUESTION ID:214

A plasmid vector contains a multiple cloning site (MCS) within the lac-Z gene. If foreign DNA is inserted into the MCS, what happens when competent cells are transformed... 

QUESTION ID:215

Sequentially arrange the steps involved in cryopreservation of plant cells in order of their occurrence.

A. Raising sterile tissue culture

B. Determination of viability

C. Freezing, Storage

D. Addition of cryoprotectants.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:216

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Bacterial Artificial Chromosome (BAC) vector?

QUESTION ID:217

Which sequence of steps is correct in the development of a genetically modified (GM) crop?

A. Insertion of the gene into the vector.

B. Identification of a desired gene.

C. Selection and screening of transformed plants.

D. Transfer of the vector into a plant cell.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:218

Which of the following order is not included in Stachyospermae? 

QUESTION ID:219

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Type of proteins)LIST-II (Examples)
A. Structural proteinsI. Ion Channels
B. Transport ProteinsII. Insulin
C. Hormonal ProteinsIII. Seed Proteins
D. Storage ProteinsIV. Collagen
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:220

Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

QUESTION ID:221

The enzyme responsible for synthesizing RNA primers during DNA replication is - 

QUESTION ID:222

Which of the following best explains the fluidity of the plasma membrane?

QUESTION ID:223

Sequence the following events involved in a point mutation in DNA.

A. Alteration in the amino acid sequence of a protein.

B. Change in mRNA codon during transcription.

C. Substitution of a single nucleotide in the DNA sequence.

D. Possible disruption of protein function or structure.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:224

Identify the correct sequence of steps in a dihybrid cross to test Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment  

A. Selection of two traits in the parent generation.

B. Crossing of pure-breeding parents.

C. Analysis of phenotypic ratios in the F2 generation.

D. Observations of gamete combinations in the F1 generation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:225

Select the phases which are included in the 'Interphase'.  

A. S phase

B. M phase

C. G1 phase

D. G2 phase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:226

What is the sequence of the template DNA for an mRNA with the sequence?

5'-CAUUGGCCAAGG-3'

QUESTION ID:227

Which type of polymerase activity is shown by the enzyme telomerase?

QUESTION ID:228

If the growth medium of a bacterial strain contains both glucose and lactose, how does it affect the lac operon?

A. CAP protein binds lac promoter

B. Repressor binds lac operator

C. CAP protein does not bind lac promoter

D. Repressor does not bind lac operator

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:229

Which one of the following correctly describes the role of signal recognition particles?

QUESTION ID:230

Which of the following is the most stable DNA configuration under normal physiological conditions?

QUESTION ID:231

Arrange the following cell cycle stages in the correct order of their occurrence:

A. S phase

B. M phase

C. G1 phase

D. G2 phase

QUESTION ID:232

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Types of Cancer)LIST-II (Tissues involved)
A. CarcinomaI. Muscle
B. ChondromaII. Cartilage
C. SarcomaIII. Blood
D. MyelomaIV. Epithelial Tissue
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:233

The approximate diameter of actin filaments is:

QUESTION ID:234

Match LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Mitochondrial Compartments)LIST-II (Enzymes present)
A. MatrixI. ATP synthetase
B. Inner membraneII. Monoamine oxidase
C. Space between inner and outer membranesIII. Citrate synthetase
D. Outer membraneIV. Adenylate kinase

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:235

Which of these are executioner caspases?

A. Caspase 3

B. Caspase 6

C. Caspase 8

D. Caspase 5

Choose the most appropriate answer:

QUESTION ID:236

Which larval form of Fasciola hepatica has a motile tail?

QUESTION ID:237

In the life cycle of a Plasmodium, once the sporozoite enters the blood of the host, it invades the hepatic portal system, resulting in occurrence of change in the host body, leading to malaria

A. Sporozoite enters the hepatocytes and divides by schizogony leading to formation of cryptomerozoites

B. Inside RBCs, the micro-metacryptozoites become rounded and modify into a young trophozoites.

C. As the trophozoite grows in size, a central vacuole is developed so that the nucleus is pushed to one side into the peripheral cytoplasm, leading to amoeboid stage.

D. In Amoeboid stage the small red eosinophils granules appear in the cytoplasm of the host corpuscles as Schuffner's granules

Choose the most appropriate answer:

QUESTION ID:238

During the process of conjugation in Paramecium, how many daughter Paramecia are formed from 2 parents?

QUESTION ID:239

Which one of the following is a larval forms of jelly fish?

QUESTION ID:240

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Type of cell in Porifera)LIST-II (Functions)
A. Collar cellsI. Line the sphincters
B. TrophocytesII. Special nurse cells
C. PinacocytesIII. Help to form spermatocyst
D. ThesocytesIV. Food storage
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:241

In the life history and development of sea star, numerous larval forms are formed. Arrange them in the order of their occurrence:

A. Dipleurula

B. Branchiolaria

C. Bipinnaria

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:242

Which one of the following belongs to class-Diplopoda?

QUESTION ID:243

How many somatic cells are present in C. elegans?

QUESTION ID:244

How many different type of gametes can potentially be produced by an organism with the genotype aaBbccdd?

QUESTION ID:245

What is the difference between gynandromorphs and intersexes in Drosophila?

QUESTION ID:246

Match LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Law/Principle/Gene interaction)LIST-II (Genes distribution/Ratio)
A. Law of segregationI. 12:3:1
B. Principle of independent assortmentII. Genes are distributed without mixing.
C. Complementary gene interactionIII. Genes on different chromosomes are distributed independently during meiosis.
D. Dominant epistasisIV. 9:7

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:247

Which of the following statements are true?

A. When two or more genes co-exist on the same chromosome, they may violate the principle of independent assortment during meiosis.

B. Positive interference occurs when the presence of one chiasma increases the possibility of another chiasma occurring in the immediate vicinity.

C. The proportion of crossovers never exceeds 50%.

D. The Chi-square test can be used for segregation ratios and detection of linkage.

Choose the most appropriate answer:

QUESTION ID:248

Based on the threshold range, at the X/A ratio of 0.67, the sex of Drosophila will be:

QUESTION ID:249

In a population under Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium, out of a total of 592 people, 44 people were affected by a rare autosomal recessive disorder whereas the rest of the population was normal. How many individuals in this population have the heterozygous and homozygous dominant genotypes for this trait?

QUESTION ID:250

Match LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Period)LIST-II (Genus of horse)
A. PleistoceneI. Eohippus
B. EoceneII. Mesohippus
C. MioceneIII. Equus
D. OligoceneIV. Merychippus

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:251

Which of the following phenomena can lead to microevolution?

A. Natural Selection

B. Sexual Selection

C. Genetic Drift

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:252

Which of the following statements are correct about the phenomenon of genetic drift?

A. It occurs in a small population.

B. It leads to the loss of genetic variation within population.

C. It doesn't change the allele frequency randomly.

D. It occurs in a large population.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:253

The increase in the beak depth of Galápagos finches with a relative abundance of large seeds, is an example of

QUESTION ID:254

How many jaws are present in Aristotle's Lantern?

QUESTION ID:255

The technique to mark, release and recapture is a practical method for

QUESTION ID:256

Any species that have been accidentally or deliberately transferred from their usual habitat to a new habitat whose abiotic conditions are also suitable for them are known as:

QUESTION ID:257

The populations, showing relatively constant density around the carrying capacity of the environment, is called

QUESTION ID:258

Which one of the following statements is correct for Mollisol?

QUESTION ID:259

Match LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (ACT)LIST-II (Year of Enactment)
A. Environmental Pollution ActI. 1981
B. The Air (Prevention and Control of pollution) ActII. 1986
C. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) ActIII. 1972
D. The Wildlife Protection and Conservation ActIV. 1974

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:260

Arrange the given events to correct sequence in relation to translation:

A. Adenylation of amino acid and aminoacyl-tRNA charging.

B. Formation of Peptide bond.

C. Recruitment of ribosome to the mRNA.

D. Correct positioning of charged tRNA into the P-site of the ribosome.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:261

The WBC count of a group of athletes in a team was estimated to be 7900, 9000, 7800, 8300, 2900, 4545, 5100, 3700, 9900 and 4545 per mm³ of blood. Calculate the median WBC count of this group of individuals.

QUESTION ID:262

Which of the following statements is not applicable to the mode of a dataset?

QUESTION ID:263

The number of fish caught each day by a fisherman for 10 consecutive days was reported to be 62, 58, 56, 57, 62, 59, 62, 57, 64, 63. What is the standard deviation of this dataset?

QUESTION ID:264

Which one of the following animals belongs to the oviparous mammal group?

QUESTION ID:265

How is the mean deviation calculated for a given dataset?

QUESTION ID:266

Ciliated simple columnar epithelium located at: -

A. Lining of some bronchioles of the respiratory tract

B. Cover surface of ovary

C. Larger ducts of many glands

D. Ventricles of brain

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:267

Which one of the following statements is applicable to satellite cells?

QUESTION ID:268

The trigeminal nerve is the largest nerve with following branches:

A. Olfactory

B. Ophthalmic

C. Maxillary

D. Mandibular

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:269

What is Ferritin?

QUESTION ID:270

Calculate the Harmonic Mean of the following data: 10 20 40 60 120

QUESTION ID:271

What is the correct sequence of four steps of the contraction cycle in muscles?

A. Power stroke

B. Attachment of myosin to actin

C. ATP hydrolysis

D. Detachment of myosin from actin

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:272

Arrange the following enzymes of the citric acid cycle in the correct sequence.

A. Aconitase

B. Fumarate

C. Malate dehydrogenase

D. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:273

In Glycolipids and sphingolipids, glycerol is replaced by which amino alcohol?

QUESTION ID:274

At low substrate concentration, the initial velocity of reaction is described as However, as substrate concentration increases, the reaction saturates and reaches a

QUESTION ID:275

Cellulose is a homopolymer of:

QUESTION ID:276

Plants having half the somatic chromosome number than found in normal individual are called -

QUESTION ID:277

The production of haploids by anther and pollen culture was first demonstrated by -

QUESTION ID:278

Plants cannot absorb molecular nitrogen from the atmosphere because

QUESTION ID:279

Inducing the formation of various vegetative organs from cells or tissues in plant tissue culture is called -

QUESTION ID:280

Production of secondary metabolites require the use of -

QUESTION ID:281

Media that contain some chemical with unknown chemical composition is called ______ media.

QUESTION ID:282

For obtaining pure cultures of bacteria ______ plate method is not used.

QUESTION ID:283

Select the correct statements regarding somaclonal variations

A. These variations can also result in unwanted traits.

B. Somaclones have been developed and proved advantageous in several crops.

C. These variations can be used to engineer novel traits.

D. Short term invitro callus and cell suspension, cultures results in somaclonal variation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:284

In plant tissue culture formation of organ primordia-like shoot or root in callus cells is called -

QUESTION ID:285

Who is regarded as father of 'Plant Tissue Culture' (P. T. C.)?

QUESTION ID:286

The first androgenic haploid plant product by anther culture was from -

QUESTION ID:287

The process of combining cytoplasmic genomes of one parent with nuclear genome of other parent is called

QUESTION ID:288

Molecules of ATP are required to fix one molecule of nitrogen (N2)to 2NH3

QUESTION ID:289

Symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria are found in -

A. Azolla

B. Gnetum

C. Anthoceros

D. Cycas

E. Riccia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:290

Important enzymes involved in nitrogen fixation are -

QUESTION ID:291

'Pomato' a hybrid of potato and tomato was produced through-

QUESTION ID:292

Arrange the following steps in the process of nitrogen cycle in correct sequence:

A. Nitrogen fixation

B. Nitrification

C. Denitrification

D. Assimilation

E. Ammonification

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:293

Virus free plants can be grown by : -

QUESTION ID:294

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-ILIST-II
A. Somatic hybridizationI. Cell suspension culture
B. ParthenocarpyII. Fusion protoplasts from somatic cells
C. MicropropagationIII. Seedless fruits without fertilization
D. Single cell productionIV. Multiplication of plants without sexual reproduction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:295

Arrange the following steps for plant tissue culture (P.T.C.) in correct sequence:

A. Selection of desired material and suitable nutrient media for P. T. C.

B. Inoculation of explants

C. Surface sterilization of explant

D. Transfer of growing cultures

E. Transfer of plantlets to soil in pots

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:296

In nitrogen cycle, Ammonification is the process of generating ammonia from -

QUESTION ID:297

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-ILIST-II
A. Gene inhibitionI. Addition of functional gene to their genome to replace missing product
B. Gene editingII. Disarm the product of faulty gene
C. Gene targetingIII. CRISPR/Cas 9
D. Gene Augmentation therapyIV. Replacement of non functional gene with normal gene
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:298

Conversion of ammonia to nitrates is called -

QUESTION ID:299

Choose the correct statements regarding plant tissue culture

A. Organogenesis is inducing the formation of various vegetative organs from cells or tissues.

B. Formation of mass of undifferentiation cells from callus redifferentiation.

C. Cytoplasmic hybrids are prepared by taking the nucleus from one parent and cytoplasm from both the parents.

D. Relative concentration of growth hormones play important role in organogenesis.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:300

Full form of CRISPR, a term used in genome editing is -

QUESTION ID:301

Choose the correct statements regarding homozygous diploid plants -

A. They are produced by doubling the chromosome number of haploids.

B. Doubling of chromosome enables the recessive traits to express too.

C. Chromosome doubling is done by Ozone treatment.

D. Chromosome doubling is done by colchicine treatment.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:302

Transgenic plants developed by introducing Bt gene in crops like brinjal, maize, cotton etc. provide resistance to:

QUESTION ID:303

Which of the following converts nitrites to nitrates?

QUESTION ID:304

San Noeum first successfully cultured gynogenic haploid plants from unfertilized ovaries of -

QUESTION ID:305

Nitrogen fixation occurs with the help of symbiotic bacteria in

A. Pea

B. Lettuce

C. Beans

D. Tomato

E. Black gram

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:306

In biological nitrogen fixation conversion of dinitrogen molecule into ammonia is carried out by ______ enzyme.

QUESTION ID:307

Choose the correct statements regarding cytology of haploids

A. A haploid in Arabidopsis will have 5 chromosomes.

B. Haploids are found as bivalents at metaphase-I of meiosis.

C. Haploids are found as univalent at metaphase-I of meiosis.

D. The haploids in maize will have 10 chromosomes.

E. The haploids in maize will have 20 chromosomes.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:308

Haploids can be artificially produced by -

A. Colchicine doubling

B. X-ray treatment

C. Pollen culture

D. Distant hybridization

E. Infrared radiation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:309

Autonomously replicating circular extrachromosomal DNA is called -

QUESTION ID:310

Nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria Anabaena is found in the root pockets of -

QUESTION ID:311

The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of -

QUESTION ID:312

Arrange the basic steps to develop G. M. O. (Genetically modified organisms) in sequence:

A. Transfer of DNA with desired genes to its progeny

B. Identification of DNA with desired genes

C. Introduction of the DNA into the host.

D. Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:313

microbial biocontrol agent which control butterfly caterpillars in plants is -

QUESTION ID:314

What is the function of leghemoglobin present in root nodulus of leguminous plants?

QUESTION ID:315

CRISPR-Cas 9 is a gene ______ technique.

QUESTION ID:316

Choose the correct statements regarding Agrobacterium tumefaciens -

A. It is a gram positive round shaped bacterium

B. It is a gram negative rod shaped bacterium

C. It is a photosynthetic spiral bacterium

D. It is also known as 'Natural genetic Engineer

E. It is capable of naturally transferring DNA into plant genome

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:317

Source organism of cry genes is -

QUESTION ID:318

Which of the following elements play key role in nitrogen fixation?

QUESTION ID:319

Which of the following methods/tools is not used for introduction of recombinant DNA into host cell?

QUESTION ID:320

Arrange the following steps in the process of somatic hybridization in correct sequence:

A. Plating of fused protoplasts

B. Selection of hybrid cells

C. Protoplast isolation and its treatment with fusion chemical.

D. Transfer of callus to differentiation medium

E. Selection of somatic hybrid plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:321

The correct combination of somaclonal variant released as a new cultivar is -

QUESTION ID:322

K. J. Kashaand and coworkers found that following the cross between Hordeum vulgare X Herdeum bulbosum chromosomes of H. bulbosum were eliminated in early zygotic division, so few days after pollination, embryos can be cultured to get haploids. This method is called as -

QUESTION ID:323

Antisense RNA technique is used -

QUESTION ID:324

Using natural predators for the control of pathogens is known as ______ control.

QUESTION ID:325

Optimum pH for protoplast culture is -

QUESTION ID:326

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Culture Type)LIST-II (Use/application)
A. Embryo cultureI. Somatic hybridization
B. Meristem cultureII. Production of haploids
C. Protoplast cultureIII. Shortening of breeding cycle
D. Anther cultureIV. Virus free plants
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:327

Prions are the -

QUESTION ID:328

What is CPW in protoplast culture method?

QUESTION ID:329

Arrange the following events in Western Blotting experiment in correct order:

A. Protein resolution by PAGE

B. Primary antibody binding

C. Transfer onto nitrocellulose membrane

D. Protein denaturation in loading dye.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:330

In cyanobacteria nitrogen fixation takes place in

QUESTION ID:331

Synthetic seeds are produced by the encapsulation of somatic embryos with-

QUESTION ID:332

In plant tissue culture higher concentration of cytokinin generally promotes-

QUESTION ID:333

Chemical most widely used for chromosome doubling in haploid culture is-

QUESTION ID:334

Which combination of strategies forms the basis of in vivo haploid induction technologies in plants?

A. induction of parthenogenesis

B. culture of anthers or ovules

C. use of paternal inducer lines

D. uniparental genome elimination

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:335

Match LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-ILIST-II
A. Biological nitrogen fixationI. Nitrobacter
B. Conversion of ammonia to nitrite.II. Paracoccus
C. Conversion of nitrite to nitrateIII. Rhizobium
D. DenitrificationIV. Nitrosomonas
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:336

Select the correct combination of protoplast isolation enzyme and its most popular source

QUESTION ID:337

Match LIST-I with LIST-II 

LIST-I (Biocontrol)LIST-II (Example)
A. BacteriumI. Bacillus thuringiensis
B. FungusII. Clostridium
C. InsectIII. Trichoderma
D. BiopesticideIV. Cotton aphid
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:338

Copies of DNA strands generated during a polymerase chain reaction are known as

QUESTION ID:339

Which gene in shoot apical meristem (SAM) negatively regulate WUS expression?

QUESTION ID:340

Match LIST-I with LIST-II  

LIST-I (Organism)LIST-II (use in biotechnology)
A. Thermus aquaticusI. Cry proteins
B. Agrobacterium tumefaciensII. DNA polymerase
C. E. coli DH5aIII. epspr gene
D. Bacillus thuringiensisIV. DNA cloning
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:341

Match LIST-I with LIST-II   

LIST-I (Technique)LIST-II (used for)
A. Northern blottingI. To detect specific proteins in this sample of tissue homogenate
B. Southern blottingII. Detection of specific post translation modification of proteins.
C. Western blottingIII. To detect specific RNA molecule in mixture of RNA.
D. Eastern blottingIV. To detect specific DNA in a mix of samples.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:342

In general, the cytoplasmic male sterility (CMS) causing genes are transcribed in which plant cell organelle?

QUESTION ID:343

Match LIST-I with LIST-II  

LIST-ILIST-II
A. Karl ErekyI. Invented DNA 'Finger-printing
B. Joshua LederbergII. Coined the term 'Biotechnology'
C. Kary MullisIII. Discovered plasmids
D. Sir Alec JefferysIV. Developed polymerase chain reaction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:344

Match LIST-I with LIST-II   

LIST-ILIST-II
A. ProtoplastI. Ability of cell to develop into a new plant
B. ExplantII. Unorganized mass of cells
C. TotipotencyIII. Naked cell
D. CallusIV. Any plant tissue used to regenerate new tissue/organ/plant in vitro
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:345

Match LIST-I with LIST-II  

LIST-ILIST-II
A. AuxinI. undifferentiated mass of cell
B. ProtoplastII. 6-Furfuryl amino purine
C. CallusIII. Indole 3 Acetic Acid
D. CytokininIV. Pectinase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:346

Match LIST-I with LIST-II  

LIST-ILIST-II
A. GynogenesisI. Callus culture
B. Culturing in liquid mediumII. Ovary culture
C. AndrogensisIII. Suspension culture
D. Culturing on agar mediumIV. Pollen culture
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:347

Which of the following will be present in the F1 multicellular embryo, derived from a cross of female plant (A) with male plant B, through "bulbosum method"?

QUESTION ID:348

Arrange the steps in PEG induced protoplast fusion in correct sequence -

A. Treatment of protoplast mixture with 28-50% PEG for 15-30 minutes.

B. Protoplast aggregation.

C. Washing of protoplast (alkaline medium pH 9-10), and high Ca2+ concentration

D. Selection of protoplasts of different strains / species.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:349

Match LIST-I with LIST-II  

LIST-I (Scientist)LIST-II (Landmark discovery)
A. Van OverbeekI. Transgenic Bt-cotton
B. WhiteII. Introduced coconut water as a media component
C. WentIII. First synthetic plant tissue culture medium
D. MonsantoIV. First plant growth hormone ie IAA
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:350

Match LIST-I with LIST-II  

LIST-ILIST-II
A. Sea weedsI. Isolation of DNA from gel.
B. Staining of DNAII. Gel electrophoresis
C. ElutionIII. Source of agarose
D. Separation of DNA fragmentsIV. Ethidium bromide
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:351

What will be the energy of one photon of light having a wavelength of 200 nm?

[ h=6.6×10−34 Js, c=3.0×108 ms−1]

QUESTION ID:352

A black body has a temperature of 4830 K. The wavelength of peak emission (
\lambda_{\text{max}}) of the radiation emitted from it is approximately equal to

QUESTION ID:353

Identify the correct statements.

(A). Coriolis force is an apparent force.

(B). Coriolis force is maximum at the equator.

(C). Coriolis force plays an important role in wind systems on earth.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:354

The Richter's magnitude scale measures earthquakes in ________ scale.

QUESTION ID:355

Arrange the following rocks in the increasing grade of metamorphism.

(A). Phyllite

(B). Slate

(C). Gneiss

(D). Shale

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:356

The boundary between the mantle and outer core is marked by an abrupt ________ in the P-wave velocity.

QUESTION ID:357

In igneous rocks, the plutonic equivalent of basalt is

QUESTION ID:358

The crystal habit of asbestos is

QUESTION ID:359

Arrange the following minerals in the increasing order of Mohs scale of hardness.

(A). Orthoclase

(B). Fluorite

(C). Corundum

(D). Gypsum

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:360

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Mineral)List-II (Mineral Group)
(A). Muscovite(I). Garnet
(B). Actinolite(II). Amphibole
(C). Diopside(III). Mica
(D). Pyrope(IV). Pyroxene
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:361

Which of the following are examples of a sedimentary rock?

(A). Dolomite

(B). Mudstone

(C). Hornfels

(D). Slate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:362

The energy that derives the hydrological cycle on Earth comes from

QUESTION ID:363

Arrange the geologic era and periods in order starting from the oldest to the most recent one.

(A). Neoproterozoic, Precambrian

(B). Quaternary period, Cenozoic era

(C). Jurassic period, Mesozoic era

(D). Permian period, Paleozoic era

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:364

Arrange the following radiations in decreasing order of their frequencies.

(A). Microwave

(B). UV A

(C). UV B

(D). UV C

(E). Infrared

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:365

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Rocks/Minerals)List-II (Type)
(A). Quartz(I). Volcanic igneous rock
(B). Rhyolite(II). Mineral
(C). Marble(III). Plutonic igneous rock
(D). Granite(IV). Metamorphic rock
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:366

Calculate the molarity of a solution containing 10 g of NaOH in a 500 mL solution.

QUESTION ID:367

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Compound)List-II (Application)
(A). Calcium chloride(I). Antifreeze
(B). Sulphuric acid(II). Drain clearing agent
(C). Ethylene glycol(III). To melt ice on roads
(D). Potassium hydroxide(IV). Battery
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:368

Arrange the following II B (or 12) group elements in decreasing order of their Pauling electronegativities.

(A). Zn

(B). Cd

(C). Hg

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:369

Choose the correct statements

(A). Oxygen is the least abundant element on Earth

(B). Iron and Nickel found in the Core of the Earth

(C). Oceanic Crust is rich in magnesium and iron

(D). Continental Crust is rich in magnesium and iron

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:370

What will be the concentration of nitrogen (N) in water containing 310 ppb of NO3- ions?

QUESTION ID:371

What are the values of X, Y and Z in the following equation?

Cr2​O72−​+ XH+ + Ye−→ 2Cr3+ + Z H2​O

QUESTION ID:372

A solution is prepared by adding 7 g of a substance A to 18 g of water. Calculate the mass percent of the solute.

QUESTION ID:373

Arrange the following minerals in order of their crystallization during cooling of magma.

(A) Olivine

(B) Amphibole

(C) K-Feldspar

(D) Quartz

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:374

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Mountain/Hill Ranges)List-II (Age / Type of rocks)
(A) Higher Himalaya(I) Palaeoproterozoic rocks
(B) Shivalik Hills(II) Granitic rocks of Cenozoic Age
(C) Lesser Himalaya(III) Young Sedimentary rocks
(D) Trans Himalaya(IV) Phanerozoic Sedimentary rocks
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:375

Which of the following is the most abundant element in bulk earth crust?

QUESTION ID:376

The yellow color and round seed shape traits are dominant over green color and wrinkled seed shape, respectively. Which of the following statements is true for the F1 generation if homozygously yellow colored and round seed-shaped plants are crossed with homozygously green colored and wrinkled seed-shaped plants?

QUESTION ID:377

The correct sequence of eukaryotic cell cycle starting from beginning is

(A). G1

(B). G2

(C). S

(D). M

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:378

Match List-I with List-II 

List-IList-II
(A). Natality(I). The number of individuals of the population left the habitat during the time period under consideration.
(B). Mortality(II). The number of deaths in the population during a given period.
(C). Immigration(III). The number of individuals of the same species enter the habitat during the time period under consideration.
(D). Emigration(IV). The number of births during a given period in the population is added to the initial density.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:379

Choose the correct statement(s)

(A). Sickle cell anemia occurs because of single amino acid change, repeated in the two beta chains of the hemoglobin molecule.

(B). Sickle cell anemia occurs because of two amino acid change, repeated in the single beta chains of hemoglobin molecule.

(C). Sickle cell anemia is a hereditary disease affecting hemoglobin molecules in blood.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:380

Match List-I with List-II

List-IList-II
(A). Induction(I). Switching off the gene expression using any agent.
(B). Repression(II). Insertion of plasmid in Eukaryotic cells.
(C). Transfection(III). Insertion of plasmid in prokaryotic cells.
(D). Transformation(IV). Process of switching on any gene by a molecule.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:381

Which is NOT a general process of concentrating and sampling of bioaerosols?

QUESTION ID:382

Covaxin used for the vaccination of COVID-19 contains

QUESTION ID:383

Which of the following events is Not correct?

(A). The replication occurs on one strand at a time.

(B). The replication process is semi-conservative.

(C). The replication starts at multiple points.

(D). In eukaryotic cells, several mutations occur in every cycle due to the absence of a repair mechanism.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:384

Which of the amino acid has the isoelectric point at pH < 4?

QUESTION ID:385

In many grass species of temperate origin and also in some dicots, starch is not the major product of photosynthesis, rather sucrose and fructose polymers to form compounds collectively known as

QUESTION ID:386

In the three step process of respiration, namely glycolysis, Kreb cycle and electron transport system (ETS), the step that can occur in absence of O2 is

QUESTION ID:387

One characteristic of flowers belonging to Compositae family, which has dense headlike inflorescence that consists of aggregation of few to hundred flowers crowded together on a receptacle, is called as

QUESTION ID:388

Match List-I with List-II 

List-IList-II
(A). Eudicots(I). Base of carpels or fused carpels that contains ovules
(B). Ovary(II). Two cotyledons
(C). Apomyxis(III). Velamen
(D). Orchid roots(IV). Fruit Seeds formed asexually
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:389

Which of the following statements are correct for the aquatic ecosystem?

(A). Floating green microorganisms such as Volvox, Spirogyra and plants are called Zooplanktons.

(B). Phytoplanktons are floating animals such as Cyclops and Cypris.

(C). Benthic animals are the bottom dwellers, such as molluscs.

(D). No light is available in the euphotic zone at anytime of day.

(E). Nektons are animals that can swim and navigate at their will, such as fishes.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:390

Which of the following health condition is caused by cadmium poisoning?

QUESTION ID:391

The above-ground living biomass and its nutrient content is highest for which of the following tree species at maturity?

QUESTION ID:392

The amount of energy expended by an animal while at rest in a neutral temperate environment or at the minimum rate of metabolism is known as

QUESTION ID:393

Choose the incorrect statement.

QUESTION ID:394

Radioactive decay follows ______ order kinetics and the T1/2 is ______ of the initial concentration.

QUESTION ID:395

Match List-I with List-II

List-I: EcologistsList-II: Theory/Hypothesis
(A). Victor Ernest Shelford(I). Law of minimum
(B). Justus Von Liebig(II). Law of Tolerance
(C). David Lack(III). Natural selection
(D). Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace(IV). Theory of Maximum reproduction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:396

The hierarchy of animal classification is

(A). Class

(B). Kingdom

(C). Phylum

(D). Order

(E). Family

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:397

Choose the correct statements

(A). Amensalism is the negative association between two species in which one species restricts or harms other species without being adversely affected or harmed.

(B). Mutualism is the relationship in which one of the species benefits while the other is neither harmed nor benefited.

(C). Commensalism is the association between two species in which both of the species benefit.

(D). In competition, both species are harmed.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:398

Bone present in the fore arm of human is known as.

QUESTION ID:399

Which of the following genetic disorder is caused by dominant gene?

QUESTION ID:400

The least number of fossils in rocks are expected in which of the following geological era?

QUESTION ID:401

The Brundtland Commission Report defining the term Sustainable Development is referred to as

QUESTION ID:402

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Wetland)List-II (State)
(A). Keoladeo(I). Jammu & Kashmir
(B). Loktak(II). Rajasthan
(C). Pong(III). Manipur
(D). Wular(IV). Himachal Pradesh
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:403

The 'Red list' is a catalogue of taxa that are facing the risk of extinction. Which of the following institutions published this?

QUESTION ID:404

Which of the following state in India has highest number of Ramsar sites as on Feb, 2025 ?

QUESTION ID:405

Which of the following are green house gases?

(A). Nitrous oxide

(B). Carbon tetrachloride

(C). Ozone

(D). Water vapour

(E). Oxygen

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:406

Smog formed as a result of SO2 released from coal combustion in presence of water vapour in ambient atmosphere is an example of..........

QUESTION ID:407

________ is a philosophical approach to environmental ethics in which the environment deserves direct moral consideration instead of merely relying on human interests.

QUESTION ID:408

Which of the following gas is not emitted from landfill sites?

QUESTION ID:409

A sound pressure of 0.002 Pa is equivalent to a sound pressure level of.................

QUESTION ID:410

The workers in coal mines are sometimes suffering from black lung disease due to inhaling coal dust. This condition is also known as

QUESTION ID:411

Which of the following zone of a lake can support rooted vegetation?

QUESTION ID:412

Which of the following is metallic mineral?

QUESTION ID:413

Dissolved Oxygen in surface water of a lake or pond................ keeping all other conditions same.

QUESTION ID:414

Average salinity of ocean water is

QUESTION ID:415

Which of the following are important factors that influence soil development?

(A). Climate

(B). Organisms

(C). Relief

(D). Parent material

(E). Time

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:416

Arrange the following acts in chronological order (old to recent) of the year of their enactment in India.

(A). Environmental Protection Act

(B). Biodiversity Act

(C). Air (Prevention and control of pollution) Act

(D). Water (Prevention and control of pollution) Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:417

A sample has an absorbance of 0.24 at a wavelength of 270 nm when measured using a standard spectrophotometer. The molar extinction coefficient of the sample is 96000 M-1 cm-1. Calculate the concentration of the sample.

QUESTION ID:418

The speed of locomotion in some lower animals is regulated by light. This phenomenon is also known as.

QUESTION ID:419

An absorbance of a protein solution at 280 nm was found to be 0.2. What will be the concentration of the protein if the εM(280) = 10000 M-1 cm-1 and measured in 1 cm cuvette?

QUESTION ID:420

An analyst reported γ-lindane concentrations in a synthetic standard, having concentration of 15 ± 0.6 ppb, using GC-MS as 14, 14.1, 16, 15.8, 15.9, 14.8 ppb. The data is:

QUESTION ID:421

Which of the following instruments work on the principal of Bragg's equation?

QUESTION ID:422

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Water quality parameter)List-II (Detail)
(A). Biological oxygen demand(I). High concentrations of nutrients lead to excessive biological growth in water bodies.
(B). Chemical oxygen demand(II). Measures of light transmission through water may indicate pollutants or bacterial contamination in water.
(C). Eutrophication(III). Measure of quantity of oxygen used by microorganisms in the oxidation of organic matter.
(D). Turbidity

(IV). Measure of the capacity of water to consume oxygen during the decomposition of organic matter and

oxidation of inorganic chemicals such as ammonia and nitrite.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:423

The speed (v) of a wind blowing at ~12 km altitude over a mid-latitude region is varying with time (t) as follows:

v(t)=a0t3+v0​

where
a_0 and
v_0 are constants and have unit m s−2\text{m s}^{-2} and m s−1\text{m s}^{-1}, respectively. The acceleration (in m s−2\text{m s}^{-2}) of wind at time
t = 3\,\text{s} will be:

QUESTION ID:424

In the Bardenpho process of activated sludge system, which of the following is removed along with nitrogen?

QUESTION ID:425

Arrange the following species of marsh community in their correct order in the food chain

(A). Frog

(B). Dragon Fly

(C). Hawks

(D). Butterfly

(E). Snake

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:426

Which of the following relationships is/are not true?

(A) Most probable velocity = √(2RT / M)

(B) pV = 3/2 kT

(C) Compressibility factor  Z = pV / nRT

(D) Average kinetic energy of gas = 1/2 kT

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:427

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Electronic Configuration)List-II (First Ionisation energy kJ mol-1)
(A). ns2(I). 2100
(B). ns2np1(II). 1400
(C). ns2np3(III). 800
(D). ns2np6(IV). 900
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:428

The shielding constant of a 2p electron (calculated using Slater's rules) is:

QUESTION ID:429

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Spectroscopy)List-II (Property)
(A). Raman(I). Polarizability
(B). FTIR(II). Dipole Moment
(C). UV-Visible(III). Absorbance
(D). NMR(IV). Spin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:430

The structure of protein comprises of:

(A). Primary structure of protein is associated with amino acids

(B). Secondary structure of protein is associated to peptides

(C). Tertiary structure of protein is associated with polypeptide chains

(D). Quaternary structure of protein is associated with polypeptide chains

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:431

In a chromatographic analysis of lemon oil a peak for limonene has a retention time of 8.36 min with a baseline width of 0.96 min. γ-Terpinene elutes at 9.54 min with a baseline width of 0.64 min. What is the resolution between the two peaks?

QUESTION ID:432

Which of the following statements are correct about photosynthesis?

(A). Photosystem I has a greater number of a particular type of chlorophyll molecule called chlorophyll a

(B). Photosystem II is maximally activated at wavelengths shorter than 680 nm

(C). In photosystem I, NADPH is produced.

(D). Photosystem II is maximally activated at wavelengths larger than 680 nm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:433

Even at relatively high resolution, most of the peaks in a HNMR spectrum of a protein are broad, which makes it difficult to extract information about biological samples using NMR. This is because:

QUESTION ID:434

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Spectroscopic Technique)List-II (Application in Biophysics)
(A). UV-Visible Spectroscopy(I). Concentration of a sample
(B). Fluorescence Spectroscopy(II). Chemical Characteristics
(C). Infrared Spectroscopy(III). Molecular conformation and dynamics
(D). Electron Spin Resonance(IV). Fluidity of membranes and the dynamics of proteins
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:435

Which of the following are the properties of a good cloning vector?

(A). Ideally should be less than 10 kb

(B). Isolation and purification should be easy

(C). Should contain a unique target site

(D). Able to replicate autonomously

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:436

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Oxides of Nitrogen)List-II (Name)
(A) N2O(I) Dinitrogen trioxide
(B) NO(II) Nitrous oxide
(C) N2O3(III) Nitric oxide
(D) N2O4(IV) Dinitrogen tetroxide
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:437

Siderophores are small polydentate ligands and have a high affinity for:

QUESTION ID:438

A group of transposable elements described as retroelements encompass:

QUESTION ID:439

Monoclonal antibodies can be employed for:

(A). Early detection of cancers

(B). Clear detection of pathogens

(C). Classification of blood group

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:440

Ripening delayed tomatoes are produced by:

QUESTION ID:441

Which of the following statement regarding Innate immunity is wrong?

(A) The response time is minute to hours.

(B) The specificity of innate immunity is highly diverse.

(C) The major components of innate immunity are B cells and T cells.

(D) The major components of innate immunity are phagocytes.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:442

Which of the following are chiral molecules?


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:443

Which of the following microorganism plays an important role in the early stages of cheese production?

(A). Brevibacterium linens

(B). Penicillium candidum

(C). Lactococcus cremoris

(D). Lactococcus lactis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:444

Which of the following in vitro technique is used to find Protein-Protein Interaction?

QUESTION ID:445

The presence and distribution of specific mRNAs within a cell can be detected by:

QUESTION ID:446

Agrobacterium tumefaciens is frequently used as a vector to create transgenic plants. Under laboratory conditions Agrobacterium mediated plant transformation does not require:

QUESTION ID:447

Two-dimensional gel electrophoresis carries out protein based on:

QUESTION ID:448

Cosmids contain:

(A). Replication origin

(B). Unique restriction sites

(C). A selectable marker from a plasmid

(D). Cos site from phage genome

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:449

In the enzyme-linked antibody used in ELISA, the interaction between the enzyme and antibody is stabilized by:

QUESTION ID:450

Eicosanoids are a type of polyenoic fatty acids that consist of:

(A). Leukotrienes

(B). Prostaglandins

(C). Lipoxins

(D). Cholesterol

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:451

RNA polymerase responsible for the synthesis of tRNA:

QUESTION ID:452

Arrange the following bacteriophages in the increasing order of size in terms of nucleotide base pairs

(A). T4 phage
(B). λ phage
(C). T7 phage
(D). φX174 phage

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:453

What is the role of the p53 gene in cancer development?

QUESTION ID:454

The sequence of reactions catalyzed by pyruvate dehydrogenase complex are:

(A). Decarboxylation of pyruvate

(B). Formation of Acetyl-CoA

(C). Formation of acetyl lipoamide

(D). Oxidation of dihydrolipoamide

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:455

The urea cycle takes place in which of the following compartments of the cell?

(A). Cytosol

(B). Endoplasmic reticulum

(C). Mitochondrial matrix

D). Peroxisomes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:456

Consider the following reactions in which all the reactants and products are in gaseous state.

             K1=4×104

PQ+12R2⇌PQR             K2=5×10−3K_2 = 5 \times 10^{-3}

The value of K3K_3 for the equilibrium

is

QUESTION ID:457

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Antibiotic)List-II (Microorganism)
(A). Penicillin G(I). Streptomyces griseus
(B). Gentamycin(II). Bacillus subtilis
(C). Bacitracin(III). Penicillium chrysogenum
(D). Cycloheximide(IV). Micromonospora purpurea
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:458

The Michaelis constant (Km) in enzyme kinetics represents:

QUESTION ID:459

[Co(NH3)4(NO2)2]Cl exhibits.

(A) Ionisation isomerism
(B) Linkage isomerism
(C) Geometrical isomerism
(D) Coordination isomerism
(E) Solvate isomerism

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:460

The alpha particles are:

QUESTION ID:461

Which of the following are components of lipid raft in plasma membrane?

QUESTION ID:462

The amino acid Tryptophan exhibits maximum UV absorption at what approximate wavelength?

QUESTION ID:463

Which one of the following regions of the target gene is NOT used for making an RNAi construct to knock down its expression?

QUESTION ID:464

Which of the following statements regarding restriction enzymes used in recombinant DNA technology is correct?

QUESTION ID:465

Every continuous real valued function on [a, b] is:

(A). Constant.

(B). Bounded above.

(C). Bounded below.

(D). Unbounded.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:466

*Let <G, *> be a group. Then for all a,b,c∈Ga, b, c \in G

(A). (a∗b)∗c∈G(a * b) * c \in G

(B). a∗b=b∗aa * b = b * a

(C). a∗(b∗c)=(a∗b)∗ca * (b * c) = (a * b) * c

(D). a∗b=a∗ca * b = a * c implies
b = c.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:467

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Set)List-II (Property in R)
(A) Set of natural numbers, N(I) open
(B) Open interval (a, b)(II) closed
(C) Set of rational numbers, Q(III) unbounded and uncountable
(D) Set of irrational numbers, R \ Q(IV) unbounded below and countable
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:468

 The solution of 

QUESTION ID:469

Let ff be a continuous real-valued function, defined by f(x)=sin⁡xf(x) = \sin x, for all 

Then which of the following does not hold.

QUESTION ID:470

Let an unbiased die be thrown and the random variable X be the number appears on its top. Then the expectation of X is:

QUESTION ID:471


QUESTION ID:472

The equation of a straight line passes through the point  and is perpendicular to the straight line 3x+4y+5=03x + 4y + 5 = 0

QUESTION ID:473

Which of the following subsets form subgroups of the group ?

H1​={0}

H2​={n+1:n∈Z}

H3​={2n:n∈Z}

H4​={2n+1:n∈Z}

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:474

The series 

QUESTION ID:475

If a subset B is a basis of a vector space V, then:

(A). B generates V.

(B). B contains zero vector.

(C). B is linearly independent.

(D). B is the only basis of V.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:476

Bacteria have specialized Two component system for the signaling, which among these is the part or sensory domain?

QUESTION ID:477

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Type of Chromatography)List-II (Basis of Operation)
(A). Affinity Chromatography(I). Phase
(B). Ion-Exchange Chromatography(II). Shape and size
(C). Molecular sieve chromatography(III). Chemical Structure
(D). Planar chromatography(IV). Charge
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:478

In Transcription, which among these Transcription factors have Helicase activity?

QUESTION ID:479

Match List-I with List-II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:480

Amino acid that can form Di-sulfide linkage in protein:

QUESTION ID:481

Which bacteria is called the DNA repair champion?

QUESTION ID:482

What is the most significant advantage of using Subroutines or Functions in computer programming?

QUESTION ID:483

Which of the following is typically considered part of the MSU (likely meant VDU/System Unit context or specific acronym)?

(A) Monitor

(B) Keyboard

(C) Motherboard

(D) CPU

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:484

What is the difference between clock speed and instruction cycle time?

QUESTION ID:485

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Statement)List-II (Description)
(A) if statement(I) can have multiple conditions.
(B) switch statement(II) can only have one condition.
(C) break statement(III) skips the current iteration and continues with the next.
(D) continue statement(IV) exits the entire loop.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:486

Which of the following is not the benefit of using an inline function in C++?

(A). It can improve code readability and reduce function call overhead.

(B). It can make the code more modular and easier to maintain.

(C). It allows for dynamic function calls at runtime.

(D). It can be used to define recursive functions.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:487

What is the difference between one-dimensional and two-dimensional arrays in C++?

QUESTION ID:488

What are the risks of using pointers without proper care?

QUESTION ID:489

What is the main difference between LCD and LED displays?

QUESTION ID:490

What is the fundamental assumption behind a Markov model?

QUESTION ID:491

What is the key principle behind Monte Carlo simulation?

QUESTION ID:492

The first ever biological sequence database which was developed by Dayhoff and Eck's 1965 is:

QUESTION ID:493

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Tool/Database)List-II (Organization/Database)
(A). WebMol(I). PDB
(B). Cn3D(II). NCBI
(C). DeepView(III). ExPASy
(D). PROCHECK(IV). EBI
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:494

Electronic Polymerase Chain Reaction (e-PCR) is a computational procedure that is used..

QUESTION ID:495

Readseq one of the most popular computer programs written by Don Gilbert at Indiana University used for:

QUESTION ID:496

Which are the correct statetments regrading INSDC....

(A). Promotion of Human Genome Project

(B). It is collaboration of GenBank, EMBL and DDBJ databases.

(C). Facilitating exchange of sequence data on daily basis

(D). Validation of 3D model of protein with respect to structure solved by either X-ray crystallography or NMR spectroscopy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:497

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (BLAST Type)List-II (Description)
(A). BLASTN(I). Uses protein sequences as queries to search against a protein sequence database
(B). BLASTP(II). Queries nucleotide sequences with a nucleotide sequence database
(C). TBLASTX

(III). Uses nucleotide sequences as queries and translates them in all six reading frames

to produce translated protein sequences, which are used to query a protein sequence database.

(D). BLASTX

(IV). Uses nucleotide sequences, which are translated in all six frames, to search against a

nucleotide sequence database that has all the sequences translated in six frames.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:498

SAKURA is a:

QUESTION ID:499

An example of primary database is:

(A). GenBank

(B). EMBL

(C). DDBJ

(D). PDB

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:500

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Scientist)List-II (Contribution/Concept)
(A). Needleman and Wunsch(I). BLOSUM
(B). Smith and Waterman(II). Dynamic Programing in Global Alignment
(C). Margaret Dayhoff(III). Dynamic Programing in Local Alignment
(D). Henikoff and Henikoff(IV). PAM
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:501

During catabolism when ATP is produced directly from energy-rich intermediates, the process is called:

QUESTION ID:502

Which of the following sugar derivative(s) is found in bacterial cell wall?

(A). Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

(B). Lipid A

(C). N-acetyl muramic acid

(D). D-galactosamine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:503

Name the phase of microbial growth cycle when there is no net increase or decrease in cell number.

QUESTION ID:504

The organisms which have the ability to grow in a very dry environment are known as:

QUESTION ID:505

Match List-I with List-II

List-IList-II
(A). Chemostat(I). The culture is maintained at high cell density by repeated addition of the nutrient till the reactor reaches its maximum capacity
(B). Turbidostat(II). It is a closed culture system
(C). Batch culture(III). Growth rate and cell density of the culture is controlled by the concentration of limiting nutrient
(D). Fed Batch Culture(IV). Growth rate and cell density of the culture is controlled by the turbidity of the culture
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:506

Calculate the melting temperature (°C) of the following primer:

Primer Sequence  5'-AGCTAATCCGGGCTACCG-3'

QUESTION ID:507

Arrange the following steps of polymerase chain reaction in correct sequence.

(A). Annealing
(B). Denaturation
(C). Cooling at 4 °C
(D). Extension

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:508

In a vector, antibiotic resistance is often used as a:

QUESTION ID:509

Which of the following is the most abundant protein on earth?

QUESTION ID:510

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Microorganism)List-II (Category)
(A). Azotobacter(I). Free living nitrogen fixing phototrophic bacteria
(B). Rhodobacter(II). Free living nitrogen fixing chemoorganotrophic bacteria
(C). Rhizobium(III). Free living nitrogen fixing chemolithotrophic bacteria
(D). Alcaligenes(IV). Symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria associated with peas
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:511

Which of the following biological materials has not been patented?

QUESTION ID:512

In vertical gel electrophoresis, the function of the β-mercaptoethanol is:

QUESTION ID:513

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Author)List-II (Contribution)
(A). Martinus Beijerinck(I). One gene-one enzyme hypothesis
(B). Sergei Winogradsky(II). First time isolation of nitrogen fixing bacterium Clostridium pasteurianum
(C). George Beadle and Edward Tatum(III). Restriction enzymes
(D). Hamilton Smith, Daniel Nathans, Werner Arber(IV). Enrichment culture technique
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:514

Arrange the steps followed in the differential Gram staining of bacteria.

(A). Add iodine solution for 1 minute

(B). Stain the smear with crystal violet for 1 minute

(C). Spread culture in thin film and air dry followed by heat fixing

(D). Counter stain the smear with safranin solution for 1-2 minutes

(E). Decolorize with alcohol briefly for 20 seconds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:515

Coenzymes and Prosthetic groups are small non-protein molecules that take part in catalysis. What is the major difference between the two cofactors?

QUESTION ID:516

How many ATPs are produced on complete oxidation of 1 glucose molecule through oxidative phosphorylation and substrate-level phosphorylation?

QUESTION ID:517

Flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA is known as transcription. Which of the following represents RNA transcript sequence for the given DNA molecule?

5'-TTAGCCTCGTGTAA-3'

3'-AATCGGAGCACATT-5'

QUESTION ID:518

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Enzyme)List-II (Function)
(A). DNA Pol I(I). Relaxes supercoils ahead of replication fork
(B). DNA gyrase(II). Unwinds DNA double helix at replication fork
(C). DNA ligase(III). Excises RNA primer and fills in gaps
(D). Helicase(IV). Seals nicks in DNA
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:519

What is a missense mutation?

QUESTION ID:520

Which of the following facts is/are true about Shuttle vectors?

(A). Vectors that have the capability to replicate in only related host organisms

(B). Vectors that have the capability to replicate in two unrelated host organisms

(C). Shuttle vectors have two origins of replication

(D). Shuttle vectors do not have a selection marker

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:521

To purify RNA molecules, oligo dT containing matrix is used. This type of chromatography is:

QUESTION ID:522

Which of the following can not be separated using electrophoresis?

QUESTION ID:523

Arrange the sequence of regulation of chemotaxis.

(A) Interaction with flagellar motor switch

(B) Adaptation

(C) Activation of response regulators

(D) Interaction of transducers and Che proteins

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:524

Arrange the replication cycle of a bacterial virus.

(A) Synthesis of nucleic acid and protein by host cell

(B) Penetration of virion

(C) Attachment of the virion to the host

(D) Assembly of capsid and packaging of genome into new virion

(E) Release of mature virions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:525

During cell cycle, DNA duplication and transcription occur during:

QUESTION ID:526

Which of the following statements about Denitrification are true?

(A). Atmospheric nitrogen is easily used as a source of nitrogen by bacteria than nitrate.

(B). Denitrification is conversion of nitrate to gaseous nitrogen compounds.

(C). Denitrification is a detrimental process for agriculture.

(D). Denitrification is a beneficial process in waste water treatment.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:527

Mycorrhizae is an association between:

QUESTION ID:528

Which of the following oligonucleotide probes (fluorescent tag) will hybridize to a target RNA sequence?

5'-GAAACCUCUGGCAAUCCGAUGUGCCAA-3'

QUESTION ID:529

Which of the following is not used as mobile phase in gas chromatography?

QUESTION ID:530

Arrange the following vectors on the basis of insert size carrying capacity.

(A). Cosmids

(B). Bacteriophages

(C). Plasmids

(D). Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:531

Which of the following technique is known as chain termination DNA sequencing method?

QUESTION ID:532

Which of the following is not a fermented food product?

(A). Sauerkraut

(B). Sake

(C). Soy Sauce

(D). Ragi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:533

Solutes in the environment change the availability of water molecules to microbes. Microbiologists quantitatively estimate the degree of water availability by determining:

QUESTION ID:534

When a petite mutant isolated from aerobically cultured yeast is crossed with wild-type strain, the progeny obtained is all wild type. Identify the type of mutation.

QUESTION ID:535

Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of actinomycetes?

QUESTION ID:536

Which of the following are features of chlorosomes?

(A). Light harvesting

(B). Contain chlorophyll a

(C). Present in green bacteria

(D). Galactolipid membrane

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:537

What are the functions of peroxisomes in the cell?

(A). Peroxisomes are the sites where oxidation of substrates takes place and hydrogen peroxide is formed.

(B). Peroxisomes harbor catalase enzyme which decomposes hydrogen peroxide.

(C). In plants and fungi, fatty acid oxidation takes place in the peroxisomes.

(D). In animal cells, fatty acid oxidation takes place in the peroxisomes and mitochondria.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:538

If organism A possesses 55% G+C content and organism B has 25% of the G+C content in their genome, what inference can be drawn?

QUESTION ID:539

Out of all given options, which ones are stop codons?

QUESTION ID:540

Which of the following is not an Antigen Presenting Cell?

QUESTION ID:541

Match List-I with List-II 

List-I (Amino acids)List-II (Side chain type)
(A). Cys(I). basic
(B). Asp(II). nonpolar aromatic
(C). Trp(III). acidic
(D). Arg(IV). sulphur containing
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:542

Arrange the following steps of complement activation in the correct order.

(A). Formation of C3 convertase

(B). Binding of C1 to Antigen antibody complex

(C). Formation of MAC

(D). C5 convertase formation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:543

Enzyme sequence involved in formation of L-isoleucine from L-Threonine is regulated by:

QUESTION ID:544

Which of the following statements are true about human ABO blood groups?

(A). Glycosyltransferase enzyme is responsible for transfer of carbohydrate moiety on protein.

(B). Almost all individuals possess H substance.

(C). A antigen has one extra monosaccharide group N-acetylgalactosamine added to H substance.

(D). B antigen has one extra monosaccharide group galactose added to H substance.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:545

Which of the following is not used as a cyanobacterial biofertilizer?

QUESTION ID:546

Which of the following cause depletion of ozone layer?

QUESTION ID:547

Arrange the steps of binary fission in a rod shaped prokaryote in sequence.

(A). Cell elongation

(B). Cell separation

(C). Septum formation

(D). DNA replication

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:548

TCR of Cytotoxic T lymphocytes interacts with which of the following?

QUESTION ID:549

The first cells to reach the site of inflammation are:

QUESTION ID:550

Arrange the steps for wastewater treatment processes in correct sequence.

(A). Screening and Sedimentation

(B). Anoxic digestion and oxidation

(C). Separation into soluble and insoluble components

(D). Drying and Disinfection of the two components

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:551

What is the major activity occurring in germinal centers?

QUESTION ID:552

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Interaction type)List-II (Effect)
(A). Commensalism(I). Where one population derives food from the host without causing death of the host
(B). Competition(II). Population one is inhibited and other is not affected
(C). Amensalism(III). One population benefits and other population (host) is not affected
(D). Parasitism(IV). Each species is directly inhibited by the other
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:553

Which of the following is an exotoxin producing anaerobic organism associated with food poisoning?

QUESTION ID:554

Which of the following is not a mechanism of antimicrobial resistance?

QUESTION ID:555

Arrange the following intermediates on the basis of their synthesis in citric acid cycle.

(A). Citrate
(B). Succinyl CoA
(C). α-ketoglutarate
(D). Oxaloacetate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:556

Which of the following statements is/ are true about agglutination?

(A). Excess antibody inhibits agglutination reactions.

(B). Coombs test works on the principle of agglutination.

(C). Agglutination reactions work only with soluble antigens.

(D). The antibody titer is the lowest dilution of serum at which agglutination is observed.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:557

Arrange the steps in RNA synthesis in the correct order.

(A). Release of polymerase

(B). Release of sigma factor followed by elongation

(C). Recognition of promoter by sigma factor

(D). Identification of terminator site

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:558

What is the function of impellers in a fermentor?

QUESTION ID:559

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for synthesis of mRNA in prokaryotes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:560

Which of the following is an example of DNA containing virus?

QUESTION ID:561

Which of the following tests are used to check spoilage of milk?

(A). Clot on boiling test

(B). Resazurin reduction assay

(C). MBRT

(D). MPN test

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:562

Which of the following is not a feature of peptide bond?

QUESTION ID:563

Which of the following media is used for isolation of Staphylococcus?

QUESTION ID:564

Which of the following is exclusively recessive X-linked trait ?

QUESTION ID:565

In a dihybrid cross, if the percentage of recombinant trait is 20%, what will be the distance between the genes?

QUESTION ID:566

Which of the following is not a primary metabolite?

QUESTION ID:567

What is the mode of action of alcohol as a sanitizer and disinfectant?

QUESTION ID:568

Which of the following is/are distinguishing features of group translocation?

(A). A molecule is chemically modified when transported into the cell.

(B). Molecule doesn't get modified during transport.

(C). Molecule gets phosphorylated during transport.

(D). It is a secondary active transport mechanism.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:569

Which of the following is not an asexual method of reproduction in fungi?

QUESTION ID:570

Which of the following forms of DNA is produced with a DNA sequence made up from alternating purine and pyrimidine nucleotides?

(A). B form

(B). Z form

(C). A form

(D). C form

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:571

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Technique)List-II (Description)
(A). Study to analyze pools of DNA from an environmental sample containing organisms that have not been isolated and identified(I). Proteomics
(B). Genome wide study of the structure, function and activity of organism's proteins(II). Metagenomics
(C). Global study of transcription is done by monitoring the total RNA generated under chosen growth conditions(III). Systems Biology
(D). The term used for integration of different fields of research to give an overview of an organism or a cell(IV). Transcriptomics
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:572

Which of the following statements is/ are applicable to fixed angle rotors?

(A). During rotor acceleration, reorientation of the sample and gradient occur.

(B). Sedimentation and separation of the particles occur during centrifugation.

(C). Bands of separated particles appear when the rotor is at rest.

(D). The centrifuge tube is filled with gradient and then loaded with sample.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:573

Which of the following treaty/convention provided "international recognition of microorganisms" for the purpose of patent procedure?

QUESTION ID:574

B cell maturation in birds occurs in:

QUESTION ID:575

Which of the following statements is true about the lac operon?

(A). Lac operon is under positive regulation through CRP.

(B). Lac operon has three structural genes.

(C). Lac repressor binds to the lac promoter.

(D). Lac operon is expressed in the presence of both glucose and lactose.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: