Menu

Previous Year Questions

Performance Meter

0%

TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

Choose the correct form of verb to fill in the blank:

Risks come from not what you are doing?

QUESTION ID:2

Choose the appropriate preposition to complete the sentence:

Her request for a transfer was turned

QUESTION ID:3

Pick out the correctly spelt word.

QUESTION ID:4

Identify the correct indirect speech of the following sentence.

He said to me, "I don't believe you"

QUESTION ID:5

Rearrange the following parts of a sentence labelled PQRS to make a meaningful sentence.
P. overflow of powerful
Q. recollected in spontaneous
R. Poetry is a spontaneous
S. feelings emotions

QUESTION ID:6

Pick out the antonym of 'strength'

QUESTION ID:7

Choose the correct sentence.

QUESTION ID:8

Choose the correct passive voice form of the following sentence.

He may have eaten the cake.

QUESTION ID:9

Pick out the synonym of the following word - 'captivating'.

QUESTION ID:10

Identify the part of speech of the underlined word in the following sentence.

Let us even the ground.

QUESTION ID:11

Who has been appointed as the new chief economic advisor (CEA) to the Government of India?

QUESTION ID:12

Which of the following companies are among the recently created 7 new Defence Public Sector Undertaking Companies, which were created through restructuring of OFB (Ordiance Factory Board) ?

A. Weapons India Limited
B. Munitions Indian Limited
C. Yantra India Limited
D. Gliders India Limited

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:13

Name of the autobiography of Kamala Das is :

QUESTION ID:14

Who among the following is the first woman to receive two Nobel Prizes ?

QUESTION ID:15

In a certain code language

"uo ja ka hu" means 'we great Indian country',
"oi ka la ju" means 'we score good highest'.
"la fu ja ju" means "India score the highest"
and "ju uo na fu" means "highest of the country".

Then what is the code of "great" in this code language ?

QUESTION ID:16

If "A@B" means A is the mother of B

"A#B" means A is the father of B
"A₹B" means A is the son of B

How is X related to Z from the given equation?
X ₹ Y ₹ Z

QUESTION ID:17

Global Hunger Index is released by which of the following organizations ?

QUESTION ID:18

Seven dance students- T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z- are to give a performance, and the judges have to decide the sequence in which they will perform. Each student will perform exactly one item, a solo ballet. In deciding the order of performance, the instructor must observe the following restrictions:

1. X cannot perform first or second.
2. W cannot perform until X has performed.
3. Neither T nor Y can perform seventh.
4. Either Y or Z must perform immediately after W.
5. V must perform either immediately after or immediately before U.

If U performs third, what is the latest position in which Y can perform?

QUESTION ID:19

A country has seven major cities - A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Three flights labeled X, Y and Z are available to connect the cities following the rules:

Flight X has its ends at A and C, and passes through B only.
Flight Y has its ends at B and C, and passes through D only.
Flight Z has its ends at E and G. and passes through F only,
Directly connected cities are those cities between which there is no other city to land any flight.

Which of the following city is directly connected to the most other cities?

QUESTION ID:20

In how many different ways can the letters of the word AUCTION be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?

QUESTION ID:21

The surface area of a cube is 1734 s.q. cm. Then volume of cube is...

QUESTION ID:22

A small organ at the base of the brain that produces substances that affect growth and sexual development (hormones) is called:   (DROP)

QUESTION ID:23

QUESTION ID:24

How much time will it take for an amount of ₹ 4.5% to yield 81 of interest at 4.5% per annum of simple interest ?  (DROP)

QUESTION ID:25

The average of 7 consecutive numbers is 20. Then sum of smallest and greatest number is

QUESTION ID:26

During Translation termination, after the release of RFI, RF3 is also released by hydrolyzing its GTP. ____________ binds at A-site and then __________ binds at A-site which helps in translocation and helps in removal of E-site and P-site tRNA.

QUESTION ID:27

QUESTION ID:28

On the basis of the following hydropathy plots for three proteins (A-C) predict which would be membrane proteins?

QUESTION ID:29

Starting with glucose labelled in either position 1, 2 or 3 with 14C, which labelled molecule will be the first to lose the radioactive carbon as 14CO2 if the glucose is used exclusively for the glycolytic and TCA cycles.

QUESTION ID:30

Which of the following characteristics of proof-reading are essential to maintain fidelity in DNA replication?

QUESTION ID:31

Which one of the following correctly pairs an amino acid with a valid chemical characteristic?

QUESTION ID:32

Calculate the pH of a 2.0 L solution containing 10 ml of 5M acetic acid and 10 ml of 1 M sodium acetate (pk, of acetic acid = 4.76)?

QUESTION ID:33

Porin, a protein from the outer membranes of bacteria such as E.coli and Rhodobactercapsulatus represents a class of membrane proteins with a completely different type of structure. Structures of this type are built from (A) __________  and contain essentially no (B) __________, here A and B are, respectively:

QUESTION ID:34

Immunosuppressants such as prevents transplanted organs from being rejected in recipients.

QUESTION ID:35

If you have to find out whether a given protein is bound to a given gene in chromatin, which technique would you prefer using:

QUESTION ID:36

The hexose monophosphate shunt and the Entner-Douderoff pathway are alternative mechanisms for:

QUESTION ID:37

Which among the following is not required for the prokaryotic expression vector?

QUESTION ID:38

Microtubules mostly are made from:

QUESTION ID:39

What is the 'key' regulatory component of an 'Operon' model of regulation of gene expression in prokaryotes?

QUESTION ID:40

Which of the following proteins do not represent Quaternary structure?

QUESTION ID:41

If H is enthalpy, and T is temperature, the relationship between Entropy (S) and Gibbs energy (G) change can be expressed as:

QUESTION ID:42

At normal temperature and pressure one mole of a gas occupies a volume of:

QUESTION ID:43

Kcat is measured under:

QUESTION ID:44

Peptide bond is a:

QUESTION ID:45

Which of the following is the storage form of a lipid?

QUESTION ID:46

During mating between a Hfr strain and a F- recipient cell:

QUESTION ID:47

Identify the most simplest nutritional category of microorganisms:

QUESTION ID:48

The recommended percentage of dietary fat per day is:

QUESTION ID:49

The counterpart(s) of DNA polymerase III in eukaryotes is/are:

QUESTION ID:50

Why do erythrocytes swell and burst when placed in water?

QUESTION ID:51

Serum albumins and globulins can be separated by the method of:

QUESTION ID:52

SH2 domains specifically bind to:

QUESTION ID:53

Which of the following protein is the component of nucleoprotein?

QUESTION ID:54

Which ratio is constant for DNA?

QUESTION ID:55

Which of the following molecules binds strongly to avidin?

QUESTION ID:56

Tay-Sachs disease in the result of a genetic defeat in the metabolism of:

QUESTION ID:57

Which vitamin is derived from cholesterol?

QUESTION ID:58

Starch and glycogen are both polymers of:

QUESTION ID:59

Ascorbic acid deficiency is not associated with

QUESTION ID:60

Which of the following co-enzymes are not associated with pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?

QUESTION ID:61

Which of the following enzymes are not regulated by phosphorylation and dephosphorylation?

QUESTION ID:62

Inheritance from father to son is not possible in which of the following genetic conditions?

QUESTION ID:63

Which of the following hormones will not mediate their effect via G protein linked receptor pathway?

QUESTION ID:64

Tyrosine is not a precursor for which of the following molecules:

QUESTION ID:65

Which of the following is not true about conjugated bilirubin?

QUESTION ID:66

Which of the following is not a mettaloenzyme?

QUESTION ID:67

Formation of mature insulin includes all of the following except:

QUESTION ID:68

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: ATP binding is essential for the muscle relaxation event in the muscle function.
Reason R: The process is driven by cross-bridges which extend from the myosin filaments and cyclically interact with the actin filaments as ATP is hydrolyzed.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:69

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Transcription and translation in prokaryotes is synchronous.
Reason R: Both are coupled processes occurring in the cytoplasm.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:70

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The salting-out technique is one of the most commonly used methods for protein purification from a solution.
Reason R: At low salt concentration, protein solubility usually decreases and leading to precipitation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:71

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The DNA molecule is antiparallel and double helical structure.
Reason R: The backbone outside the double helix is made up of phosphate and sugar.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:72

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: IgG antibodies provides the passive immunity and protect the fetus.
Reason R: It crosses the placenta.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:73

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Protein synthesis is a central function in cellular physiology and is the primary target of many naturally occurring antibiotics and toxins. Tetracyclines are a class of broad-spectrum antibiotics used in the management and treatment of a variety of infectious diseases by inhibiting translational machinery in bacteria.
Reason R: Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria by blocking the A site on the ribosome, preventing the binding of aminoacyl- tRNAs.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:74

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Vesicular transport is the predominant mechanism for exchange of proteins and lipids between membrane-bound organelles in eukaryotic cells. Golgi-derived vesicles are involved in several vesicular transport steps, including bidirectional transport within the Golgi and recycling to the ER. A protein X is a type II transmembrane protein (N-terminus in the cytosol) localized to the Golgi. If you add a KDEL sequence to its N-terminus, the mutant protein will localize in the Golgi.
Reason R: ER luminal proteins, especially those present at high concentrations, can be passively incorporated into COPII vesicles and transported to the Nucleus. Many such proteins bear a C-terminal KDEL (Lys-Asp-Glu-Leu) sequence that allows them to be retrieved. The KDEL receptor, located mainly in the nuclear network, binds proteins bearing the KDEL sorting signal and returns them to the ER. This retrieval system prevents depletion of ER luminal proteins such as those needed for proper folding of newly made secretory proteins.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:75

What is the correct set of enzymes involved in base excision repair?

QUESTION ID:76

The genomes of viruses, prokaryotes and eukaryotes could be:

QUESTION ID:77

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The a helix, ẞ strand and sheet, and ẞ turn are the most prevalent elements of protein secondary structure. Secondary structures are stabilized by hydrogen bonds between atoms of the peptide backbone.
Statement II: Protein tertiary structure results from hydrophobic interactions between nonpolar side groups and from hydrogen bonds and ionic interactions involving polar side groups and the polypeptide backbone. These interactions stabilize the folding of the protein. including its secondary structural elements, into an overall three-dimensional arrangement.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:78

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Monoclonal antibodies, which bind one epitope of an antigen, can be secreted by cultured cells called hybridomas.
Statement II: These hybrid cells are made by fusing helper T-lymphocytes with immortal myeloma cells and then identifying those clones that produce the desired antibody.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:79

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Immunofluorescence microscopy makes use of antibodies to localize specific components in fixed and permeabilized cells. Direct immunofluorescence microscopy uses an unlabeled secondary antibody, followed by a fluorescently labeled primary antibody that recognizes the secondary one and allows it to be localized.
Statement II: Fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET) is a technique in which light energy is transferred from one fluorescent protein to another when the proteins are very close, thereby revealing when two molecules are close in the cell.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:80

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Nucleoid is not present in animal cells.
Statement II: The nucleoid is a chromatin-dense area within the cytoplasm and contains the bacterial DNA.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:81

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: cGMP is involved in the perception of light.
Statement II: Cyclic GMP-gated channels in the outer segment membrane are responsible for the light-included changes in the electrical activity of photoreceptors.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:82

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Among the two nucleic acids, DNA and RNA found in living cells, DNA is considerably more stable than RNA.
Statement II: Double stranded state of DNA and single stranded state of RNA contributes to this status.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:83

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and Real-time polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) are techniques.
Statement II: They have invented for in vitro amplification of DNA as well as RNA.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:84

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Diethylaminoethyl Cellulose (DEAE-C) is typically used in ion-exchange chromatography for the separation and purification of proteins.
Statement II: DEAE-Cellulose is cationic exchanger.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:85

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Gibbs energy change of a process can be determined by performing measurements under equilibrium conditions.
Statement II: Gibbs energy change at equilibrium is zero.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:86

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In Non-competitive inhibitor, Km remains unaltered while Vmax
Statement II: Km increases and Vmax remains unchanged. is reduced.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:87

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: IgM antibody is pentamer
Statement II: It has five combining site

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:88

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Free living cells usually incorporate free DNA molecules in its genome.
Statement II: This process is known as transformation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:89

Match List I with List II 

List IList II
A. Ion-exchange chromatographyI. Specific binding interaction between an immobilized ligand
B. DialysisII. Net surface charge
C. Affinity chromatographyIII. Differential Partitioning
D. Thin layer chromatographyIV. Removing waste products
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:90

Match List I with List II 

List IList II
A. HydrolaseI. Acetyl-CoA synthetase
B. OxidoreductaseII. Pyruvate kinase
C. TransferaseIII. Cytochrome oxidase
D. LigaseIV. Lipase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:91

Match List I with List II 

List IList II
A. Lag PhaseI. Exponential phase
B. Log PhaseII. Depletion of an essential nutrient
C. Stationary phaseIII. Adaptation to growth condition
D. Death phaseIV. Decline phase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:92

Match List I with List II 

List IList II
A. MycobacteriumI. AIDS
B. Retro VirusII. Tuberculosis and leprosy
C. PlasmodiumIII. Diarrheal illness
D. Vibrio choleraIV. Malarial fever

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:93

Match List I with List II 

List IList II
A. GlycolysisI. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
B. TCA cycleII. Pyruvate kinase
C. Urea cycleIII. Phosphoribulokinase
D. Calvin cycleIV. Argininosuccinate synthetase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:94

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. B CellsI. Tissue macrophages
B. T cellsII. Tumor cells
C. NK cellsIII. Bursa of fibricius
D. MonocytesIV. Thymus
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:95

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. ABC TransporterI. Na+K+ATPase
B. P type ATPaseII. Glucose transporter
C. F type ATPaseIII. Cystic Fibrosis
D. Passive transporterIV. ATP synthase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:96

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. DNA Polymerase II. Highest polymerization rate (250-1000 nt/sec)
B. DNA Polymerase IIII. 5'-3' Exonuclease activity
C. DNA Polymerase IIIIII. Least molecular weight (80000 Da)
D. DNA Polymerase IVIV. DNA repair, translesion synthesis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:97

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. 3' 5' cAMP (cyclic AMP)I. Nitroglycerin
B. CalciumII. Phorbol esters
C. 1, 2 DAG (Diacyl glycerol)III. Forskolin
D. 3' 5' cGMP (cyclic GMP)IV. Calmodulin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:98

Match List I with List II

List I (Ions)List II Cell (mM)
A. K+I. 145-155
B. Na+II. 0.001 – 0.003
C. Cl-III. 3.8 – 4.0
D. Ca2+IV. 10 – 12
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:99

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. RNA polymerase II. mRNA, siRNA, miRNA
B. RNA polymerase IIII. Pre rRNA
C. RNA polymerase IIIIII. tRNA, snRNA
D. DNA polymerase γIV. Mitochondrial DNA replication and repair
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:100

Match List I with List II

List I (G α class)List II (Receptor examples)
A. G α sI. Rhodopsin in rod cells
B. G α iII. β - Adrenergic (epinephrine) Receptor; receptors for glucagon, Serotonin, vasopressin
C. G α qIII. α 2-Adrenergic receptor Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor
D. G α tIV. α 1-Adrenergic receptor

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:101

Identify the correct preposition to make a meaningful sentence.

Mirror neurons first came _____ light in the 1980s.

QUESTION ID:102

Identify the meaning of the underline idiom from the options given :

Radha's brother strained every nerve to enable her to get admission in Medical college.

QUESTION ID:103

Choose the correct option to make a meaningful sentence. His secretary _____ five orphanages by today evening.

QUESTION ID:104

Identify synonym for the underlined word in the sentence.

Aman's parents are happy that the couple is trying to find an amicable​ solution to their problems.

QUESTION ID:105

Pick out the correctly spelt word.

QUESTION ID:106

Identify the correct active voice for the sentence given below :

You are requested not to switch on the bulb.

QUESTION ID:107

Identify the correct direct speech for the sentence given below

The Forbes told that it was not responsible for any information published in the magazine.

QUESTION ID:108

Give below are four sentences in jumbled order. Select the option that gives their correct order.

A. The structure of the building depends on the purpose for which it is erected.

B. People who design a building keep in mind the purpose for which it is being erected.

C. Humans erect buildings for various purposes.

D. One building may require strength, another may require comfort, and a third may require space.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:109

From among the four options given, choose the one which is a grammatically correct sentence.

QUESTION ID:110

Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no error, mark option 4. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:111

In 1985, the Government of India launched a special vaccination programme called :

QUESTION ID:112

Match List I with List II

List - IList - II
Indian NationalsMagsaysay winners under specific category
A. Verghese KurienI. Government Service
B. Boobli Geogre VergheseII. Emergent Leadership
C. James Michale LyndohIII. Journalism & Creative Arts
D. Kulandei FranicsIV. Community Leadership
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:113

Match List- I with List- II

List - I (Type Hydrogen)List - II (Explanation)
A. GreenI. Generated through electrolysis powered by nuclear energy
B. BlueII. Generated from natural gas but the carbon dioxide is not captured.
C. GreyIII. Generated by splitting natural gas by SMR and ATR method, Carbon dioxide is captured.
D. PinkIV. Generated by electrolysis of water using renewable energy.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:114

Cartographers are those who make :

QUESTION ID:115

In 2003, space shuttle Columbia which carried Indian origin astronaut Kalpana Chawla, an Israeli and five other members disintegrated upon its re-entry to the Earth's atmosphere.

Name the Israeli astronaut.

QUESTION ID:116

Find the next alphabets - VULHI, TSMJK, RQNIM, POONO, -----

QUESTION ID:117

Aman, Balwinder, Chetan, Mahesh, Pradeep, Deepti are standing in a circle facing centre. Balwinder is in between Deepti and Chetan. Aman is in between Pradeep and Mahesh. Deepti is to the left of Mahesh. Who is between Balwinder and Mahesh?

QUESTION ID:118

Which does not belong with the others ?

(i) Contents

(ii) Chapter

(iii) Bibliography

(iv) Research Thesis

QUESTION ID:119

Meena lives in Mumbai and has a house on the western beach. Her younger cousin Rakesh lives in a small town near Delhi. Rakesh is a frequent visitor to Mumbai and stays with Meena. Meena has visited Rakesh's house only once in the past 3 years.

(i) Rakesh likes Meena more than Meena likes Rakesh.

(ii) Meena is elder to Rakesh.

(iii) Meena does not like small towns.

(iv) Rakesh wants to buy house on the beach.

QUESTION ID:120

Find the missing number,

7, 8, 15, 34, 71, 132. _____

QUESTION ID:121

Arrange the following fractions (A-E) in their ascending order.

A. 5/8

B. 7/12

C. 13/16

D. 16/29

E. 3/4

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:122

A mixture contains alcohol and water in the ratio 4:3. If 5 liters of water is added to the mixture, the ratio becomes 4:5. The quantity of alcohol in the given mixture (in liters) is :

QUESTION ID:123

The value of ​ : is approximately equal to

QUESTION ID:124

If , then 

QUESTION ID:125

If the difference between compound and simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 2% per annum is ₹ 604, then what is the sum?

QUESTION ID:126

Which of the following technique is used for tracing change in intracellular location of proteins and metabolites.

QUESTION ID:127

A specific protein required for infecting a host by corona virus is known as:

QUESTION ID:128

The most common initial step to separate water soluble proteins from insoluble cellular material is-

QUESTION ID:129

The pH at which net charge of protein becomes zero under an electrical field at room temperature is known as

QUESTION ID:130

The microscope that converts slight difference in the refractive index and cell density into easily observed difference in the light intensity is known as-

QUESTION ID:131

Which of the following Histone protein found in chromatin has high Lysine content?

QUESTION ID:132

Which of the following techniques may be used for identifying a regulatory protein that acts by binding to specific sequence of DNA?

QUESTION ID:133

Which of the following disease in humans is caused due to expanded microsatellite repeats?

QUESTION ID:134

Which of the following disease is associated with Philadelphia chromosome?

QUESTION ID:135

A classification system that groups organisms together based on the similarity of their observable characteristics is known as-

QUESTION ID:136

A class of Immunoglobulin present in the serum which neutralizes toxins, activates complements and crosses the placenta to protect the fetus and neonate is

QUESTION ID:137

Blood group antigen differs in their

QUESTION ID:138

The replication on template strand always proceeds in 5′ to 3′ direction. If the sequence of template strand is 5′ATCCCT3′, how would the correct sequence of newly synthesized strand of DNA be read?

QUESTION ID:139

Which of the following condition is NOT essential to maintain Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in a population?

QUESTION ID:140

Bacteria produce an enzyme methylase which mainly plays a role in

QUESTION ID:141

In anaerobic conditions, yeast consumes more glucose than in the presence of aerobic environment. This phenomenon is known as-

QUESTION ID:142

Which DNA repair system is affected in Lynch syndrome?

QUESTION ID:143

Which of the following animal has a pseudocoel?

QUESTION ID:144

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of bony fishes?

QUESTION ID:145

The method which was first developed for gene mapping in bacteria was

QUESTION ID:146

The gold standard method used for the detection of SARS-CoV-2 infection is

QUESTION ID:147

Which one of the following phytochemicals produced in plants defend against herbivores?

QUESTION ID:148

The rate of oxygen production is enhanced when there is operation of

QUESTION ID:149

The primary acceptor of CO2​ in C4​ plants is

QUESTION ID:150

The prokaryotic microorganism which fixes atmospheric nitrogen in symbiotic association under aerobic condition in aquatic ferns is-

QUESTION ID:151

Which of the following is not a vitamin?

QUESTION ID:152

A cloning vector may not contain

QUESTION ID:153

A lambda phage genome has a length of

QUESTION ID:154

Chemically synthesized linker molecules containing recognition sequences of specific restriction endonucleases for creation of cohesive ends in blunt ended DNA fragments are generally

QUESTION ID:155

Which one of the following is autoimmune disease?

QUESTION ID:156

In which of the following plants, the gametophyte does not represent an independent free living generation?

QUESTION ID:157

Which of the following statement is true about Gymnosperms?

QUESTION ID:158

Gaucher disease is a genetic disorder which is associated with

QUESTION ID:159

Hematopoietic stem cells are found in

QUESTION ID:160

Which of the following vaccine does not provide life time protection?

QUESTION ID:161

The formation of endosperm before fertilization is a characteristic of

QUESTION ID:162

Heterospory is not found in

QUESTION ID:163

Diagnostic test used to detect Human Immunodeficiency Virus is

QUESTION ID:164

Which one of the following antibody can cross placental barrier?

QUESTION ID:165

Trypan blue assay is used for the:

QUESTION ID:166

Match List- I with List- II

List-I (Enzymes)List-II (Function)
A. Histone acetyl transferaseI. DNA replication
B. Cyclin dependent kinaseII. Chromatin remodeling
C. α-antitrypsinIII. Cell cycle regulation
D. TopoisomeraseIV. Emphysema

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:167

Match List- I with List- II

List-I (Animal)List-II (Larva)
A. AnnelidsI. Veliger
B. InsectsII. Trochophore
C. MolluscesIII. Ammocoetes
D. CyclostomesIV. Catterpillar

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:168

Match List- I with List- II

List-I (Hormone)List-II (Function)
A. Epinephrine in liverI. Conversion of glycogen to glucose-1 phosphate
B. FSHII. Increased conversion of glycogen to glucose
C. VasopressinIII. Increase synthesis of estrogen
D. Epinephrine in skeletal muscleIV. Reabsorption of water

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:169

Match List- I with List- II

List-I (Nitrogenous bases)List-II (Deaminated product)
A. CytosineI. Thymine
B. 5-methyl-cytosineII. Xanthine
C. AdenineIII. Uracil
D. GuanineIV. Hypoxanthine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:170

Match List- I with List- II

List-I (Compound)List-II (Function)
A. DolicholI. Blood clotting factor
B. Vitamin-KII. Antioxidant
C. Vitamin-EIII. Anticoagulant
D. WarfarinIV. Sugar carrier

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:171

Match List- I with List- II

List-I (Cell type)List-II (Function)
A. MacrophagesI. Antibody production
B. B-cellsII. Phagocytosis
C. Cytotoxic T-cellsIII. Interact with macrophages and secret cytokines
D. Helper T-cellsIV. Interact with infected host cells

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:172

Match List I with List II

List-I (Name of Scientists)List-II (Discoveries)
A. Avery, Macleod and McCartyI. Complementation analysis
B. Edward JennerII. Law of equivalence of bases
C. Erwin ChargaffIII. Chemical basis of heredity
D. Seymour BenzerIV. Vaccine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:173

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : The application of herbicides to kill unwanted plants is widespread in agriculture.

Statement II : DCMU act by blocking electron flow at the quinone acceptors of photosystem by competing for the binding site of plastoquinone.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:174

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In prokaryotes all types of RNAs are transcrilbed by the holoenzyme, that consists of several polypeptides (Two α, One β, & One β' and one σ).

Statement II: The start signals on DNA are called promoters and represent the initial binding site for the RNA polymerase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:175

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Glycolytic pathway is the only route available for the oxidation of sugars in plant cells.

Statement II: In Pentose phosphate pathway, the complete oxidation of one glucose-6-phosphate molecule to CO2 results in production of 12 NADPH molecules.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:176

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Telomeres are sequences at the end of eukaryotic chromosomes which helps in stabilizing the chromosome.
Statement II: Telomeres end with multiple repeated sequences in the form of (TTAGGG)n in humans.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:177

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In agarose gel electrophoresis, the large pore sizes of the low concentration gels makes possible the separation of very large molecules.
Statement II: In agarose gel electrophoresis, the small pore sizes of the high concentration gels makes possible the separation of large molecules.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:178

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between cyanobacteria with the roots of higher plants.
Statement II: Mycorrhizal association is important for nutrient acquisition in plants under limited condition.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:179

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Apoptosis is a genetically regulated process occurring in specific tissues during development and disease by which cell destroy itself.
Statement II: Apoptosis is regulated by intracellular signals generated from many secreted cells, cell surface, protein hormones as well as many environmental stresses.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:180

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In C4 cycle fixation of CO2 by the carboxylation of phosphoenol pyruvate in the mesophyll cells results in conversion to malate or aspartate.
Statement II: The transport of C4 acids to the bundle sheath cells leads to decarboxylation and generation of CO2, which is finally reduced into carbohydrates via Calvin cycle.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:181

Establishment of mammalian cell culture involves the following steps.

A. Culture of primary cells
B. Subculture of primary cells
C. Separation of cells from tissue by mechanical or enzymatic method
D. Culture of secondary cells
E. Subculture of secondary cells

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:182

The steps involved in bacterial translation are

A. Activation of amino acids
B. Initiation of polypeptide synthesis
C. Aminoacylation tRNA
D. Peptide bond formation
E. Termination of polypeptide

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:183

The sequential steps involved in prophase I of meiosis are

A. Chromosome condensation
B. Terminalization of chiasmata
C. Formation of tetrad of bivalents (four strand)
D. Pairing of homologous chromosomes
E. Genetic recombination

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:184

Arrange the following discoveries in increasing order

A. Greger John Mendel discovered the basic principles of Genetics
B. Charles Darwin published a book on origin of species
C. Watson and Crick deciphered DNA structure
D. Friedrich Miescher identified Nuclein
E. Oswald Avery identified DNA as the transforming principle

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:185

Arrange the following in order of their action

A. G1 cyclin CDK Complex
B. APC-cdh1
C. S Phase cyclin CDK Complex
D. MPF
E. APC-cdc20

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:186

Identify the correct order of signal transduction pathway

A. Binding of ligands to cell surface receptor
B. Termination of signal
C. Generation of intracellular second messenger
D. Intracellular signaling cascade
E. Effector response

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:187

The nuceloplasmic index, where the nuclear mass and cytoplasmic mass of the cells are in the state of optimum equilibrium depends upon

A. Nuclear volume
B. Cell volume
C. Nuclear mass
D. Cytoplasmic mass
E. Centrioles number

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:188

Identify the inhibitory neurotransmitters from the following:

A. Glutamate
B. Aspartate
C. Cysteine
D. Glycine
E. GABA

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:189

The function of a gene depends on expression of

A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Protein
D. Metabolite
E. Lipid

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:190

Identify the features of cancer cells

A. Rapid cell growth and division
B. Reduced cell growth and division
C. Loss of normal control of cell division
D. Reduced angiogenesis
E. Utilize glucose at reduced rate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:191

Identify the methods to measure apoptosis in-vitro in mammalian cell culture

A. MTT assay
B. LC MS
C. NMR
D. Crystal violet assay
E. PAGE

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:192

Identify the tumor suppressor genes from the following

A. Ras
B. Raf
C. PTEN
D. Myc
E. p53

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:193

Which of the following organizations are involved in Covaxin production in India.

A. DBT
B. CSIR-CDRI
C. ICMR-NIV
D. Bharat Biotech
E. Bharat Serum

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:194

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Bateson & Punett showed that the linked genes do not obey Mendel’s law of independent assortment.

Reason R: The Dihybrid test cross ratio for closely linked genes produced 50% parental and 50% recombinant types of progeny.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:195

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Oligosaccharides with unique structures are components of a variety of glycoproteins and glycolipids on the outer surface of plasma membranes.

Reason R: The influenza virus infects animal cells by binding to the cell surface glycoproteins as first step of infection.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:196

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Each Dideoxynucleotide used in Sanger’s method of DNA sequencing can be linked to a fluorescent molecule that gives all the fragments terminating at that nucleotide of particular colour.

Reason R: The DNA sequence is read by determining the sequence of colour in the peak as they pass through the detector.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:197

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Polyploid species of common bread wheat have evolved by hybridization followed by chromosome doubling in interspecific hybrids by treatment with colchicine.

Reason R: Colchicine induces gigantism in allopolyploid species of bread wheat.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:198

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The lacZ gene is present of pUC cloning vectors as the selectable marker by which recombinants may be selected through insertional inactivation of lacZ gene.

Reason R: IPTG acts as gratuitous inducer of lacZ genes due to which recombinants produced in pUC vectors may be selected by Blue-white screening.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:199

Match List I with List II

List-I (Group of Organisms/Plants)List-II (Grouped as)
A. Bacteria and Blue-Green AlgaeI. Tracheophyta
B. Bryophytes and PteridophytesII. Spermatophyta
C. Pteridophytes and GymnospermsIII. Monera
D. Angiosperms and GymnospermsIV. Embryophyta

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:200

Match List I with List II

List-I (Plants)List-II (Economic Importance)
A. Rauwolfia serpentinaI. Insect repellents
B. Vinca roseaII. Tooth paste
C. Schizyzium aromaticumIII. Blood Pressure
D. Azadirachta indicaIV. Cancer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:201

From among the four options given, choose the most appropriate sequence of the four phrases given below, to make a meaningful sentence:

(A) turn to the next page
(B) once you get to the end
(C) to find the correct answers
(D) of the quiz

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:202

Choose the correctly spelt word.

QUESTION ID:203

Choose the correct sentence.

QUESTION ID:204

Match List I with List II

List I (Word)List II (Antonym)
(A) lively(i) comfort
(B) release(ii) discredit
(C) bother(iii) check
(D) appreciate(iv) dull
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:205

From among the four options given, choose the word that is opposite in meaning to ‘professional’

QUESTION ID:206

Identify the correct direct narration for the following sentence.

Moti asked Gangu whether the latter was in his sense.

QUESTION ID:207

Which of the following is a one-word substitute for ‘a government by the wealthy’?

QUESTION ID:208

Pick out the synonym of the following word

Optimist

QUESTION ID:209

Fill up the blank with the correct form of verb:

Neither of the two plans ________ approved.

QUESTION ID:210

Identify the passive voice for the following sentence.

Do not insult the poor.

QUESTION ID:211

Member of Parliament will lose his membership if he is continuously absent from his sessions for:

QUESTION ID:212

When value of money exceeds the commodity value of money, it is called

QUESTION ID:213

Which of the following will become the first multilateral agency to open an office in the Gujarat International Finance Tech City (GIFT)?

QUESTION ID:214

Name the first Indian firm which has entered the so-called global carbon market through the farm sector

QUESTION ID:215

A retired judge of a High Court is permitted to practice as a lawyer in

QUESTION ID:216

Invariable Concomittance relations are like:

(A) The relation between Tree and Fruit
(B) The relation between Fire and Coolness
(C) The relation between Smoke and Fire
(D) The relation between Earth and Smell
(E) The relation where absence of one is the negation of other

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:217

Match List I with List II:

List IList II
(A) Philosopher(I) Rational
(B) Truth(II) Taste
(C) Tongue(III) Idea
(D) Man(IV) Eternal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:218

Put all the statements in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a valid argument containing a logical statement, i.e., where the third statement is a conclusion from the preceding two statements:

(A) All Cats are Pens
(B) All Dogs are Pens
(C) All Dogs are Cats
(D) Some Dogs are Pens
(E) Some Pens are Cats
(F) No Cat is Hen

Choose:

QUESTION ID:219

Match List I with List II:

List IList II
(A) Bees(I) Consciousness
(B) Mind(II) Poison
(C) Snake(III) Honey
(D) Human(IV) Thought

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:220

Match List I with List II:

List IList II
(A) Forest(I) Bacteria
(B) Milk(II) Taste
(C) Water(III) Trees
(D) Food(IV) Oxygen

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:221

The polynomial ( p(x) = ax3 + bx2 + x - 6 ), when divided by ( x + 2 ) and ( x - 2 ) leaves the remainders 0 and 4 respectively, then

QUESTION ID:222

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion (A): If the areas of two circles are in the ratio 16 : 25 then their circumferences are in the ratio 4 : 5.

Reason (R): If the areas of two circles are in the ratio (A1 : A2), then their circumferences are in the ratio

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:223

The diameter of a sphere is 6 cm. It is melted and drawn into a wire of diameter 4 mm. Then the length of the wire is

QUESTION ID:224

If aa and bb are the roots of the quadratic equation

x2+ ax − b = 0 and         then

QUESTION ID:225

A three-digit number is chosen at random. The probability that its hundred’s digit, ten’s digit, and unit’s digit are consecutive integers in descending order, is​

QUESTION ID:226

Choose the correct sequence for protein transport in a cell.

QUESTION ID:227

Enzyme responsible for relaxing positive supercoiling of DNA in prokaryotes

QUESTION ID:228

Sudan Black is used for staining of

QUESTION ID:229

Sodium–Potassium ATPase transports

QUESTION ID:230

Voltage-Dependent Anion-selective Channels (VDACs) allow passage of small molecules across

QUESTION ID:231

Which of the following is a non-parametric test?

QUESTION ID:232

Which of the following is known as positional average?

QUESTION ID:233

Haplodiploid system of sex determination is found in

QUESTION ID:234

Example of multiple allelism is

QUESTION ID:235

When one gene masks the effect of another gene in a phenotype, then it is known as:

QUESTION ID:236

The association in which population of one organism is benefitted and population of the other is unaffected is known as

QUESTION ID:237

Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is located in which State?

QUESTION ID:238

Genetic material of Coronavirus is

QUESTION ID:239

In the above mentioned Ramachandran Plot, A and B represent the following respectively

QUESTION ID:240

Phospholipase C cleaves phosphatidyl-inositol 4,5-bisphosphate into the following:

QUESTION ID:241

The formation of hypoblast in birds is a result of

QUESTION ID:242

Lysozyme cleaves peptidoglycan at

QUESTION ID:243

Direct Greenhouse gases do not include

QUESTION ID:244

Which one of the following technique is used for the characterisation of RNA?

QUESTION ID:245

In the formation of agarose gel, which one of the following bonds is involved?

QUESTION ID:246

Melatonin is derived from which of the following?

QUESTION ID:247

Which one of the following is known as pacemaker of the heart?

QUESTION ID:248

In the stomach, hydrochloric acid (HCl) is secreted by

QUESTION ID:249

Reabsorption of water via the distal convoluted tubule is by which of the following?

QUESTION ID:250

Hormone responsible for metamorphosis in frog is :-

QUESTION ID:251

Embryonic cleavage in mammals is

QUESTION ID:252

Neoteny is exhibited by :-

QUESTION ID:253

The six-kingdom classification was proposed by whom?

QUESTION ID:254

The structural basis in sponges is provided by which of the following? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:255

Methylation of Uracil forms which of the following?

QUESTION ID:256

Which of the enzyme catalyses the formation of peptide bond between two amino acids?

QUESTION ID:257

Histone Acetyl Transferase (HAT) acetylates which amino acid of histone?

QUESTION ID:258

Which of the following immune cells are known as polymorphonuclear (PMN) leucocytes?

QUESTION ID:259

Cytotoxic T cells are :-

QUESTION ID:260

MHC-II is expressed by which of the following?

QUESTION ID:261

Tetrapods and insects first appeared during which period?

QUESTION ID:262

Molecular clock concept used to measure evolutionary changes is based on:

QUESTION ID:263

Which one of the following is a post-zygotic barrier in speciation?

QUESTION ID:264

The area that contains at least 1500 species of vascular plants as endemic species along with at least 70% of habitat loss is designated as:

QUESTION ID:265

Ascaris lumbricoides is

QUESTION ID:266

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. DiaphysisI. The regions between the diaphysis and epiphysis
B. EpiphysisII. A thin membrane that lines the internal bone surface
C. MetaphysisIII. The proximal and distal end of the bone
D. EndosteumIV. The long cylindrical main portion of the bone

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:267

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. Renal calculiI. A condition characterized by proteinuria and hyperlipidemia
B. Nephrotic syndromeII. Kidney tubules become riddled with cysts
C. Renal failureIII. Kidney stone
D. Polycystic kidney diseaseIV. Cessation of glomerular filtration

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:268

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. GlycineI. Aromatic amino acid
B. TyrosineII. Amino acid having chiral C-atom in side chain
C. TryptophanIII. Optically inactive
D. ThreonineIV. Amino acid undergoes phosphorylation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:269

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulumI. Protein synthesis
B. Rough endoplasmic reticulumII. Detoxification
C. LysosomeIII. Oxidative phosphorylation
D. MitochondriaIV. Intracellular digestion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:270

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. Allopatric SpeciesI. Species inhabiting the same geographical area
B. Sympatric SpeciesII. Species inhabiting different geographical areas
C. Sibling SpeciesIII. Species occupying separate areas that share a common boundary
D. Parapatric SpeciesIV. Species which are morphologically identical but reproductively isolated
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:271

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. Bone marrowI. Hematopoiesis
B. SpleenII. T-cell maturation
C. Lymph NodeIII. Filtration of blood-borne antigen
D. ThymusIV. Filtration of tissue-associated antigen
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:272

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Hemoglobin binding to oxygen is non-cooperative.

Reason R: Hemoglobin is the oxygen carrier.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:273

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scientists believe that RNA is the primitive genetic material.

Reason R: RNA has the ability to catalyze chemical reactions.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:274

Arrange the events in correct order of sequence:

A. Cleavage
B. Fertilization
C. Morula
D. Gastrula
E. Blastula

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:275

Arrange the following in decreasing order (size).

A. Mitochondria
B. Proteins
C. Ribosomes
D. Human egg
E. Nucleus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:276

Arrange the following in sequence of molecular events.

A. Transcription
B. Nuclear Export
C. Translation
D. Splicing
E. Glycosylation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:277

Arrange the following in the correct sequence of DNA packaging.

A. DNA Scaffold
B. Nucleosome formation
C. Chromatosome formation
D. Histone Dimerization
E. 30 nm fiber

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:278

Arrange the following components of complement system as per their involvement in initiation of alternative pathways of complement system. (DROP)

A. Factor D
B. Factor B
C. C3b
D. Properdin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:279

Arrange the following animals on the basis of their phyla according to increasing level of complexity.

A. Limulus
B. Nereis
C. Taenia solium
D. Sycon

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:280

Arrange the following evolutionary events in horse chronologically:

A. Equus
B. Miohippus
C. Orohippus
D. Hyracotherium
E. Merychippus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:281

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Compound microscope includes condenser lens, the objective lens and the eyepiece lens.

Statement II: Objective lens has a smaller focal length and aperture than the eyepiece.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:282

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Type I Hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by IgE.

Statement II: Type III Hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by the formation of immune complexes and activation of complement.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:283

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Flagella has 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules.

Statement II: Centriole has 9 + 0 arrangement of microtubules.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:284

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Lysozyme, an enzyme found in mucous secretion and in tears. It cleaves peptide bonds of the antigen.

Statement II: Interferon comprises a group of proteins produced by virus-infected cells.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:285

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In non-competitive type of enzymatic inhibition, the Vmax decreases and Km remains unchanged.

Statement II: Temperature below freezing point causes inactivation of enzymes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:286

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Myoglobin and haemoglobin are oligomeric proteins.

Statement II: Myoglobin and haemoglobin are heme-containing proteins.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:287

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Hypothalamus regulates emotions and behaviour.

Statement II: Hypothalamus controls body temperature.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:288

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. SavannahI. North American Plains
B. TaigaII. Home of ants, antelopes and lions
C. Temperate grasslandIII. Deciduous trees, such as hickory and birch
D. Temperate broadleaf forestIV. Spruce, fir, pine and hemlock trees
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:289

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Migration refers to regular, recurrent and cyclical movement of animals from one place to the other.

Statement II: Migration occurs to manage the excess of food and water.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:290

Choose the correct statement.

A. Differential gene expression can occur only at the level of transcription.
B. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region to initiate transcription.
C. Enhancers regulate transcription.
D. Transcription factors can recognize specific sequences of DNA in heterochromatic region.
E. Post-translational modification occurs in nucleus.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:291

Pernicious anemia is a result of

A. Deficiency of Vitamin B2
B. Deficiency of Vitamin C
C. Blockage of Vitamin B12 absorption
D. Blockage of Vitamin A absorption
E. Lack of proteins in diet

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:292

Which of the following are correct for MHC-I molecule?

A. Glycoprotein
B. Expressed by nearly all nucleated cells
C. Present antigen to TH (T-helper) cells
D. Peptide-binding domain is α₁ and β₁

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:293

The animals having segmented body belong to the phylum

A. Protozoa
B. Cnidaria
C. Ctenophora
D. Annelida
E. Arthropoda

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:294

Choose the correct statement.

A. Mean, median and mode are measures of central tendency.
B. Range, quartile range and standard deviation are the measures of spread or variability.
C. Variance is the average squared deviation.
D. Continuous data arise from qualitative traits.
E. If mean of six data is 30, the sum of all the data will be 36.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:295

In deserts, Kangaroos can survive without drinking water because of the following reasons (DROP)

A. Dependence on protein rich diet
B. Greater ADH level in the blood
C. Absence of sweat glands
D. Dependence on metabolic water

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:296

Which of the following statements are true?

A. Dominant species have a large effect on the community because of its abundance.
B. Keystone species have a large role in community, out of proportion to its abundance.
C. Indicator species provide information on the overall health of an ecosystem.
D. Flagship species is the single, large and instantly recognisable species.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:297

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Primitive groove is the functional equivalent to dorsal lip of the amphibian blastopore.

Reason R: Dorsal lip of the amphibian blastopore is considered as the primary organiser.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:298

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The density of RNA molecule is higher than that of DNA.

Reason R: RNA has 2′OH group attached to the second carbon atom of the ribose ring.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:299

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Water is an excellent solvent.

Reason R: Water has high dielectric constant.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:300

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Animals cannot convert fatty acids to sugars.

Reason R: Plants possess glyoxylate cycle.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:301

Identify the correct preposition to make a meaningful sentence.

The scheme of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojna was originated ______ the Prime Minister.

QUESTION ID:302

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given.

Rajesh's brother gave him a bird's eye view of the courses offered in the Hansraj College.

QUESTION ID:303

Choose the correct option to make a meaningful sentence.

For the last seven months I _________ in this company.

QUESTION ID:304

Identify synonym for the underlined word in the sentence.

Rabindranath Tagore had penchant for reading books.

QUESTION ID:305

Find correctly spelt word from the options given below (only one word is spelt correctly):

QUESTION ID:306

Identify the correct active voice for the sentence given below:

When were my shirts returned by Ajay?

QUESTION ID:307

Identify the correct direct speech for the sentence given below:

Farhaan told Ashok that Taj Mahal is the Seventh Wonder of the World.

QUESTION ID:308

Choose the correct order of the paragraph to create a meaning out of PQRS set:

To explain

P : that there are no opposites.
Q : forms required looking at the second
R : approach to opposites in the theory of forms
S : how Plato can deny the existence of some

QUESTION ID:309

Choose the correct sentence.

QUESTION ID:310

Find out which part of the following sentence has an error.

QUESTION ID:311

Who built the famous Shiva Temple at Ellora?

QUESTION ID:312

The origin of Indian music can be traced to which of the following Vedic Samhitas?

QUESTION ID:313

Buddhism made an important impact by allowing which of the following hitherto marginalized sections of society into its fold?

A. Women
B. Warriors
C. Merchants
D. Shudras

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:314

President of India is empowered to make which of the following appointments?

A. Chief of the Army
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Chief of the Air Force

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:315

Which of the following statements are correct about Swachh Bharat Mission – Urban?

A. It has an outlay of 1.41 lakh crore and will be implemented over 5 years.
B. The nodal Ministry is Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
C. SBM-U Phase 2 was launched by Hardeep Singh Puri.
D. SBM was launched on 2nd October 2014.

Choose the correct answer:

QUESTION ID:316

In a certain code language,

"book pen mouse computer" is coded as "er gh iu cv"

"keypad pen book bottle" is coded as "gn ty iu kl"

"computer pen bottle paper" is coded as "cv kl io gh"

Which of the following code is used for "pen"

QUESTION ID:317

In a certain code language,

"Attend class daily good" is written as 9$5, 24%9, 3$6, 24*3

"Begin great any matter" is written as 3 & 3, 8$9, 10*15, 14$4

"Less error and fire" is written as 10$7, 23%8, 9%14, 24&3

"Tool better than screw" is written as 16%22, 5$21, 10*4, 14%22

According to the given code what will be the code for the word 'Burst'?

QUESTION ID:318

If the symbol '+' means '−' and '*' means '∕' and vice versa then, what would be the value of the following equation?

4 * 2 / 4 − 2 + 3

QUESTION ID:319

If V plays first, which one of the following must be true?

A. T perform sixth.
B. X perform third.
C. Z perform seventh.
D. T perform immediately after Y.
E. W perform immediately after X.

QUESTION ID:320

After walking for 6 km, Aradhana turns to the right and then walks 2 km. After that she turns to the left and walks 10 km. In the end, Aradhana is moving towards the North. From which direction did Aradhana start her journey?

QUESTION ID:321

In how many ways, a committee of 6 members be selected from 7 men and 5 women, consisting of 4 men and 2 women?

QUESTION ID:322

A cone and a sphere have equal radii and equal volumes. Find the ratio of the diameter of the sphere to the height of the cone?

QUESTION ID:323

What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice?

QUESTION ID:324

If the equation 2x2 + 3x + p = 0 has equal roots, then the value of p is

QUESTION ID:325

Nitrosomonas; a nitrifying bacteria is a

QUESTION ID:326

Which one is not the branch of Microbiology –

QUESTION ID:327

Secondary metabolite is synthesized by which phase of growth?

QUESTION ID:328

Spirulina, which contains about 65 percent protein of its dry weight, belongs to

QUESTION ID:329

The end product of the denitrification process is –

QUESTION ID:330

Which antibiotic inhibits transcription of DNA during protein synthesis?

QUESTION ID:331

Which is not a structural gene of Lac operon?

QUESTION ID:332

Ribozymes are catalytically active molecules of 

QUESTION ID:333

Type IV secretion system is involved during gene transfer in 

QUESTION ID:334

Which non-leguminous plant forms symbiotic association with Rhizobium? 

QUESTION ID:335

How many ATP are produced during glucose fermentation 

QUESTION ID:336

Which fungus is used for lactic acid fermentation in a bioreactor? 

QUESTION ID:337

Which of the following bacterium is used as biocontrol agent? 

QUESTION ID:338

Which of the following is a mobile electron carrier in the mitochondrial electron transport system? 

QUESTION ID:339

DNA replicates in which phase of a cell cycle 

QUESTION ID:340

Agarose is extracted from

QUESTION ID:341

Which technique is prepared in the separation of fatty acid methyl ester from a mixture? 

QUESTION ID:342

Which pyrimidine base contains an amino group at carbon 4? 

QUESTION ID:343

For the accurate mapping of genes ... is used. 

QUESTION ID:344

The photosynthetic bacteria, which is not an autotroph is: 

QUESTION ID:345

Name the amino acid which is used as a precursor for Indol-Acetic acid for promoting plant growth 

QUESTION ID:346

Which forces mainly maintain the three-dimensional structure of protein? 

QUESTION ID:347

Bacteriorhodopsin, a pigment which helps in phototrophy and ATP synthesis is found in: 

QUESTION ID:348

In polysaccharides O-glycosidic bond forms between 

QUESTION ID:349

Penicillin is produced in which of the following process: 

QUESTION ID:350

The viscosity of double-strand DNA molecule is lost due to 

QUESTION ID:351

Transfer of 'gene of choice' from bacteria to higher plant is meditated through: 

QUESTION ID:352

Which of the following acts as infectious agent during Cyanobacteria-plant symbiosis? 

QUESTION ID:353

In the presence of oxygen, C3 plants photosynthesis is inhibited due to  

QUESTION ID:354

Bt toxin is a protein coded by gene 

QUESTION ID:355

In normal phase chromatography

QUESTION ID:356

Who is father of 'environmental microbiology'? 

QUESTION ID:357

Cystic fibrosis is 

QUESTION ID:358

Which one is known as the topographic abiotic factor 

QUESTION ID:359

DNA is 

QUESTION ID:360

Molecular scissor used in genetic engineering is 

QUESTION ID:361

Carragenin, a jelly like substance is derived from marine algae known as 

QUESTION ID:362

The study of the group characteristics of a population, their changes over time, and prediction of future change are known as 

QUESTION ID:363

The element necessary for translocation of sugars in plant is 

QUESTION ID:364

Ecological succession is a 

QUESTION ID:365

Which biological agent acts as a mutagen? 

QUESTION ID:366

Who discovered first Azotobacter as N2 Fixing organism? 

QUESTION ID:367

which of the following cell organelle does not contain DNA? 

QUESTION ID:368

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: All bacteria have prokaryotic cell type.

Reason R: Bacteria do not contain any membrane-enclosed organelles.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:369

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: Bacteria contains 16S rRNA gene, which is used in bio-typing.

Reason R: The 16S rRNA gene is present in the small subunit of ribosomes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:370

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: T4 phage infects the E. coli cells.

Reason R: The T4 phage is capable of undergoing only a lytic cycle.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:371

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: The reduction of molecular nitrogen to ammonia requires high activation energy.

Reason R: Molecular nitrogen is an unreactive gas with a triple bond connecting the two nitrogen atoms.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:372

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: Saccharomyces cerevisiae grows both under aerobic and anaerobic conditions.

Reason R: Under aerobic condition it utilizes glucose for the production of biomass and under anaerobic condition it ferments glucose into ethanol and CO2 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:  

QUESTION ID:373

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: A unicellular micro-organism divides by binary fission and forms sigmoidal growth curve during its growth. During death phase some of the cells are able to survive and grow.

Reason R: In the stationary phase secondary metabolites produced by cells are utilized as nutrients for its survival during death phase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:374

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: During bacterial transformation single stranded DNA is transferred into cells.

Reason R: Endonuclease located on the cell wall cleave one of the strands of DNA.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:375

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: NADP+ is reduced to NADPH is non-cyclic photophosphorylation.

Reason R: NADP is a coenzyme which is reduced to NADPH2. The hydrogen required for formation of NADPH2 comes from hydrolysis of water molecule.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:376

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: An important chemical reaction N2 → NH3 is involved in nitrogen cycling in an ecosystem.

Reason R: The organisms associated with this chemical reaction is Nostoc.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:  

QUESTION ID:377

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: Mitochondria and chloroplast have their own DNA.

Reason R: They are called semiautonomous organelles since their DNA encode proteins required for metabolic functioning of mitochondria and chloroplast.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:378

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: E.coli is a coliform bacterium.

Reason R: Coliform bacteria are indicator of water quality.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:379

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: There are three stop codons amber, ochre and opal.

Reason R: UAG is amber while UGA is ochre.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:380

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: Heterocyst contains N2 - fixing enzyme nitrogenase under anaerobic condition.

Reason R: Heterocyst lacks PSII.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:  

QUESTION ID:381

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: Lambda phage infect K12 strain of E.coli.

Reason R: Lambda is a temperate phage which cause lysogeny in E.coli.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:382

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: Chlorophyll a is universal chlorophyll, found in organisms; algae to higher plants.

Reason R: Chlorophyll-a forms reaction center in photosynthesis.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:383

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: Roots of higher plants secretes carbohydrate, amino acids, vitamins into rhizospheric soil.

Reason R: Plant growth promoting rhizobacteria convert amino acid tryptophan into IAA.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:384

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: Troposphere lies above lithosphere and hydrosphere and contain Aerosols.

Reason R: Bioaerosols in the troposphere contain spores of fungi.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:385

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: Proteins upon hydrolysis with concentrated HCl at 100°C for 20 hours yield amino acids in the form of their hydrochlorides.

Reason R: Threonine is destroyed during acid hydrolysis.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:  

QUESTION ID:386

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: Nucleotides may have one, two or three phosphate groups covalently linked at 5' OH of ribose.

Reason R: The hydrolysis of ATP is an exergonic reaction.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:387

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A, and the other is marked as Reason R.

Assertion A: Alleles separate during gametogenesis.

Reason R: Separation of factors is due to the segregation of chromosomes during meiosis.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:388

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The nucleolus plays a major role in ribosome synthesis.

Statement II: Hydrogenosomes have a double membrane and carry out metabolic processes that generate methane gas.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:389

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Amino acids vary in their acid-base properties and have characteristic titration curves.

Statement II: Some proteins contain permanently associated chemical components in addition to amino acids: these are called conjugated proteins.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:390

Match List I with List II:

List I List II 
A. Psychrophilic bacteriaI. Thermal vent
B. Thermophilic bacteriaII. Antarctica
C. HyperthermophilesIII. Normal environment
D. Mesophilic bacteriaIV. Hot water spring
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:391

Match List I with List II: 

List I List II 
A. DNA polymeraseI. Plasmid vector with cos site
B. CybridII. A small piece of DNA radioactive isotope labelled
C. CosmidIII. DNA replication
D. DNA probeIV. Fusion of cytoplasm with whole cell
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:392

Match List I with List II: 

List I List II 
A. Collection of genes of an individualI. Mendel
B. Law of HeredityII. Genotype
C. SpliceosomesIII. Zinc finger analysis
D. DNA finger printingIV. Fungi
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:393

Match List I with List II: 

List I List II 
A. Enrichment of water body by nutrientsI. Omnivorous
B. Animals consume both plants and animalsII. Eutrophication
C. ThermosphereIII. Ocean
D. Largest ecosystem in the worldIV. Atmosphere
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:394

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

List I List II 
A. Pedigree analysisI. Quantitative genetics
B. Barr bodies are found inII. Female sex chromosome
C. Male heterogametyIII. Human
D. Sex determination was first studied in plantIV. Melandrium
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:395

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

List I List II 
A. PlasmidI. Plasmid contain replication origin of E.coli factor
B. CosmidII. Extra-chromosomal DNA
C. BACIII. Used for cloning in yeast
D. YACIV. Hybrid plasmid contains lambda DNA cohesive end
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:396

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

List I List II 
A. Lag phaseI. Synthesis of macromolecules
B. Log phaseII. Secondary metabolites
C. Stationary phaseIII. Primary metabolites
D. Death phaseIV. Cryptic growth
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:397

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

List I List II 
A. Edible fungiI. Saccharomyces
B. PenicillinII. Agaricus
C. Rust of WheatIII. Penicillium chrysogenum
D. BuddingIV. Puccinia triticina
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:398

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

List I List II 
A. MicrocystisI. Biofertilizer
B. AnabaenaII. Nanandrous male
C. VaucheriaIII. Toxin
D. OedogoniumIV. Coenozoospore
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:399

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II 

List I List II 
A. AuxinI. Stomatal Closure
B. CytokininsII. Stimulate the growth of the late buds
C. GibberellinsIII. Influence root formation
D. Abscisic acidIV. Stem Elongation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:400

Identify the correct preposition to make a meaningful sentence.

The scheme of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojna was originated ______ the Prime Minister.

QUESTION ID:401

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given.

Rajesh's brother gave him a bird's eye view of the courses offered in the Hansraj College.

QUESTION ID:402

Choose the correct option to make a meaningful sentence.

For the last seven months I _________ in this company.

QUESTION ID:403

Identify synonym for the underlined word in the sentence.

Rabindranath Tagore had penchant for reading books.

QUESTION ID:404

Find correctly spelt word from the options given below (only one word is spelt correctly):

QUESTION ID:405

Identify the correct active voice for the sentence given below:

When were my shirts returned by Ajay?

QUESTION ID:406

Identify the correct direct speech for the sentence given below:

Farhaan told Ashok that Taj Mahal is the Seventh Wonder of the World.

QUESTION ID:407

Choose the correct order of the paragraph to create a meaning out of PQRS set:

To explain

P : that there are no opposites.
Q : forms required looking at the second
R : approach to opposites in the theory of forms
S : how Plato can deny the existence of some

QUESTION ID:408

Choose the correct sentence.

QUESTION ID:409

Find out which part of the following sentence has an error.

QUESTION ID:410

Who built the famous Shiva Temple at Ellora?

QUESTION ID:411

The origin of Indian music can be traced to which of the following Vedic Samhitas?

QUESTION ID:412

Buddhism made an important impact by allowing which of the following hitherto marginalized sections of society into its fold?

A. Women
B. Warriors
C. Merchants
D. Shudras

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:413

President of India is empowered to make which of the following appointments?

A. Chief of the Army
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Chief of the Air Force

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:414

Which of the following statements are correct about Swachh Bharat Mission – Urban?

A. It has an outlay of 1.41 lakh crore and will be implemented over 5 years.
B. The nodal Ministry is Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
C. SBM-U Phase 2 was launched by Hardeep Singh Puri.
D. SBM was launched on 2nd October 2014.

Choose the correct answer:

QUESTION ID:415

In a certain code language,

"book pen mouse computer" is coded as "er gh iu cv"

"keypad pen book bottle" is coded as "gn ty iu kl"

"computer pen bottle paper" is coded as "cv kl io gh"

Which of the following code is used for "pen"

QUESTION ID:416

In a certain code language,

"Attend class daily good" is written as 9$5, 24%9, 3$6, 24*3

"Begin great any matter" is written as 3 & 3, 8$9, 10*15, 14$4

"Less error and fire" is written as 10$7, 23%8, 9%14, 24&3

"Tool better than screw" is written as 16%22, 5$21, 10*4, 14%22

According to the given code what will be the code for the word 'Burst'?

QUESTION ID:417

If the symbol '+' means '−' and '*' means '∕' and vice versa then, what would be the value of the following equation?

4 * 2 / 4 − 2 + 3

QUESTION ID:418

If V plays first, which one of the following must be true?

A. T perform sixth.
B. X perform third.
C. Z perform seventh.
D. T perform immediately after Y.
E. W perform immediately after X.

QUESTION ID:419

After walking for 6 km, Aradhana turns to the right and then walks 2 km. After that she turns to the left and walks 10 km. In the end, Aradhana is moving towards the North. From which direction did Aradhana start her journey?

QUESTION ID:420

In how many ways, a committee of 6 members be selected from 7 men and 5 women, consisting of 4 men and 2 women?

QUESTION ID:421

A cone and a sphere have equal radii and equal volumes. Find the ratio of the diameter of the sphere to the height of the cone?

QUESTION ID:422

A sum of money doubles itself at compound interest in 15 years. In how many years will it become eight times?

QUESTION ID:423

What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice?

QUESTION ID:424

If the equation 2x2 + 3x + p = 0 has equal roots, then the value of p is

QUESTION ID:425

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Somatic hybridization is an excellent method to combine two genomes bypassing sexual reproduction.

Reason R: It can be used to produce symmetrical allotetraploids.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:426

Organ-specific secondary metabolite product is best achieved by:

QUESTION ID:427

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Nitrogenase enzyme is sensitive to oxygen and must be protected from oxygen-mediated inactivation.

Reason R: Anoxygenic condition is maintained by leghemoglobin and facilitates the symbiotic nitrogen fixation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:428

Which of the following statement is NOT true about artificial synthetic seeds?

QUESTION ID:429

Forced auxiliary bud proliferation is induced by the exogenous application of:

QUESTION ID:430

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Organogenic competent cells can be induced to form a specific organ.
Statement II: Once induced towards organogenesis, the cells become irreversibly committed to form specific organ even if the inductive hormone is withdrawn.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:431

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Initiation of embryo development is stimulated by withdrawal of plant growth regulators.
Statement II: Continuation of development and completion of maturation of embryo are induced by the application of abscisic acid and imposition of dehydration period.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:432

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Maintenance of slightly hypertonic osmolarity is significant during protoplast culture procedure.
Reason R: The isolated protoplasts are osmotically fragile because they lack cell-wall.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:433

The population of cells in a developing somatic embryo is:

QUESTION ID:434

Choose the correct statement(s):

A. Kinetin offsets the inhibitory action of auxin-induced shoot bud formation.
B. Auxin inhibits the spontaneous shoot bud formation.
C. Kinetin promotes the inhibitory action of auxin-induced shoot bud formation.
D. Auxin promotes the spontaneous shoot bud formation.
E. Auxin-cytokinin interaction do not have direct role in root-shoot differentiation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:435

Which of the following statement is TRUE regarding the Direct somatic embryogenesis? 

QUESTION ID:436

Match List I with List II

List I List II 
A. CalciumI. Enzyme Cofactor
B. SulphurII. Cell wall synthesis
C. ManganeseIII. Osmotic potential regulation
D. PotassiumIV. Part of amino acid side chain
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:437

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Plant transformation requires the regeneration of whole plant from isolated plant cells or tissues.

Statement II: Such plant regeneration is conducted in-vivo so that the environment and growth conditions can be manipulated for better regeneration frequencies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:438

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Protoplast fusion is induced by furogen and yields cell types: (i) unfused protoplasts, (ii) heterokaryons (iii) homokaryons.

Reason R: Heterokaryons are the small proportion of fused protoplast and are the cells of interest.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:439

Organogenesis is induced in a callus by-

QUESTION ID:440

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: During in-vitro haploid production the anthers (or) the microspores are treated with a higher temperature of 35°C to 40°C for a short period before moving the cultures to generally used temperature of 24°C ± 2°C.

Reason R: Higher temperatures induce a stress, which triggers the microspores, that is destined to form embryos, towards embryogenic pathway.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:441

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A cross between Hordeum vulgare. and H. bulbosum resulted in barley plants with gametic set of H. vulgare chromosomes.

Statement II: By embryo rescue it should be possible to raise haploids from similar type of crosses in plants.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:442

The liquid plant tissue culture media that contain labile organic ingredients, are sterilized by filter sterilization. The most commonly used cellulose acetate membrane filters used for filter sterilization has a pore size of:

QUESTION ID:443

The salts used as macronutrient in MS medium supply:

A. H, O, CI, S, Mg

B. N, H, S, CI, Mg

C. N, P, K Ca, Mg

D. Cl, P, S, Mg, H

E. O, N, Mg, S, Cl

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:444

Somatic cell hybridization helps in overcoming reproductive isolation barrier to enable gene transfer between the crop plant and its wild relative. To facilitate selection of hybrids the crop plant protoplast is stained with Rhodamine Isothyo Cynate (RITC) and the wild relative protoplast is stained with Fluorescine Isothiocyate (FITC). Both RITC and FITC are vital dyes that carter red colour and green colour respectively. What would be the colour of the somatic hybrid which can be selected by a cell sorter.

QUESTION ID:445

The development stage of microspore more suited for microspore embryogenesis is:

QUESTION ID:446

Binding of plant hormones to the membrane receptors of plant tissues cultured in-vitro induces a cascade of events leading to biological response by the cultured tissue. The phenomenon is known as:

QUESTION ID:447

One of the following is the commercially released somaclonal variant of Indian Mustard that was released by Indian Council of Agriculture Research (ICAR), India.

QUESTION ID:448

Match List I with List II 

List I List II 
A. Haberlandt, GI. First time somatic embryogenesis demonstrated
B. Steward FC and Reinert, JII. Protoplast isolation in large scale
C. Edward C. CockingIII. Somatic cell hybridization in plants
D. Carlson, P.S, Smith, H.H and Dearing, R.D.IV. Father of plant tissue culture
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:449

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: For somatic cell hybridization, electro fusion method is recognized as best method as compared to PEG mediated method.

Reason R: Fusion frequency by electrofusion is very high while PEG mediated method of fusion results in heterogeneous mixture of parental type protoplasts and heterokaryons.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:450

The sustainable agriculture could use the properties of legumes to form nodules where the following events take place:

A. Goal of nitrogen fixation is to convert atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia.

B. Nitrification is part of nitrogen fixation

C. Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen

D. Bacteriods are associated with nitrogen fixation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:451

Bacteria associated with phosphate solubilization (PSB) belongs to one or more genera:

QUESTION ID:452

Protoplasts can be isolated from:

QUESTION ID:453

The statements given below are true for nodules.

A. Cynobacteria are gram negative

B. Cynobacteria are gram positive

C. Prokaryotes immobilize the available nutrients

D. Crenacheotes dominates nitrogen fixation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:454

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Nitrogen fixation by rhizobium requires anaerobic environment provided in the living cells of the root cortex. The larger organism is called the host. Mutualism is an ecological interaction between the two species in which both benefit.

Statement II: The commensalism is an ecological interaction where one species is benefitted.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:455

The statements given below are true for nodules.

A. Lignified external layers of nodules limit the gas exchange.

B. Leghaemoglobin binds reversibly to oxygen

C. Leghaemoglobin is a protein associated with transition element.

D. Leghaemoglobin provides aerobic environment for nitrogen fixation

E. Leghaemoglobin is a protein.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:456

The nitrogenase complex associated with nitrogen fixation shows which of the following:

QUESTION ID:457

How is growth promotion in plants achieved?

A. The growth promotion by free bacteria in plants is performed with bacteria carrier mix on the crops.

B. Growth promotion is achieved in pulses by the treatment given to the seeds.

C. Soil treatment with free bacteria before planting wheat and maize give best results.

D. Spraying with free bacteria is beneficial.

Choose the not appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:458

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The ammonia is delivered as a product of nitrogen fixation via a specific transporter to the host cells. here it is subsequently converted mainly into glutamine and asparagines. The glutamine and asparagine are then transported via the xylem vessels to the other parts of the plant.

Reason R: Nodule cells contain high activities of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:459

Match List I with List II 

List IList II
A. Induced fusion-stimuliI. (-10 mV to 30 mV)
B. Protoplast electric potentialII. Polyethylene glycol (PEG)
C. Fusogen-ionicIII. 1 NaNO3, high Ca2+
D. Non ionic fusogenIV. Electric
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:460

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Ideal tissue for the plant tissue culture is apical meristem.

Reason R: The viruses are unable to take over control of the host biosynthetic machinery. Auxins in meristems inhibit viruses.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:461

The nodules of soyabean export the fixed nitrogen compounds that contain high nitrogen to carbon (N/C) ratio:

QUESTION ID:462

Plant protoplasts provide a unique single cell system to underpin several aspects of modern biotechnology.

A. Protoplasts are the cells whose cell walls are removed and cytoplasmic membrane is the outermost layer in such cells.

B. Protoplast fusion is a physical phenomenon, during fusion two or more protoplasts come in contact and adhere with one another.

C. Protoplast fusion may be used to produce interspecific or even intergeneric hybrids.

D. The basic steps involved in production of somatic hybrids by protoplast isolation, fusion and regeneration.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:463

Trichoderma are mycofungicides and are:

QUESTION ID:464

Does meristem tip culture require treatment for eradication of microbes. The performance of various treatments listed. Identify the treatment for getting suitable explant for tissue culture.

QUESTION ID:465

The statements given an insight into the effect of rhizobacteria on nodule formation.

A. Phytostimulatory rhizobacteria promotes growth by providing nutrients and phytoharmones.

B. Symbiosis assist rhizobacteria in performance.

C. Genotype of the host does not have any role in the formation of nodules number, density, number and size.

D. The genotype determines the phytostimulatory responses

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:466

Virus-free plants can be produced through the following tissue culture methods except:

QUESTION ID:467

Which of the following is the best explant for gynogenic haploid production?

QUESTION ID:468

Veena wants to perform androgenic haploid induction. She wants you to assist her in providing with suitable stage she should select for the selection of explant. Your advice to her is that the best results could be achieved by:

QUESTION ID:469

Which of the following is NOT an inherent problem with micropropagation?

QUESTION ID:470

Auxins are associated with the elongation, apical dominance and rooting, some of the experimentally used auxins for callusing includes:

A. IAA

B. IBA

C. NOA

D. 2, 4, 5, T

E. 2, 4, D

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:471

Virus-free plants are produced by:

QUESTION ID:472

Which of the following is NOT the basic component of plant tissue culture media?

QUESTION ID:473

Following points are essential for suitable field testing of the micro propagated material.

A. Supervision and attending to the field should be made at all times.

B. Collaboration with the growers is essential.

C. Uniformity in terms of samples lot plotted in research station is not essential.

D. Survival of plants depends on its adaptation before transplanting to soil.

E. Adequate controls should also be used for comparison purposes.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:474

Chromosome doubling in microspore culture technique is achieved by treating the microspores with:

QUESTION ID:475

The main use of microspore culture is:

QUESTION ID:476

During protoplast fusion one of the parental protoplast is r or X irradiated and the other treated with Iodoacetamide to facilitate only the hybrids to proliferate in the culture medium. The parents alone will fail to proliferate. Such arrangement facilitates:

A. Full Genome Transfer

B. Genome of only one plant remain

C. Partial genome transfer from irradiated protoplast

D. Partial genome transfer from lodoacetamide treated protoplast.

E. No genetransfer between the protoplast.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:477

The factor(s) that induce somaclonal variation in tissue cultures is (are):

A. Age of tissue culture

B. Tissue culture medium

C. Genotype

D. Growth regulators

E. Explant used

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:478

Bt-based bio pesticides depend on the high quality and high efficiency process however, it should have one or all the given features:

QUESTION ID:479

One of the following statements is mistakenly placed here, can you help in identification?

QUESTION ID:480

Trichoderma species have been very successfully used as mycofungicides because:

QUESTION ID:481

The biocontrol mechanism in Trichoderma may be a combination of different mechanisms which may include the following:

QUESTION ID:482

Which among the following are major applications of haploids and double haploids?

A. Detection of Gametoclonal variations

B. Detection of recessive mutation

C. Large scale production of somatic hybrids

D. Fixation of F1 recombinants

E. A system to study embryogenesis process.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:483

TACK super group of plant growth promoting bacteria includes the following members:

A. Aigarchaeeota

B. Creamarchaeota

C. Lokiarchaeotes

D. Taumarchaeota

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:484

Protoplasts are very sensitive to osmolarity of the medium. To keep the protoplast intact and facilitate their growth and cell division, the isolated protoplast is plated in a culture medium that has a higher osmoticum than the protoplast. The most appropriate high osmoticum obtained is by supplementing the liquid culture medium with

QUESTION ID:485

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ammonia nitrogen is fixed into organic compounds relatively easily because it is more reduced than other forms of nitrogen.

Statement II: Many bacteria employ glutamate dehydrogenase for ammonia assimilation at high ammonia concentration.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:486

An alloplasmic CMS line suffers from chlorosis due to incompatibility between chloroplaste or alien species and nuclear genome of cultivated species. A method by which cytoplasmic organelles can be manipulated to overcome the problem is:

QUESTION ID:487

The most commonly used biocontrol agents are:

A. living organisms

B. pathogenic for the pest of interest

C. beneficial to agriculture

D. useful for public health programs

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:488

Tissue culture or protoplasts requires a high skill. Assume you have been given necessary facility for protoplast culture. Arrange the following steps in sequence to achieve the goal of culturing the protoplasts.

A. Count the protoplasts and plate

B. Sterile leaf tissue

C. Isolate and purify protoplasts

D. Chop the tissue into fine pieces in neutral buffer or sterile water

E. Incubate in cellulose and pectinase enzyme mixture for 2-3 h

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:489

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Reduction of molecular nitrogen is highly exergonic reaction. Reason

R: Reaction has high energy of activation due N ≡ N Hence, nitrogen reduction requires large number of ATP molecules.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:490

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Auxin promotes cell division and root differentiation while cytokinins promote growth through regulation of cell division and shoot differentiation.

Statement II: Auxin does not antogonise cytokinin action.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:491

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: 15-45% PEG (1500-6000 MW) is used for achieving protoplast fusion.

Reason R: PEG is insoluble in water and therefore cannot form hydrogen bond to facilitate bringing together of adjacent protoplasts which in turn spontaneously fuse to form the hybrid.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:492

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The zygotic embryos and somatic embryos both, typically pass through globular, scutellar and coleoptilar stages.

Statement II: Somatic embryos show secondary embryogenesis and pluricotyledony, which is absent in zygotic embryos.

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:493

The nitrogen fixation can proceed only at very low oxygen concentrations by action of dinitrogenase because:

QUESTION ID:494

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. Trichoderma harzianumI. Gallex used for crown gall
B. Trichoderma polysorumII. Control wood decay
C. Agrobacterium radiobacterIII. Commercial preparation: F Stop
D. Pseudomonas fluorescensIV. Commercial preparation: Dragger G
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:495

Which of the following is NOT a molecular marker gene for somatic embryogenesis?

QUESTION ID:496

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Gynogenic haploids rather than androgenic haploids are preferred in certain plants for genetic studies and crop improvement.

Statement II: It is certainly preferred in members of Asteraceae, chenopodiaceae and liliaceae which exhibit a poor androgenic response and in cases where androgenesis through albino plants.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:497

Find the statements which are not true for root nodules.

A. Nodule formation is controlled by chemical signals between plants and microbes.

B. Root nodule is a selective parasite between legumes and leguminous bacteria.

C. Leguminous bacteria receive signal molecules like flavonoids and their glycosides from host plant.

D. Legumes also secrete antagonists that promote the flavonoid mediated activation of nodulation genes.

E. nod ABC gene is essential for nodulation and is common to all modulating bacterial species and strains.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:498

Somaclonal variation results from changes in:

A. Chromosome number

B. Chromosome structure

C. DNA methylation

D. Gene mutation

E. Gene amplification

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:499

What influences the development of plant in tissue culture?

QUESTION ID:500

Choose the correctly spelt word.

QUESTION ID:501

Given below are four sentences in jumbled order. Select the option that gives their correct order.

A. Once on their way, the stones did not stop until they reached the bottom of the hill.

B. You had to be very careful not to start a landslide.

C. Loose stones rattled down the cliff.

D. And they took other stones with them, so that there was soon a cascade of stones.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:502

Choose the correct sentence.

QUESTION ID:503

Match List I with List II.

List I (Word)List II (Synonym)
A. pervasiveI. filter
B. sieveII. widespread
C. potentIII. netting
D. meshIV. powerful
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:504

Which two of the following are in correct form?

A. Let's go to the cinema, shall we?

B. Let's go to the cinema, do we?

C. Let's not go to the cinema, shall we?

D. Let's not go to the cinema, shan't we?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:505

Choose the option which is opposite in meaning to the following word: Castigate 

QUESTION ID:506

Identify the correct indirect narration for the following sentence:

"Who now," they had asked, "Will listen to our troubles and protect us from the crocodiles"? 

QUESTION ID:507

Which of the following is a one-word substitute for 'safe to drink'?

QUESTION ID:508

Identify suitable preposition from the options given below to complete the sentence.

Neha would think it ______ her to do such a small work.

QUESTION ID:509

Identify the active voice for the following sentence:

These things have been left here by an unknown person. 

QUESTION ID:510

Amid economy crisis and political turmoil in Sri Lanka who has been appointed as the new PM of Sri Lanka.

QUESTION ID:511

Who has become the First female to took the office of President of Tanzania and the third woman head of the government of country in East African Community? 

QUESTION ID:512

India held the first spot in the International Shooting Sport Federation World Cup 2022 which was being held in:

QUESTION ID:513

Who has won the Men's Single Title at 79th Edition of the Italian Open being held in Rome?

QUESTION ID:514

What is the current year estimation of the GDP growth according to the Nirmala Sitharaman in the Union Budget 2022-23? 

QUESTION ID:515

All the intellectuals are very emotional, because:

A. They are thinking beings

B. They are logical beings

C. They are mathematical beings

D. They are philosophers

E. They are layman

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:516

Choose the best options for football players:

A. Player 'XYZ' shows team spirit

B. Player 'XYZ' have sportsmanship

C. Player 'XYZ' have hatred for other team-mates

D. Player 'XYZ' shows jealousy

E. Player 'XYZ' shows patience

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:517

A person can learn Sanskrit without a teacher:

A. It is not possible learning Sanskrit without a teacher: as it is a technical subject.

B. It is possible to learn Sanskrit as it is non-technical subject.

C. Anyone can learn it; as it is just a language.

D. It can be learned by daily practice under a teacher.

E. It is easy for a person, who know Hindi language.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:518

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Pollution level in Delhi may be reduced by reducing the factories.

Statement II: All factories are creating noise pollution and are dangerous to health.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:519

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Education is important for both male and female.

Statement II: Government must encourage co-education, as it is required for country's development.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:520

if
      x2+1x2=2 then the value of x3+1x3

QUESTION ID:521

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: If the volumes of two cubes are in the ratio of 3:27 then their surface areas are in the ratio of 4:9.

Reason R: If the surface areas of two cubes are in the ratio S1:S2 , then their volumes are in the ratio S12/3 : S22/3

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:522

If the height and base radius of a cone are increased by 50% and 25% respectively then the ratio between the volume of a given cone and the new cone is

QUESTION ID:523

The probability of selecting a vowel from the word TRIANGLE is 

QUESTION ID:524

If one root of quadratic equation 2x2 - 3x + (2k+1) = 0 is five times the other then the value of k is:

QUESTION ID:525

If f(t) = t2, compute f(99) and f(101). Between those times, what is the increase in f divided by the increase in t? 

QUESTION ID:526

When you jump up and fall back your height is y = 2t - t2. Find the time in the air and maximum height.

QUESTION ID:527

What would be the area bounded by the curves 

QUESTION ID:528

If A and B are two sets then  will be equal to

QUESTION ID:529

If A, B, C are subsets of M, then C X(AC U BC)

QUESTION ID:530

The Solution of differential equation xdy - ydx = 0 is 

QUESTION ID:531

The family of curves for the equation y = Bx + B4, where B is a constant; is represented by equation of ______ degree.

QUESTION ID:532

Please find the ratio in which a line 3x+4y=2 divides the line segment joining A(-2,-3) and B(4,6)

QUESTION ID:533

Following instruction:

Consider the lines The unit vector perpendicular to both m and n is

QUESTION ID:534

Following instruction:

Consider the lines  The shortest distance between m and n is

QUESTION ID:535

Following instruction:

Consider the lines 

The distance of the point (1,1,1) from the plane passing through the point (-1,-2,-1) and whose normal is perpendicular to both the lines m and n

QUESTION ID:536

If n(A)=5 and n(B)=7, then the number of relations on A X B is

QUESTION ID:537

Let X and Y be two sets containing 4 and 2 elements respectively. Then the number of subsets of the set Y x X is

QUESTION ID:538

In a school of 300 students, every student reads 5 newspaper and every newspaper is read by 60 students. The total number of newspaper is: 

QUESTION ID:539

Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of set X such that A is not a subset of B, then 

QUESTION ID:540

Area bounded by parabola y2=x and straight line 2y=x is

QUESTION ID:541

Area bounded by curve y2=x and y=|x| in square units is

QUESTION ID:542


QUESTION ID:543


QUESTION ID:544


QUESTION ID:545

Identify the name of the above molecular shape.

QUESTION ID:546

The bond order between oxygen atoms in ozone molecules is 

QUESTION ID:547

Paramagnetism arises from the presence of unpaired electrons, each such electron having a magnetic moment associated with its spin angular momentum and orbital angular momentum.

QUESTION ID:548

Keto–enol isomerism is an example of:

QUESTION ID:549

Which one of the following molecules is not aromatic 

QUESTION ID:550

Which one of the following statements is not false? 

QUESTION ID:551

An example of the activator molecule required for the reaction of primary alcohol to produce halo-alkane is 

QUESTION ID:552

Primary aromatic amines yield diazonium ions in a solution of 

QUESTION ID:553

Molecularity of a bimolecular reaction is 

QUESTION ID:554

To calculate Pauling electronegativity for an element, it is necessary to have data on the ______ energies of at least two types of covalent bonds formed by that element. 

QUESTION ID:555

______ law governs colligative properties 

QUESTION ID:556

O–H bond distance is:

QUESTION ID:557

The formulae belongs to:

QUESTION ID:558

The hybridization state of boron in diborane is:

QUESTION ID:559

Amongst the following, the most reactive carbonium ion is: 

QUESTION ID:560

As a consequence of its open structure, water is one of the very few substances that expands on freezing (at 0°C, liquid water has a density of 1.00 g/mL), whereas ice has a density of:

QUESTION ID:561

The dielectric constant of a solvent is a measure of its ability to keep opposite charges apart. The dielectric constant of water is among highest. The value of dielectric constant for water is: 

QUESTION ID:562

Most of the biological molecules have both polar (or ionically charged) and nonpolar segments and are therefore simultaneously hydrophilic and hydrophobic. Such molecules (for example fatty acids) are called as: 

QUESTION ID:563

If 5 gram of pure water is added to 1000 mL of pure water, what would be the molarity of the solution? 

QUESTION ID:564

If at constant temperature, for a reaction the change in enthalpy is negative and the change in entropy is positive, which one of the following statements is not wrong: 

QUESTION ID:565

If at constant temperature, for a reaction the change in enthalpy is positive and the change in entropy is negative, which one of the following statements is true: 

QUESTION ID:566

At constant pressure and temperature, Delta G for a biological process represents its 

QUESTION ID:567

Most of the biological molecules, are thermodynamically unstable to hydrolysis but, nevertheless, spontaneously hydrolyze at biologically insignificant rates because:

QUESTION ID:568

The equilibrium constant of a reaction may be calculated from 

QUESTION ID:569

Any deviation from equilibrium stimulates a process that tends to restore the system to equilibrium. This principle was given by: 

QUESTION ID:570

The standard state convention commonly used in physical chemistry defines the standard state of a solute as that with ______

QUESTION ID:571

The hydrogen ion activity is defined as ______ at the physiologically relevant PH of 7.

QUESTION ID:572

An amino acid can therefore act as either an acid or a base. Substances with this property are said to be 

QUESTION ID:573

The largest, standard, naturally occurring alpha amino acid in biological systems is: 

QUESTION ID:574

The smallest, standard, naturally occurring alpha amino acid in biological systems is: 

QUESTION ID:575

Which one of the following is an amino acid with a thiol group? 

QUESTION ID:576

Which one of the following is acidic amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:577

The pH at which a molecule carries no net electric charge is known as its 

QUESTION ID:578

Which one of the following does represent Glx?

QUESTION ID:579

Which one of the following amino acid is not optically active?

QUESTION ID:580

Molecules that are nonsuperimposable mirror images are known as

QUESTION ID:581

All α-amino acids derived from proteins have the ______ stereochemical configuration.

QUESTION ID:582

The absolute configuration of L-amino acid residues may be represented by ______ acronym.

QUESTION ID:583

DNA has equal numbers of adenine and thymine residues (A = T) and equal numbers of guanine and cytosine residues (G = C). These relationships, known as 

QUESTION ID:584

Which non-metal is in liquid state at room temperature? 

QUESTION ID:585

Which element has smallest atomic radius? 

QUESTION ID:586

Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl, which is a solid with a high melting point. X would most likely be in the same group of the Periodic Table as 

QUESTION ID:587

An atom has electronic configuration 2, 8, 7. What is the atomic number of this element?

QUESTION ID:588

Litmus solution is a purple dye, which is extracted from lichen, a plant belonging to the ______ division.

QUESTION ID:589

When pH of rain water is less than ______ it is called acid rain.

QUESTION ID:590

The atmosphere of planet Venus is made up of thick white and yellowish clouds of

QUESTION ID:591

Tooth enamel, made up of ______ which is the hardest substance in the body 

QUESTION ID:592

Bleaching powder is produced by the action of chlorine on

QUESTION ID:593

The chemical composition of Plaster of Paris is

QUESTION ID:594

A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is most probably is 

QUESTION ID:595

The movement of electrically charged particles in a fluid under the influence of an external electrical field is called electrophoresis. It is used to separate

QUESTION ID:596

According to Bouguer's (or Lambert's) law, each layer of equal thickness of the medium absorbs 

QUESTION ID:597

If ∫ sec2(7 − 4x) dx = a tan(7 − 4x) + C, find the value of a.

QUESTION ID:598

If the reaction temperature is increased by 10 degrees centigrade, the reaction rate gets increased by: 

QUESTION ID:599

UV-Vis spectroscopy is often used in bacterial culturing. OD measurements are routinely and quickly taken using a wavelength of ______ nm to estimate the cell concentration and to track growth. 

QUESTION ID:600

Identify the correct preposition to make a meaningful sentence.

The scheme of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojna was originated ______ the Prime Minister.

QUESTION ID:601

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given.

Rajesh's brother gave him a bird's eye view of the courses offered in the Hansraj College.

QUESTION ID:602

Choose the correct option to make a meaningful sentence.

For the last seven months I _________ in this company.

QUESTION ID:603

Identify synonym for the underlined word in the sentence.

Rabindranath Tagore had penchant for reading books.

QUESTION ID:604

Find correctly spelt word from the options given below (only one word is spelt correctly):

QUESTION ID:605

Identify the correct active voice for the sentence given below:

When were my shirts returned by Ajay?

QUESTION ID:606

Identify the correct direct speech for the sentence given below:

Farhaan told Ashok that Taj Mahal is the Seventh Wonder of the World.

QUESTION ID:607

Choose the correct order of the paragraph to create a meaning out of PQRS set:

To explain

P : that there are no opposites.
Q : forms required looking at the second
R : approach to opposites in the theory of forms
S : how Plato can deny the existence of some

QUESTION ID:608

Choose the correct sentence.

QUESTION ID:609

Find out which part of the following sentence has an error.

QUESTION ID:610

Who built the famous Shiva Temple at Ellora?

QUESTION ID:611

The origin of Indian music can be traced to which of the following Vedic Samhitas?

QUESTION ID:612

Buddhism made an important impact by allowing which of the following hitherto marginalized sections of society into its fold?

A. Women
B. Warriors
C. Merchants
D. Shudras

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:613

President of India is empowered to make which of the following appointments?

A. Chief of the Army
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Chief of the Air Force

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:614

Which of the following statements are correct about Swachh Bharat Mission – Urban?

A. It has an outlay of 1.41 lakh crore and will be implemented over 5 years.
B. The nodal Ministry is Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
C. SBM-U Phase 2 was launched by Hardeep Singh Puri.
D. SBM was launched on 2nd October 2014.

Choose the correct answer:

QUESTION ID:615

In a certain code language,

"book pen mouse computer" is coded as "er gh iu cv"

"keypad pen book bottle" is coded as "gn ty iu kl"

"computer pen bottle paper" is coded as "cv kl io gh"

Which of the following code is used for "pen"

QUESTION ID:616

In a certain code language,

"Attend class daily good" is written as 9$5, 24%9, 3$6, 24*3

"Begin great any matter" is written as 3 & 3, 8$9, 10*15, 14$4

"Less error and fire" is written as 10$7, 23%8, 9%14, 24&3

"Tool better than screw" is written as 16%22, 5$21, 10*4, 14%22

According to the given code what will be the code for the word 'Burst'?

QUESTION ID:617

If the symbol '+' means '−' and '*' means '∕' and vice versa then, what would be the value of the following equation?

4 * 2 / 4 − 2 + 3

QUESTION ID:618

If V plays first, which one of the following must be true?

A. T perform sixth.
B. X perform third.
C. Z perform seventh.
D. T perform immediately after Y.
E. W perform immediately after X.

QUESTION ID:619

After walking for 6 km, Aradhana turns to the right and then walks 2 km. After that she turns to the left and walks 10 km. In the end, Aradhana is moving towards the North. From which direction did Aradhana start her journey?

QUESTION ID:620

In how many ways, a committee of 6 members be selected from 7 men and 5 women, consisting of 4 men and 2 women?

QUESTION ID:621

A cone and a sphere have equal radii and equal volumes. Find the ratio of the diameter of the sphere to the height of the cone?

QUESTION ID:622

A sum of money doubles itself at compound interest in 15 years. In how many years will it become eight times?

QUESTION ID:623

What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice?

QUESTION ID:624

If the equation 2x2 + 3x + p = 0 has equal roots, then the value of p is

QUESTION ID:625

How many biodiversity hotspots are there in India? (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

QUESTION ID:626

The range of environmental conditions and tolerance of a species in which they show its potential growth is called its: 

QUESTION ID:627

Where and when was the joint forest management originated?

QUESTION ID:628

The dominant anion present in the river water is:

QUESTION ID:629

The sky looks blue because of: 

QUESTION ID:630

The largest reservoir of freshwater on the earth is/are in the- 

QUESTION ID:631

The doubling time of a bacterial cell is 90 minutes. If the division starts with two cells, how many bacterial cells will be present after one day (consider no cell death)?

QUESTION ID:632

The division of a chromatid into two daughter chromosomes is observed during which stage of mitosis? 

QUESTION ID:633

'The random variation in allele frequency from generation to generation, often observed in small population' is called- 

QUESTION ID:634

All the weather/meteorological processes take place in- 

QUESTION ID:635

In the troposphere, temperature................. with altitude while in stratosphere, temperature.......... with altitude. 

QUESTION ID:636

Richter scale is a/an ________ scale to measure Earth Tremors. 

QUESTION ID:637

More than 90% of the rock forming minerals in the Earth's crust consist of: 

QUESTION ID:638

Which form of soil water is most available to the plants? 

QUESTION ID:639

In India, the temperate forest are most commonly found in 

QUESTION ID:640

Who coined the term 'Ecosystem', and In which year?

QUESTION ID:641

Which disease is caused by a nematode? 

QUESTION ID:642

The most commonly used bacteria for gene cloning is 

QUESTION ID:643

The increase in concentration of toxic chemical substances in the tissue of organisms at successively higher trophic levels in a food chain is referred as-

QUESTION ID:644

Which of the potential area is included in the UNESCO world heritage site? 

QUESTION ID:645

"Human influence has warmed the climate at a rate that is unprecedented in at least the last 2000 years." This inference/statement is from- 

QUESTION ID:646

Which source has the highest installed power generation capacity (MW) in India. 

QUESTION ID:647

BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) is used for the measurement of: 

QUESTION ID:648

Which of the following instrumental technique can be used for the analysis of CO (Carbon Monoxide). 

QUESTION ID:649

________ is a technique that separates a mixture of molecules by their differential migration through a stationary medium under the influence of an electrical field. 

QUESTION ID:650

'The decrease in intensity of light passing through a solution is directly proportional to the path length'- the statement is given by- 

QUESTION ID:651

The 'Central dogma' of molecular biology is referred to as-

QUESTION ID:652

Thunderstorms are typically formed in the following type of cloud.

QUESTION ID:653

What is tropopause height in the equatorial regions and in the high latitude regions:

QUESTION ID:654

The thickness of Ozone layer is measured in which of the following units?

QUESTION ID:655

Suppose global fossil fuel combustion emits 7.4 Gt C/yr and cement production adds another 0.5 Gt C/yr while land-use emissions add 2.2 Gt C/yr. Assume an airborne fraction of 0.38 (i.e., 0.38 Gt C out of 1 Gt C gets converted into CO2). What is the rate of change in CO2 concentration in ppm/yr?      (1 ppm CO2 = 2.12 Gt C)

QUESTION ID:656

Which element controls the heartbeat in humans? 

QUESTION ID:657

The introduction of phage hybrid DNA into the host cell is called- 

QUESTION ID:658

The extracellular protein produced by mycorrhizal fungi that helps in stabilizing soil aggregate structure and decrease soil erosion is called- 

QUESTION ID:659

The ability of a single genotype to generate more then one phenotype, depending on environmental conditions is called- 

QUESTION ID:660

Which of the following is an invasive species in India? 

QUESTION ID:661

Shola grasslands are commonly found in- 

QUESTION ID:662

In a forest extinction of tiger, results in increased population of deer. Overgrazing by deer decreases the density and diversity of plant species. A number of native birds and insects also get extinct due to extinction of their food source. In this forest tiger in an example of- 

QUESTION ID:663

Which of the following pollution cause largest number of deaths worldwide? 

QUESTION ID:664

You visit a garden and see a number of flowering plants, grasses, trees etc. You also see many birds, insects, reptiles etc. This whole system is an example of: 

QUESTION ID:665

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: We, as global citizen, need to protect Antarctic glaciers and ice-caps.

Reason R: If Antarctic glaciers/ ice-caps melt completely, the sea-level rise would be so high that most of the continents would be submerged.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:666

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Photochemical smog is a primary Air Pollutant.

Reason R: It is formed in Traffic congested cities where the conditions are warm and intensity of solar radiation is more.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:667

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: OH radical plays a critical role in tropospheric chemistry of formation and destruction of O3.

Reason R: Because OH is rapidly transformed to HO2 by reacting with CO or VOCs. HO2, in turn, reacts with NO and provides NO2. NO2 photolyses into O3 in the presence of sunlight.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:668

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In a river stream, there is continuous discharge of sewage at a particular point/location only. As a result of sewage mixing with stream the dissolved oxygen in stream decreases.

Statement II: The maximum deficit of dissolved oxygen does not occur at the mixing point of stream and sewage but at a certain distance from the mixing point in the down stream direction.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:669

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Denitrification is an undesirable process from agricultural point of view.

Reason R: Here the nitrate present in soil is converted to nitrogen gas and it is lost to the atmosphere.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:670

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Polar jet stream flows from west to east.

Reason R: Polar jet stream is a geostrophic wind which flows due to the balance between coriolis force & pressure gradient force.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:671

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Air pollution and climate change are not related.

Reason R: Climate change such as global warming is mainly caused by increasing concentration of green house gases such as CO2. CO2 gas is not considered as air pollutant.  

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:672

Arrange the phases of microbial growth curve from initiation to termination.

A. Stationary phase

B. Exponential phase

C. Death phase

D. Lag phase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:673

Write a waste management hierarchy from source to disposal from the given solid waste management practices.

A. Recycle

B. Treat

C. Avoid

D. Dispose

E. Minimize

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:674

Arrange the following soil horizons from top layer of soil to the increasing depth below.

A. 'O' horizons

B. 'B' horizons

C. 'C' horizons

D. 'A' horizons

E. 'R' horizons

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:675

Arrange the following layers of atmosphere in the sequence of increasing altitude from the earth’s surface.

A. Planetary Boundary Layer
B. Free troposphere
C. Tropopause
D. Mesosphere
E. Stratosphere

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:676

Arrange the following layers of the earth starting from the centre of the earth till surface of the earth.

A. Lithosphere
B. Inner Core
C. Mantle
D. Outer Core
E. Asthenosphere

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:677

Arrange the following in progressing order of carcinogenesis.

A. Promotion
B. Metastasis
C. Progression
D. Initiation
E. Transformation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:678

Arrange the steps of scientific method in the correct sequence.

A. Develop a hypothesis
B. Share new knowledge
C. Analyse and interpret data
D. Recognition of an unexplained problem
E. Design and perform experiments

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:679

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ocean is not considered to be an important carbon reservoir in the Earth system.
Statement II: CO2 residence time in ocean is higher than atmosphere.

QUESTION ID:680

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In the process of respiration, organic compounds undergo degradation (catabolism) in the presence of molecular oxygen or in absence of oxygen. The process releases energy.

Statement II: Similar amount of energy is produced in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.

QUESTION ID:681

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ecological natality (fertility rate) refers to the number of offsprings produced under prevailing set of environmental conditions.

Statement II: Absolute natality (fecundity rate) is the number of offsprings produced under ideal environmental conditions.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:682

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In a sewage treatment plant, secondary treatment primarily aims at removing phosphates and nitrates from the sewage water.

Statement II: The number and diversity of microorganisms in sewage help in easy removal of phosphate and nitrate during secondary treatment.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:683

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In terrestrial ecosystem (grasslands, croplands, forests) the pyramid of biomass is inverted.

Statement II: In aquatic ecosystem (ponds, lakes, rivers etc.) the pyramid of biomass is upright.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:684

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The phenomenon of having increased species diversity and densities in ecotonal region is called the edge effect.

Statement II: The transition zone between two different ecosystem is called ecotone.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:685

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Net primary production (NPP) is the remaining chemical energy available after respiration and other metabolic activities and used in body building of heterotrophic organisms.

Statement II: The chemical energy from NPP is used in the body building of autotrophic organisms.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:686

Herbivores occupy the:

A. First trophic level (T1)
B. Second trophic level (T2)
C. Consumer of first order (C1)
D. Consumer of second order (C2)
E. Third trophic level (T3)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:687

The structural component of ecosystem consist of ________.

A. Biological community
B. Flow of energy
C. Nutrient cycling
D. Range of climatic factor
E. Biological regulation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:688

Which of the following are products of complete mineralisation of organic compounds?

A. H2S
B. CO2
C. CH4
D. H2O
E. NH3

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:689

Choose the correct statement:

A. IUCN is now known as WWF
B. Chilka lake was recognised as Ramsar site in India in the year 1981
C. Corbett National Park is located at Uttar Pradesh
D. Gorilla is the only ape found in India
E. Asian Elephant is an endangered species

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:690

Choose the correct statement:

A. Lake is an example of lotic water body
B. 2.1% of the volume of fresh water is available for human use in the hydrosphere
C. Indus water treaty lies between India & Pakistan
D. Dams are responsible for world water crisis
E. The dispute of sharing the Ravi–Beas water and Sutluj–Yamuna link issue lies between Punjab & Haryana

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:691

What are pneumatophores?

A. Respiratory roots of plants growing in marshy places and salt lakes
B. Hanging roots surrounded by spongy tissue
C. Roots that grow vertically upward like conical spikes with numerous pores
D. Cluster of roots arising at the base of the stem
E. Roots produced from the main stem and often from the branches

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:692

Consider the following statements about the hydrothermal vents.

A. The sea water has been heated by the radioactive rocks below.
B. Ample light is available for photosynthesis.
C. Support rich ecosystem in contrast to the surrounding desert at the deep ocean floor.
D. Bacteria function as producers in these ecosystems.
E. Tube worms, shrimp, crabs, clams etc. are found in hydrothermal vents.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:693

Match List I with List II

LIST I (Stage of Sewage treatment process)LIST II (Targeted Pollutant)
A. Primary treatmentI. Suspended and floating particles
B. Secondary treatmentII. Phosphorus and Nitrogen
C. Tertiary treatmentIII. Pathogenic bacteria
D. Chlorination treatmentIV. Suspended organic matter
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

QUESTION ID:694

Match List I with List II 

LIST I (Conference)LIST II (Year)
A. Stockholm conferenceI. 1992
B. Earth summitII. 1997
C. Convention on Biological DiversityIII. 1972
D. Kyoto ProtocolIV. 1993
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

QUESTION ID:695

Match List I with List II  

LIST I (Phenomenon)LIST II (Associated factor)
A. Global WarmingI. CO
B. Air PollutionII. Green House Gases
C. Water QualityIII. Humus
D. SoilIV. BOD
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

QUESTION ID:696

Match List I with List II  

LIST I (Phenomenon)LIST II (Associated factors)
A. Fossil fuel burningI. Radioactive waste
B. Nuclear PowerII. Release of CO2
C. Western GhatsIII. Aquatic Adaptation
D. Stream lined bodyIV. Biodiversity hot spot of India
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

QUESTION ID:697

Match List I with List II   

LIST I (Activities/Factors)LIST II (Associated Pollutants)
A. ConstructionI. CO & NO2
B. VehiclesII. SO2
C. IndustryIII. Al & Zn
D. Paddy mudlandIV. CH4
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

QUESTION ID:698

Match List I with List II   

LIST I (Concepts)LIST II (Definitions)
A. Common pool resourcesI. Shared responsibility for the sustainable care of our planet
B. SustainabilityII. Economic development that meets the needs of present generation without compromising the needs of future generation
C. StewardshipIII. Those parts of environment available to everyone but for which no single individual has responsibility
D. Sustainable developmentIV. The ability to meet current human economic and social needs without compromising the ability of the environment to support future generations.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

QUESTION ID:699

Match List I with List II   

LIST ILIST II
A. AtmosphereI. Outer crust of the Earth
B. HydrosphereII. Comprises of both biotic & abiotic component
C. BiosphereIII. Sheet of gases that surround the planet
D. LithosphereIV. Comprises of water
Choose the correct answer from the option given below: