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Previous Year Questions

TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

Which one of the following molecules causes catabolite repression of lac operon?

QUESTION ID:2

Which nuclease of bacteria is responsible for degrading the genome of the invading lambda phage?

QUESTION ID:3

DNA fingerprinting for forensic investigation is based on:

QUESTION ID:4

At which phase of the growth curve are bacteria more sensitive to ampicillin?

QUESTION ID:5

You are performing a PCR reaction in which you need to use 20 pmoles of each primer. If both the primers are 20 nucleotides long and the average molecular weight of each nucleotide is 300 Da, the amount of each primer required for 100 μl reaction is:

QUESTION ID:6

The blood volume of an individual is 5 litres. The person was injected with 500 mg of a drug that has molecular weight of 100 Da. If the drug is metabolized so that half of the drug remains in the bloodstream after every passing hour, the concentration of the drug four hours after injection is:

QUESTION ID:7

In the electron transport chain, which one of the following can be a two electron carrier?

QUESTION ID:8

The E. coli cell has a volume of 1 μm3 and the volume of a single base pair is 1 nm3. If the E. coli DNA has 5 × 106 base pairs then the volume occupied by the genome in the cell is:

QUESTION ID:9

If a random year is selected, the probability that it will have both 53 Mondays and 53 Tuesdays is:

QUESTION ID:10

In an equilateral triangle the mid points of each side is joined to form a smaller equilateral triangle inside the larger triangle. The ratio of their perimeters is:

QUESTION ID:11

Which one among the following can be effectively transmitted from person to person due to coughing? 

QUESTION ID:12

A highly sensitive instrument with large fluctuations measures the trace amount of impurity in a sample and the two readings are 10-7 mg and 10-9 mg, respectively. The
best estimate of the impurity level which can be found by taking the arithmetic mean of these two data points is approximately

QUESTION ID:13

During replication, DNA polymerase

QUESTION ID:14

Conversion of L-pyruvate to L-lactate is an example of:

QUESTION ID:15

Conversion of UDP-Galactose to UDP-Glucose occurs by:

QUESTION ID:16

A 2 Kb insert has to be ligated to a 8 Kb plasmid in a ligation mix where we want to keep the vector insert molar ratio as 1: 2. If 1 μg of vector is used, the amount of insert to be used is:

QUESTION ID:17

The shortest land route has to be determined from Mumbai to a city X in Mexico at the same latitude. The route will be:

QUESTION ID:18

During translation, which one of the following aminoacyl-tRNA binds first to the P site of bacterial ribosomes? 

QUESTION ID:19

DNA replication requires DNA-Topoisomerase to remove the supercoiling of DNA that accumulates at the end of a growing replication fork. You wish to perform a PCR amplification of a gene that has been provided to you in a 6 kb plasmid vector. Why will you NOT use topoisomerase in your PCR reaction mix?

QUESTION ID:20

Enzyme-linked immunospot (ELISPOT) assay measures:

QUESTION ID:21

Which one of the Immunoglobulins (Ig) cause type hypersensitive immune reaction?

QUESTION ID:22

You have recently observed a mutation in gene X in patients with lung cancer. You have sequenced the gene X in these patients and have observed that (i) both the copies of gene X are mutated, and (ii) the mutation leads to absence of the protein X in the patients. The gene is most likely:

QUESTION ID:23

Which one of the following strategies do viruses employ to evade the human immune system?

QUESTION ID:24

A protein cargo X is destined for lysosomal degradation in cells under specific conditions. This can be tracked by red fluorescence emitted by the tag when it reaches lysosomes. What will happen when you treat the cells with NH4Cl:

QUESTION ID:25

In induced pluripotent stem cells:

QUESTION ID:26

A protein X is active when phosphorylated on Thr residue. You wish to mimic this phosphorylation by mutating Thr to another residue. Which one of these residues will
you mutate Thr into?

QUESTION ID:27

You have isolated a hypothetical protein X. When X is run on a gel filtration column, the apparent size of the protein is 80 kDa. When X is run on an SDSPAGE
with 2mercaptoethanol present in the loading buffer, the size is around 40 kDa.

QUESTION ID:28

In the following table, List I has different nucleic acids and List II has certain base modifications. Match the components from the List I with those in the List II. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:29

If a singlestranded DNA sequence of 250 nucleotides consists of 30% thymine, the number of Adenine, Guanine, Thymine and Cytosine nucleotides present in it are:

QUESTION ID:30

Pyruvate decarboxylase catalyses the decarboxylation of pyruvic acid to acetaldehyde and carbon dioxide. Its action depends on cofactors thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) and magnesium. In this process, the role of TPP in the initial step is to act as a:

QUESTION ID:31

Baeyer Villiger monooxygenases (BVMOs) are flavindependent enzymes that catalyse oxidations. Which one of the following oxidation is NOT carried out by BVMOs?

QUESTION ID:32

Which one of the following is a malnutrition disease?

QUESTION ID:33

The fragments obtained from a Sanger sequencing experiment are as follows:
5´ – GAATTA – 3´
5´ – GAATTAT – 3´
5´ – GAATTATC – 3´
5´ – GAATTATCA – 3´
5´ – GAATTATCAC – 3´
Please identify the template sequence from the above given data:

QUESTION ID:34

Which one of the following is NOT true for local alignment of protein sequences?

QUESTION ID:35

Following is a table in which the List I contains names of various steps of gene expression and in List II are the enzymes associated with those. Match the components of List I with those in List II. 

          List I

          List II

    A. Epigenetic regulation

  I. Endonuclease

    B. DNA repair

  II. Histone methyltransferase

    C. Transcription

  III. eIF2 Kinase

    D. Translation

  IV RNA nohmarsca
     Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:36

What is the pH of a mixture of 0.042 M NaH2PO4 and 0.42 M Na2HPO4 (pKa = 6.86)?

QUESTION ID:37

Cellulose is a polymer of glucose which is made by ________ glycosidic bond.

QUESTION ID:38

Which one of the following defines the angle in the  protein backbone?

QUESTION ID:39

Which one of the following is used to validate the secondary structure of proteins?

QUESTION ID:40

Genes that are related through gene duplication events are:

QUESTION ID:41

A geneticist interested in immune function induces random mutations in a number of specific genes in mice and then determines which of the resulting mutant mice have impaired immune function. This approach is an example of:

QUESTION ID:42

A scientist chose Nickel – NTA affinity chromatography to purify a recombinant protein. Which one of the following tag was present in his recombinant protein?

QUESTION ID:43

During eukaryotic replication, ________ degrades the RNA primer by 5’ – 3’ exonuclease activity.

QUESTION ID:44

The presence of Cardiolipin is a characteristic of the membrane of:

QUESTION ID:45

The enzyme used to prevent unwanted selfligation of DNA molecules during cloning experiments is:

QUESTION ID:46

In genomics, a contig means:

QUESTION ID:47

The hypochromic effect is used to estimate the melting temperature for double. stranded DNA. It arises because

QUESTION ID:48

Gel filtration chromatography separates proteins on the basis of:

QUESTION ID:49

Fake medicines are a nuisance that shatter the faith of patients in medicine and enhance the emergence of drug resistance. A medicine is likely to be fake if:

QUESTION ID:50

Chip- on- chip, a technique that combines chromatin immune precipitation with microarrays, is used to identify

QUESTION ID:51

You have an assay method that can estimate compound A upto level 10 mg/ml. If you need to modify it so that you can estimate 0.1 mg/ml, you need to improve upon the:

QUESTION ID:52

A 20mer peptide composed of all 20 coded standard amino acids was hydrolyzed with 6N HCl. However, only 17 amino acids were detected when the hydrolysate was analyzed by chromatography. The three missing amino acids will be:

QUESTION ID:53

Which one of the following is the most effective reducing agent of disulfide bonds in proteins?

QUESTION ID:54

Digitalis is used for the treatment of congestive heart failure because:

QUESTION ID:55

Peroxisomes are different from mitochondria and chloroplast mainly because they are:

QUESTION ID:56

Copy number variation (CNV) signifies:

QUESTION ID:57

Which one among the following is NOT a characteristic of an “Enhancer”?

QUESTION ID:58

The enzyme that plays a key role in glucose homeostasis is:

QUESTION ID:59

Prokaryotic ribosomes bind to which one of the following:

QUESTION ID:60

Which one of the following components of an enveloped virus particle is NOT encoded by the viral genome?

QUESTION ID:61

A student clones a gene of interest within the ampicillin resistance gene of pBR322 vector for transformant selection, the student will use:

QUESTION ID:62

The consequences of a DNA base change in a mutation are maximum, if the base change is located in the:

QUESTION ID:63

The Telomerase enzyme is a:

QUESTION ID:64

Though DNA and RNA are nucleic acids, isolating RNA in the laboratory requires extreme precautions and prepreparations than isolating DNA. This could be because:

QUESTION ID:65

Type IIP restriction endonucleases will always:

QUESTION ID:66

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Ionizing radiation can cause damage to the DNA
Reason R: Ionizing radiation generates free radicals
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:67

Lysosomal lumen is maintained at an acidic pH by:

QUESTION ID:68

Which one among the following is a nuclease?

QUESTION ID:69

Which one of the following statements is NOT common between oxidative phosphorylation and photophosphorylation?

QUESTION ID:70

Which one of the following combinations signify similar function?

QUESTION ID:71

E class homeotic genes in Arabidopsis thaliana are involved in the formation of:

QUESTION ID:72

When the critical night length in winters is disrupted by a pulse of red light followed by a pulse of far red light:

QUESTION ID:73

A plant species nearing its extinction due to viral infection has been chosen for micropropagation by tissue culture. Which explants will be the most appropriate to
produce virus free plants?
A. Shoot apical meristem
B. Stem
C. Leaf disc
D. Root tip.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:74

The rice blast fungus Magnaporthe grisea, invades rice plants in a manner typical of many foliar pathogens by producing specialized infection structures called:

QUESTION ID:75

The first alkaloid to be isolated and characterized from plants is:

QUESTION ID:76

Seeds of Arabidopsis thaliana placed on Murashige and Skoog (MS) media without any hormones germinates faster than in the medium that contains:

QUESTION ID:77

Which one of the following is a nonclimacteric fruit?

QUESTION ID:78

Which one of the following statements are TRUE for gibberellins?
A. Gibberellins promote seed germination
B. Gibberellins cannot stimulate leaf growth
C. Gibberellins cannot stimulate stem growth
D. Gibberellins can be exogenously used to increase plant growth
E. GA3 is predominantly used in agronomic and horticultural practices Choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:79

Which one of the following is not a secondary metabolite?

QUESTION ID:80

Which one of the following classes of compounds is generally accumulated as an antiherbivore response in plants?

QUESTION ID:81

Which one of these polysaccharides is induced after a pathogen or microbial attack?

QUESTION ID:82

The GA2oxidase gene from bean is overexpressed in a wheat plant by genetic engineering. Which one of the following phenotypes correctly describes the resultant
transgenic plant?

QUESTION ID:83

The TDNA of Agrobacterium must be cut out from its circular plasmid for its transfer into plant cells. Which one of the following Vir proteins are involved in this process?

QUESTION ID:84

Lateral roots initiate from:

QUESTION ID:85

Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of skotomorphogenic development?

QUESTION ID:86

Which one of the following can be used as a selection marker for developing transgenic plants?

QUESTION ID:87

Which one of the following treatments is required for flowering in a winter annual type of Arabidopsis plants?

QUESTION ID:88

Which one of the following statements are TRUE regarding specialized embryonic structures peculiar to the grass family? A. The cotyledon has been modified by evolution to form an absorptive organ called coleoptile
B. Scutellum forms the interphase between the embryo and the starchy endosperm tissue
C. Coleoptile covers and protect the first leaves while buried beneath the soil
D. The base of the hypocotyl has elongated to form a protective sheath around the radicle called the scutellum
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:89

Two immobilized enzyme columns with equal enzyme loading and same column volume are run at the same feed rate and same inlet substrate concentration. It is observed that the taller and thinner column gives better conversion. This demonstrates that

QUESTION ID:90

In a two stage CSTR in series, the first reactor runs at a dilution rate D1 <μmax and the inlet substrate concentration (S0) is twotimes greater than Ks , then:

QUESTION ID:91

To have an extended late log/ stationary phase so that secondary metabolites may be produced, you will prefer to use:

QUESTION ID:92

Given the pseudoplastic rheology of fungal fermentation broth, we can expect that:

QUESTION ID:93

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: In a plate & frame filter operated under constant pressure, the filtrate flow rate declines with time
Reason R: In a plate & frame filter operated under constant pressure, the filtrate cake builds up on the filter membrane
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:94

Scaling up a reactor while keeping the power consumption per unit volume constant will lead to:

QUESTION ID:95

In a fed batch culture the feed rate of concentrated substrate is increased with time while the RPM of the impeller is kept constant. You will most likely observe one of the following

QUESTION ID:96

In an anaerobic fermentation producing ethanol, the ethanol yield (Yp/s)

QUESTION ID:97

Doubling the substrate concentration in the inlet of a CSTR (with cells following Monod growth kinetics) will, after reaching the new steady state, lead to:

QUESTION ID:98

If 180 gm of glucose is consumed during cell growth and 132 gm of carbon dioxide is produced, then the fractional carbon flux towards biomass (assuming no product is formed and glucose is the sole carbon source) is:

QUESTION ID:99

S. cerevisiae produces ethanol at a yield of 0.5 g/g glucose. The strain ferments 20g/l glucose in 24 hours. Calculate productivity of ethanol in this fermentation.

QUESTION ID:100

E. coli was grown aerobically in batch fermentation. The initial concentration of cells was 1x 103/ml and it reached 1x106/ml in 10 hours. Calculate specific growth rate.

QUESTION ID:101

In a fed batch process with a nongrowth product formation kinetics given by qp = β (a constant), in order to maximize product concentration and enhance metabolic flux towards product formation,

QUESTION ID:102

Given that Power number is constant; then increasing the RPM of the impeller 3fold will increase the power consumption due to agitation by:

QUESTION ID:103

If the maintenance coefficient (m) is significantly high, then with reduction in specific growth rate

QUESTION ID:104

Increasing the agitation in a reactor increases oxygen transfer primarily because

QUESTION ID:105

In a continuous culture of Saccharomyces cerevisiae, the cell density is 30 gL1 (DCW), the dilution rate (D) is 0.4 h-1 and substrate uptake rate (q) is 18 gL-1 h-1. The cell yield coefficient Yx/s will be:

QUESTION ID:106

Aqueous two phase partitioning (ATPS) is used for the recovery of an enzyme from the cell free culture filtrate on addition of PEG2000 and dextran. The mixture separates into two phases with a partition coefficient for the enzyme = 4.2. The maximum possible enzyme recovery, when the volume ratio of the upper to lower phases is 5.0 will be:

QUESTION ID:107

A fermentation medium is being cooled from 700 to 320 in a double pipe heat exchanger. Cooling fluid flowing counter currently with this stream is heated from 200 to 460 . The log mean temperature difference (in0 ) for the two streams is:

QUESTION ID:108

For reactions catalysed by an enzyme following Michaelis Menten Kinetics, the elasticity of the reaction velocity with respect to substrate:

QUESTION ID:109

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Gene Sequences are aligned using identity matrices instead of substitution matrices
Reason R: The four bases in DNA cannot be replaced with each other
In light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:110

Match the components of List I with List II 

           List I

          List II

      A. Sequence alignment

       I.PUBMED

      B. Structural alignment

       II.BLAST

      C. Fold prediction

       III. ROSETTA

      D. Review of literature

       IV. DALI







  Choose the correct answer from the ontions given below: 

QUESTION ID:111

Which one of the statements relating to properties and structures of two proteins is most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:112

Trp florescence can be used to study protein folding and unfolding. Which properties of Trp are critical in ensuring that this can be used for studying the process?

QUESTION ID:113

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The peptide bond is a planar bond
Statement II: The Ramachandran Plot describes Omega Torsion Angles in proteins
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:114

Protein folding is highly cooperative. Which one of the following statement define this cooperativity?

QUESTION ID:115

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Serine is part of a catalytic triad in proteases that also includes histidine and aspartic acid.
Statement II: Catalytic triads are responsible for peptide hydrolysis
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:116

If two sequences are 1 PAM apart, then they will be

QUESTION ID:117

Contact map distance matrix of a protein provides a two dimensional view of a three dimensional structure of a protein. How can you obtain a proper three dimensional structure from the contact map?

QUESTION ID:118

Which one of the following is true about Phylograms and Cladograms?

QUESTION ID:119

Two sequences PLAVAV and PLLV were aligned using Needleman–Wunsch algorithm with the scores, match = 1, mismatch = 1, gap initiation = 1, gap elongation = – 2. The alignment with the best score according to this algorithm will be:

QUESTION ID:120

CASP judges one of the following:

QUESTION ID:121

A protein sequence was isolated from a novel source. During an initial sequence similarity search through BLAST, no homologous sequence was identified. A further BLAST search should be run by changing the scoring matrix to:

QUESTION ID:122

The in vitro ADMET analysis cannot provide information about:

QUESTION ID:123

Ktuple method is associated with:

QUESTION ID:124

The motif D-[TS]-x( 2)-{ GH}-L motif will have sequence:

QUESTION ID:125

How many atomic positions are required to measure a dihedral angle?

QUESTION ID:126

Which one of the following will be used to assess structural similarity of biomolecules?

QUESTION ID:127

A profile can be generated from a multiple sequence alignment by obtaining position specific preference (or probability) of each amino acid. This can be used to identify homologs. However, the key difference between a profile alignment like this and Hidden Markov Model (HMM) is:

QUESTION ID:128

You have purified a protein X and observed the following
A. When run on a native PAGE, it gives rise to a single band.
B. When run on a nonreducing SDSPAGE, you obtain two bands corresponding to 40kDa and 60kDa
C. When run on a reducing SDS page you get three bands corresponding to 60kDa, 30kDa, and 10kDa
What can you conclude about the purified protein X?

QUESTION ID:129

What types of bonds generally stabilize the antigen antibody interaction?

QUESTION ID:130

Tay Sachs disease is a:

QUESTION ID:131

“Dysbiosis” is a term associated with:

QUESTION ID:132

Single chain variable fragment (ScFV) are fusion proteins composed of:

QUESTION ID:133

Human embryonic stem cells (hESCs) can be obtained from:

QUESTION ID:134

Which gene is often been inserted in an adenoviral vector to treat cancer by suicide gene therapy?

QUESTION ID:135

Which one of the following is the most common adjuvant composed of water in oil emulsion with Mycobacterium tuberculosis components?

QUESTION ID:136

Karyogram of an individual shows presence of 45 chromosomes (44+X) and one sex chromosome is missing. The individual has a female appearance and dwarfism. Which of the following is the most probable condition associated with this individual?

QUESTION ID:137

Match the components of List I with those in the List II.

List I

List II

 

A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic

Purpura (ITP)

I. Thyroid

B. Hashimoto,s Disease

II. Gut

C. Celiac Disease

III. Brain

D. Huntington Disease

IV. Platelets

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:138

Which family does HIV belong to?

QUESTION ID:139

Kuru disease in human is caused by:

QUESTION ID:140

Which statement is TRUE for pathogenicity islands?

QUESTION ID:141

Which one of the following diseases can be treated with dopamine producing neurons generated from stem cells?

QUESTION ID:142

Protein A, which has strong affinity for Fc region of immunoglobulin, is extracted from:

QUESTION ID:143

Which one of the following diseases is caused due to a point mutation in the coding region of the associated gene?

QUESTION ID:144

Double pain sensation that is occasionally felt following painful stimulation of the skin is due to:

QUESTION ID:145

Interneurons:

QUESTION ID:146

The hypothalamus protects the body against hypoglycemia by:

QUESTION ID:147

Chemical transmitters in basal ganglia include all the following, EXCEPT:

QUESTION ID:148

Which one of the statements is TRUE regarding chemical synapses in the nervous system?

QUESTION ID:149

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Tissues that are nonregenerative, such as neurons in the brain, do have stem cells.
Statement II: Tissue localization does not necessarily mean lineage commitment and reduced potency, as liver stem cells can generate neurons.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:150

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and another one is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: It is essential that the animal cell cultures be maintained in antibiotic free conditions otherwise cryptic contaminations will persist
Reason R: The constant use of antibiotics favours development of chronic contamination. Many organisms are inhibited but not killed by antibiotics, which may resurface when conditions are favourable.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options below:

QUESTION ID:151

Match the components of List I with List II. 

List I

(Inducers of cell differentiation)

List II

(Cell type)

A.Hydrocortisone

I. Neuroblastoma

B. Retinoids

II. Endothelium

C. Prolactin

III. Gila , giloma

D. Interferon - 𝛾

IV. Mammary epithelium

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:152

Match the components of List I with List II. 

List I (Techniques)

List II (Used in)

A.Mosaic Spheroids

I . 3D aggregate of cells

B . Microcarrier matrix

II. Microgravity cell growth enviroment

C. Organoids

III. Bystander effects

D. Rotatory cell culture system

IV. 3D growth enviroment

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:153

What is the role of macrophage activating factor (MAF) in an animal cell culture media?

QUESTION ID:154

Common indicators of water pollution with enteropathogens are following EXCEPT

QUESTION ID:155

The first U.S patent for a GM organism was awarded to Dr. A. M. Chakrabarty for his work on one of the following:

QUESTION ID:156

The suitable method for treatment of municipal waste water and aqueous hazardous waste, which have less than 1% of suspended solids is:

QUESTION ID:157

Nitrification during nitrogen cycle is the production of:

QUESTION ID:158

Match the components of List I with List II. 

List I

List II

A.Legume

I . Frankia

B . Azolla

II. Azorhizobium

C. Sugarcane

III. Anabaena

D. Actinorhizal

IV. Acetobacter

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:159

Match the components of List I with List II. 

           List I

             (Marine Enzymes)

          List II

          (Source)

A.Chitinolytic enzymes

 I.  Digestive tracts of fish, shellfish, squid liver, octopus saliva

B. Gastric proteases 

II. Pyloric сеса, pancreatic intestines of sardine, cod & salmon

C. Polyphenol oxidases

III. Fish viscera from fishery sources  

D. Serine and cysteine proteases  

IV. Crustaceans










    Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:160

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Humans mainly obtain DHA and EPA by consuming fish whereas fish in turn obtain PUFAs from microalgae.
Statement II: Microalgae derived DHA and EPA can be used as a supplement for people
who do not consume fish and seafood.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:161

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Xenobiotic pollutants are biomagnified and accumulate in marine organisms
Statement II: Pollutants can be quantified in tissue samples from key marine animals living in the environment where pollution monitoring is in place.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:162

Brine shrimp assay involves one of the following:

QUESTION ID:163

Strong adhesives can be prepared using the constituents of one of the following:

QUESTION ID:164

Match the components of List I with List II. 

List I

List II

A.Rhodospin

I. Vitamin -C

B. Tocopherol

II. Vitamin -A

C. Isoflavonoids

III. Vitamin-E

D. Ascorbic

IV. Soyabean

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:165

Which one of the following is NOT a fermented food?

QUESTION ID:166

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and another one is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Within a few hours after an animal is killed, rigor mortis sets in with a contraction of muscle fibres and an increasing toughness of the meat.
Reason R: The loss of glycogen and disappearance of ATP from the muscles are observed in freshly killed animals.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options below:

QUESTION ID:167

Which one of the following methods of controlling microbial contamination is the least

QUESTION ID:168

Spirulina is considered as a super food for human consumption because it contains: