Menu

Previous Year Questions

TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

Which one of the following result is expected when a mammalian cell in S phase is fused with another in G2?

QUESTION ID:2

Following statements are about chromatin organisation in eukaryotes:
i. The length of DNA per nucleosome varies for individual tissue or species.
ii. Typical nucleosomal packaging pattern is strictly maintained across the genome of an organism.
iii. While wrapping around the histone core particle, uniform structure of DNA is maintained.
iv. Histone tail mediated internucleosomal contact is one of the essential factors to achieve the 30 nm fibre structure.
Select the correct combination of statements.

QUESTION ID:3

Which one of the following techniques can be utilized to study both protein–peptide and protein–DNA interactions?

QUESTION ID:4

In genomic DNA denaturation and renaturation experiments, which one of the following regions would renature the earliest?

QUESTION ID:5

Which one of the following represents an autonomous retrotransposon?

QUESTION ID:6

Thallium-208 has a half-life of 3.053 min. How long will a sample containing 120.0 μCi of Thallium-208 take to decay to 7.50 μCi?

QUESTION ID:7

Injection of nanos transcripts at the anterior end of a fertilized Drosophila egg is expected to develop in an embryo with:

QUESTION ID:8

If nondisjunction of a chromosome occurs in meiosis II, what will be the product at the completion of meiosis?

QUESTION ID:9

Which one of the following changes occurs in a directionally migrating eukaryotic cell?

QUESTION ID:10

Underwinding or overwinding of circular dsDNA generates supercoils only when it does NOT have any of the following:

QUESTION ID:11

CRISPR/Cas9 is an example of bacterial adaptive immunity. The transcription of CRISPR loci generates small crispr-RNAs (crRNA) to specifically target viral DNA, but not CRISPR loci, by forming complex with guide RNA and Cas9 nuclease. This prevention of autoimmunity is due to the:

QUESTION ID:12

The type of transport that does NOT reach Vmax is:

QUESTION ID:13

What is the minimum number of tRNAs required to recognize all six codons of serine
(UCU, UCA, UCG, UCC, AGU, and AGC)

QUESTION ID:14

Which one of the following statements about signal recognition particles (SRPs) is INCORRECT? An SRP:

QUESTION ID:15

Which one of the following materials is a bioplastic?

QUESTION ID:16

Labeled circular single stranded DNA and linear short DNA (oligo) were annealed to form a product shown in figure I. Helicase assay was performed using the annealed product and three proteins A, B, C. Below is the gel profile of the results (figure II).
Based on the results identify the protein with helicase activity?

QUESTION ID:17

Protein X exists in both GTP-bound and GDP-bound forms. When this protein was purified, it was always GDP-bound. Proteins Y, W and V were added separately in an
experiment along with GTP. The results of the experiment are depicted in the following figure:
Which one of the following could be the right conclusion of the results?

QUESTION ID:18

In a class, students were divided into 3 different groups and each group was given different DNA sample to find the melting temperature (Tm). All the groups observed
same Tm for their samples. This is because:

QUESTION ID:19

For efficient translation of certain eukaryotic mRNAs under many physiological and pathological stress conditions, the small subunit of ribosome binds to the mRNA at
the:

QUESTION ID:20

For identifying the distribution of a specific protein in a tissue, which one of the following types of immunofluorescence microscopic methods has attained the highest
level of resolution?

QUESTION ID:21

Which one of the following sets of protein factors, named as Yamanaka factors, can be used to convert mammalian somatic cells into induced pluripotent stem cells?

QUESTION ID:22

Hayflick limit of mammalian cells refers to which one of the following?

QUESTION ID:23

Midblastula transition is a phenomenon that occurs during early development in certain organisms. It refers to:

QUESTION ID:24

Under which of the following circumstances do T cells develop anergy?

QUESTION ID:25

A chemist synthesized a new chemical X which is highly mutagenic. He also tested the capacity of mutation induced by X to be reversed by other known mutagens and
obtained the following results:
Which one of the following conclusions is appropriate?

QUESTION ID:26

What would be the best assay to detect and quantify a small and low abundant peptide in a biological sample?

QUESTION ID:27

A mutation in the coding region of a mammalian gene leads to the loss of a single amino acid at the N-terminus of the nascent polypeptide. This is possible when:

QUESTION ID:28

A scientist performs a series of experiments to determine the recombination frequencies between the following genes. He acquires the following data:
P – Q: 3%; Q – R: 2%; R – S: 13%; P – S: 8%
Which one of the following represents the correct order of genes?

QUESTION ID:29

You have two tubes containing bacteriophage labelled with radioactive phosphorous (tube A) and radioactive Sulphur (tube B) that are devoid of bacteria. You use these
bacteriophage to infect separate E. coli cultures. After infection you separate bacteria from the virus and check them for radioactivity. You will find:

QUESTION ID:30

Colour blindness (B) in human follows sex-linked recessive mode of inheritance. If a couple with normal colour vision have a colour-blind son. What will be the genotypes
of the parents?

QUESTION ID:31

If the allele A is incompletely dominant over allele a, what is expected in a progeny of two heterozygous parents?

QUESTION ID:32

An experiment involves formation of RNA-DNA hybrid. Which one of the following enzymes could be utilized to degrade only the RNA strand from the RNA-DNA hybrid?

QUESTION ID:33

If the intracellular pH of a cell becomes basic, which one of the following will help reduce the pH?

QUESTION ID:34

Proteins can act as excellent buffers because of:

QUESTION ID:35

Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT in relation to reverse phase chromatography?

QUESTION ID:36

The DNA gel picture shown below depicts the PCR banding pattern of two markers (M1 and M2).
The linkage distance between the two markers from a test cross population is:

QUESTION ID:37

For metabolic engineering in plants having improved tolerance to osmotic stress, mannitol is overproduced because it:

QUESTION ID:38

For engineering virus resistance in plants, which one of the following viral components is commonly targeted?

QUESTION ID:39

The Bt protein employed for raising insect-resistant plants is not toxic to humans because:

QUESTION ID:40

In rice, while pyramiding three genes for a trait, two donors were used. One donor carries two desirable genes, which are present on chromosome #2 and #4, while
other donor has one desirable gene present on chromosome #3. Both the donors were crossed to produce a biparental F2 population. The theoretical expectations of an
individual carrying all the desirable allele in homozygous condition is one out of:

QUESTION ID:41

An isoenzyme may be a monomer, dimer or multimer with identical or distinct subunits. Following picture depicts a native PAGE profile of the isoenzyme from a
diploid plant (P1 – Parent 1, P2 – Parent 2, F1 – Progeny).
This isoenzyme is a:

QUESTION ID:42

Which one of the following sets is an example of specific sequence-based PCR analysis in marker assisted selection?

QUESTION ID:43

Opaque2 gene in maize and Wx gene in rice affects the …………. and ……… content, respectively.

QUESTION ID:44

Which one of the following is associated with RNA-induced gene silencing in plants?

QUESTION ID:45

The oxidative photosynthetic carbon cycle salvages:

QUESTION ID:46

The term ‘co-suppression’ was coined by Richard Jorgensen to explain:

QUESTION ID:47

Which one of the following plants exhibits both C3 and C4 pathways?

QUESTION ID:48

Dichogamy’ refers to a phenomenon in which anther dehiscence and stigma receptivity are:

QUESTION ID:49

Light compensation point is the irradiance at which:

QUESTION ID:50

Fusicoccin promotes cotyledon growth by promoting:

QUESTION ID:51

Plants take up water from the soil predominantly by the apoplastic and symplastic modes of transport. Which one of the following statements is true?

QUESTION ID:52

Which one of the following is a Mo-Fe containing protein?

QUESTION ID:53

TIR1, an auxin receptor, is a:

QUESTION ID:54

Phytochromes A and B maximally absorb light at wavelength range:

QUESTION ID:55

A researcher wants to ectopically express protein X exclusively in the seeds of Arabidopsis. Which one of the following promoters is most suitable for this purpose?

QUESTION ID:56

Given below are the names of different phytohormones in the left column. Match them with their corresponding precursor molecules in the right column.
Select the correct combination

QUESTION ID:57

Which one of the following is a sulphur containing secondary metabolite in mustard plant derived from glucose and an amino acid?

QUESTION ID:58

Disarmed Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens does not result in crown gall phenotype since it does not possess:

QUESTION ID:59

A plant that survives a local pathogen infection, often develops increased resistance to a subsequent attack by a mechanism called:. 

QUESTION ID:60

In genetically modified Dhara Mustard Hybrid – 11, male sterility is conferred by ………, while ………….. restores fertility.

QUESTION ID:61

Glycosylation of a monoclonal antibody DOES NOT affect:

QUESTION ID:62

Match the common antibody origin with appropriate generic name/brand name of the antibody

QUESTION ID:63

A recombinant therapeutic protein is intracellularly produced in soluble form using E. coli. Which one of the following sequences of chromatographic separation methods
is preferable for obtaining clinical grade protein?

QUESTION ID:64

What property is involved in the separation of a mixture of analytes using gas chromatography?

QUESTION ID:65

Which organization in India approves and gives regulatory clearance of biologicals?

QUESTION ID:66

In a crossflow filtration process, if the volumetric flow rate of the feed is 10 times that of the retentate, the concentration factor is:

QUESTION ID:67

In a bioprocess, assume that only cell mass is formed. Due to a variation in process conditions, if the microbial cell yield has halved, what would be the rate of substrate
consumption to maintain the same rate of cell mass production?

QUESTION ID:68

In a chemostat, which one of the following would increase the exit cell concentration?

QUESTION ID:69

The ratio of gassed to ungassed powder (Pg/P) in a bioreactor will be in the range of:

QUESTION ID:70

Scale up of a fermenter is done based on constant impeller tip speed. If the diameter of the impeller is increased by 10 fold, the agitator speed will:

QUESTION ID:71

For an enzyme catalyzed reaction in a batch bioreactor, which one of the following is true under quasi-steady state conditions:

QUESTION ID:72

In a batch reactor, which one of the following is true regarding specific growth rate?

QUESTION ID:73

For a Rushton turbine impeller (Reynold’s number greater than 10,000) when RPM is doubled, the power absorption increases by:

QUESTION ID:74

Reynold’s number is ratio of:

QUESTION ID:75

In developing a structured model for microbial cell growth, we:

QUESTION ID:76

Glycerol is a:

QUESTION ID:77

A catalyst:

QUESTION ID:78

If the pulse input response curve for a CSTR shows a long tail, it means:

QUESTION ID:79

During mixed acid fermentation by E. coli, which one of the following is NOT produced?

QUESTION ID:80

The maximum yield for microbial conversion of Glucose (C6H12O6) to ethanol (C2H5OH) on a mol/mol basis is approximately:

QUESTION ID:81

A substrate is consumed in a zero order reaction such that the concentration falls from 40 g/l to 20 g/l in 4 h. How long will it take the substrate to fall from 20 g/l to 2 g/l:

QUESTION ID:82

The least used heat transfer-design in bioreactor is:

QUESTION ID:83

The major drawback in using wild type S. cerevisiae for producing ethanol from biomass hydrolysate is:

QUESTION ID:84

Match the physical/chemical property with the corresponding unit operations used for separation:

QUESTION ID:85

One microgram of a pure enzyme (MW: 92,000) catalyzed a reaction at a rate of 0.50 μmoles/min under optimum conditions. The specific activity of the enzyme
[(μmoles/min)/mg protein] is:

QUESTION ID:86

The ion transport that will be the most affected following mutation in Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene is:

QUESTION ID:87

The organism in which the luciferase gene is termed as “lux” gene is:

QUESTION ID:88

The first humanized monoclonal antibody approved by the US-FDA for targeted treatment of breast cancer was:

QUESTION ID:89

Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT with regard to DNA vaccines?

QUESTION ID:90

Antibiotic bleomycin is secreted by:

QUESTION ID:91

Zinc deficiency among children primarily results in the atrophy of:

QUESTION ID:92

Antigen activated B cells differentiate into antibody producing plasma cells in:

QUESTION ID:93

Allergenicity of a protein refers to its capacity to activate:

QUESTION ID:94

Secondary immune response to a hapten depends on the:

QUESTION ID:95

Ig class specific antigenic determinants are known as:

QUESTION ID:96

Isotypic determinants of the Ig molecule are located in the:

QUESTION ID:97

A chimeric organism is generated when:

QUESTION ID:98

Metaplasia represents:

QUESTION ID:99

The taxonomic method of identifying an organism to its species is:

QUESTION ID:100

In Drosophila, the growth of legs on the head instead of antennae during development is an example of:

QUESTION ID:101

Ameloblasts are differentiated cells:

QUESTION ID:102

Which one of the following contributes to the development of the reproductive tract in a male foetus?

QUESTION ID:103

Neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction is:

QUESTION ID:104

Viral vector that is ideal for expressing therapeutic gene in non-dividing cells is:

QUESTION ID:105

Which one of the following amino acids can be used as a diuretic because of its importance in metabolism of ammonia?

QUESTION ID:106

Paralytic shellfish poisoning is a foodborne illness that typically develops after consumption of shellfish contaminated chiefly with the heat stable and acid stable toxin:

QUESTION ID:107

The antifreeze molecules that prevent intracellular ice formation in marine organisms are generally:

QUESTION ID:108

Which one of the following transgenes expressed in transgenic fish by an appropriate inducible promoter, may be used for detecting environmental toxicants?

QUESTION ID:109

Ballast water may be carried onboard by ships to maintain stability and improve maneuverability during transit. Introduction of which one of the following is regarded
as the major threat in release of untreated ballast water?

QUESTION ID:110

Remote sensing of ocean-atmospheric parameters carried out in the microwave channels is based on the phenomenon of:

QUESTION ID:111

A starch containing wastewater sample with high BOD, CaCl2 and NH4NO3 was subjected to aerobic oxidation using a designed bacterial consortium. The oxidised
product(s) will have:

QUESTION ID:112

A wastewater has BOD of 1500 mg/L and COD of 2400 mg/L. Assuming 80% treatment efficiency in an activated sludge bioreactor, the BOD/COD ratio of treated
effluent will be:

QUESTION ID:113

A slaughter house waste was subjected to anaerobic digestion. If the operation conditions are mesophilic then the biogas will have only:

QUESTION ID:114

A pilot plant treating organic waste in aerobic and continuous mode was running with a constant organic load. It was observed that after three days, the Dissolved
Oxygen level had increased from 3mg/L to 4.5mg/L under the same operating conditions. This suggests that:

QUESTION ID:115

An anaerobic flask containing 50 ml of media with glucose as the sole carbon source was inoculated with a consortium consisting of Methanosarcina and Bacillus. After
two weeks of incubation, there will be:

QUESTION ID:116

A representative sequence profile of a given nucleotide binding domain is to be used to mine related sequences from TrEMBL. The database to be used to extract the query corresponding to this fold is:

QUESTION ID:117

The figure represents a dot plot comparing two genomes X and Y. The portion marked N is a/an:

QUESTION ID:118

Which one of the following methods is most accurate in rescoring docked ligandprotein complexes?

QUESTION ID:119

A reference set of molecules is experimentally assayed for xenobiotic toxicity using the MTS assay which is a colorimetric measurement of cell viability. As part of the
lead optimization step in drug discovery, which one of the following steps can be used to predict the toxicity of a new set of compounds?

QUESTION ID:120

In a de novo RNASeq analysis, the typical steps are (1) transcript assembly, (2) cluster sequence contigs and construct complete de Bruijn graphs for each cluster, and
(3) separate the de Bruijn graph to full length alternatively spliced isoforms or transcripts from paralogous genes. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT in this context?

QUESTION ID:121

For Gene Set Enrichment Analysis (GSEA), differentially expressed genes are grouped into broader functions. A typical tool/resource used for this purpose is:

QUESTION ID:122

Two types of pair-wise sequence alignment of the same hypothetical protein sequence fragments are illustrated in the figure below. Vertical bars between the
sequences indicate the presence of identical amino acids. * symbols in Figure Y indicate residues not included in the alignment.

Which one of the following is correct?

QUESTION ID:123

Match the items in Group I with Group II with reference to a database search for identifying homologs of human hemoglobin.

QUESTION ID:124

The following phylogenetic tree of five sequences (A-E) indicates:

QUESTION ID:125

Genes or proteins that display the same activity, but have different origins and are the product of convergent evolution, are called:

QUESTION ID:126

Match the type of BLAST programs given in Group I to the particular type of sequence search task described in Group II

QUESTION ID:127

In a multiple sequence alignment of homologous protein sequences, a region of multiple insertions and deletions indicates the presence of:

QUESTION ID:128

Two charged molecules are at a distance ‘r’ from each other. Which one of the following is correct regarding the electrostatic interactions between them?

QUESTION ID:129

The structure of two molecules P and Q with three atoms (u, v, w) each, are defined by coordinates given below.
The root mean square deviation between the two structures is:

QUESTION ID:130

A novel protein from a deep sea archaebacterium was identified and sequenced. The sequence is expected to be widely divergent from known sequences. Which scoring
matrix will produce the most appropriate alignment in a search for homologs in the NCBI database?

QUESTION ID:131

The measured values of main chain torsion angles of a residue in a polypeptide has values (Φ=+50, Ψ=+60). What type of secondary structure is it most likely to be
present in?

QUESTION ID:132

Which one of the following experimental methods is NOT used to determine threedimensional structures of biological macromolecules?

QUESTION ID:133

Which one of the following is NOT an assumption of an evolutionary model of the PAM matrix?

QUESTION ID:134

Which one of the following is a valid assumption regarding the molecular clock hypothesis in evolution?

QUESTION ID:135

Which of the following is NOT true of protein folds?