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Previous Year Questions

TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Ionizing radiation can cause damage to the DNA
Reason R: Ionizing radiation generates free radicals
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:2

Lysosomal lumen is maintained at an acidic pH by:

QUESTION ID:3

Which one among the following is a nuclease?

QUESTION ID:4

Which one of the following statements is NOT common between oxidative phosphorylation and photophosphorylation?

QUESTION ID:5

Which one of the following combinations signify similar function?

QUESTION ID:6

E class homeotic genes in Arabidopsis thaliana are involved in the formation of:

QUESTION ID:7

When the critical night length in winters is disrupted by a pulse of red light followed by a pulse of far red light:

QUESTION ID:8

A plant species nearing its extinction due to viral infection has been chosen for micropropagation by tissue culture. Which explants will be the most appropriate to
produce virus free plants?
A. Shoot apical meristem
B. Stem
C. Leaf disc
D. Root tip.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:9

The rice blast fungus Magnaporthe grisea, invades rice plants in a manner typical of many foliar pathogens by producing specialized infection structures called:

QUESTION ID:10

The first alkaloid to be isolated and characterized from plants is:

QUESTION ID:11

Seeds of Arabidopsis thaliana placed on Murashige and Skoog (MS) media without any hormones germinates faster than in the medium that contains:

QUESTION ID:12

Which one of the following is a nonclimacteric fruit?

QUESTION ID:13

Which one of the following statements are TRUE for gibberellins?
A. Gibberellins promote seed germination
B. Gibberellins cannot stimulate leaf growth
C. Gibberellins cannot stimulate stem growth
D. Gibberellins can be exogenously used to increase plant growth
E. GA3 is predominantly used in agronomic and horticultural practices Choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:14

Which one of the following is not a secondary metabolite?

QUESTION ID:15

Which one of the following classes of compounds is generally accumulated as an antiherbivore response in plants?

QUESTION ID:16

Which one of these polysaccharides is induced after a pathogen or microbial attack?

QUESTION ID:17

The GA2oxidase gene from bean is overexpressed in a wheat plant by genetic engineering. Which one of the following phenotypes correctly describes the resultant
transgenic plant?

QUESTION ID:18

The TDNA of Agrobacterium must be cut out from its circular plasmid for its transfer into plant cells. Which one of the following Vir proteins are involved in this process?

QUESTION ID:19

Lateral roots initiate from:

QUESTION ID:20

Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of skotomorphogenic development?

QUESTION ID:21

Which one of the following can be used as a selection marker for developing transgenic plants?

QUESTION ID:22

Which one of the following treatments is required for flowering in a winter annual type of Arabidopsis plants?

QUESTION ID:23

Which one of the following statements are TRUE regarding specialized embryonic structures peculiar to the grass family? A. The cotyledon has been modified by evolution to form an absorptive organ called coleoptile
B. Scutellum forms the interphase between the embryo and the starchy endosperm tissue
C. Coleoptile covers and protect the first leaves while buried beneath the soil
D. The base of the hypocotyl has elongated to form a protective sheath around the radicle called the scutellum
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:24

Two immobilized enzyme columns with equal enzyme loading and same column volume are run at the same feed rate and same inlet substrate concentration. It is observed that the taller and thinner column gives better conversion. This demonstrates that

QUESTION ID:25

In a two stage CSTR in series, the first reactor runs at a dilution rate D1 <μmax and the inlet substrate concentration (S0) is twotimes greater than Ks , then:

QUESTION ID:26

To have an extended late log/ stationary phase so that secondary metabolites may be produced, you will prefer to use:

QUESTION ID:27

Given the pseudoplastic rheology of fungal fermentation broth, we can expect that:

QUESTION ID:28

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: In a plate & frame filter operated under constant pressure, the filtrate flow rate declines with time
Reason R: In a plate & frame filter operated under constant pressure, the filtrate cake builds up on the filter membrane
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:29

Scaling up a reactor while keeping the power consumption per unit volume constant will lead to:

QUESTION ID:30

In a fed batch culture the feed rate of concentrated substrate is increased with time while the RPM of the impeller is kept constant. You will most likely observe one of the following

QUESTION ID:31

In an anaerobic fermentation producing ethanol, the ethanol yield (Yp/s)

QUESTION ID:32

Doubling the substrate concentration in the inlet of a CSTR (with cells following Monod growth kinetics) will, after reaching the new steady state, lead to:

QUESTION ID:33

If 180 gm of glucose is consumed during cell growth and 132 gm of carbon dioxide is produced, then the fractional carbon flux towards biomass (assuming no product is formed and glucose is the sole carbon source) is:

QUESTION ID:34

S. cerevisiae produces ethanol at a yield of 0.5 g/g glucose. The strain ferments 20g/l glucose in 24 hours. Calculate productivity of ethanol in this fermentation.

QUESTION ID:35

E. coli was grown aerobically in batch fermentation. The initial concentration of cells was 1x 103/ml and it reached 1x106/ml in 10 hours. Calculate specific growth rate.

QUESTION ID:36

In a fed batch process with a nongrowth product formation kinetics given by qp = β (a constant), in order to maximize product concentration and enhance metabolic flux towards product formation,

QUESTION ID:37

Given that Power number is constant; then increasing the RPM of the impeller 3fold will increase the power consumption due to agitation by:

QUESTION ID:38

If the maintenance coefficient (m) is significantly high, then with reduction in specific growth rate

QUESTION ID:39

Increasing the agitation in a reactor increases oxygen transfer primarily because

QUESTION ID:40

In a continuous culture of Saccharomyces cerevisiae, the cell density is 30 gL1 (DCW), the dilution rate (D) is 0.4 h-1 and substrate uptake rate (q) is 18 gL-1 h-1. The cell yield coefficient Yx/s will be:

QUESTION ID:41

Aqueous two phase partitioning (ATPS) is used for the recovery of an enzyme from the cell free culture filtrate on addition of PEG2000 and dextran. The mixture separates into two phases with a partition coefficient for the enzyme = 4.2. The maximum possible enzyme recovery, when the volume ratio of the upper to lower phases is 5.0 will be:

QUESTION ID:42

A fermentation medium is being cooled from 700 to 320 in a double pipe heat exchanger. Cooling fluid flowing counter currently with this stream is heated from 200 to 460 . The log mean temperature difference (in0 ) for the two streams is:

QUESTION ID:43

For reactions catalysed by an enzyme following Michaelis Menten Kinetics, the elasticity of the reaction velocity with respect to substrate:

QUESTION ID:44

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Gene Sequences are aligned using identity matrices instead of substitution matrices
Reason R: The four bases in DNA cannot be replaced with each other
In light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:45

Match the components of List I with List II 

           List I

          List II

      A. Sequence alignment

       I.PUBMED

      B. Structural alignment

       II.BLAST

      C. Fold prediction

       III. ROSETTA

      D. Review of literature

       IV. DALI







  Choose the correct answer from the ontions given below: 

QUESTION ID:46

Which one of the statements relating to properties and structures of two proteins is most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:47

Trp florescence can be used to study protein folding and unfolding. Which properties of Trp are critical in ensuring that this can be used for studying the process?

QUESTION ID:48

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The peptide bond is a planar bond
Statement II: The Ramachandran Plot describes Omega Torsion Angles in proteins
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:49

Protein folding is highly cooperative. Which one of the following statement define this cooperativity?

QUESTION ID:50

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Serine is part of a catalytic triad in proteases that also includes histidine and aspartic acid.
Statement II: Catalytic triads are responsible for peptide hydrolysis
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:51

If two sequences are 1 PAM apart, then they will be

QUESTION ID:52

Contact map distance matrix of a protein provides a two dimensional view of a three dimensional structure of a protein. How can you obtain a proper three dimensional structure from the contact map?

QUESTION ID:53

Which one of the following is true about Phylograms and Cladograms?

QUESTION ID:54

Two sequences PLAVAV and PLLV were aligned using Needleman–Wunsch algorithm with the scores, match = 1, mismatch = 1, gap initiation = 1, gap elongation = – 2. The alignment with the best score according to this algorithm will be:

QUESTION ID:55

CASP judges one of the following:

QUESTION ID:56

A protein sequence was isolated from a novel source. During an initial sequence similarity search through BLAST, no homologous sequence was identified. A further BLAST search should be run by changing the scoring matrix to:

QUESTION ID:57

The in vitro ADMET analysis cannot provide information about:

QUESTION ID:58

Ktuple method is associated with:

QUESTION ID:59

The motif D-[TS]-x( 2)-{ GH}-L motif will have sequence:

QUESTION ID:60

How many atomic positions are required to measure a dihedral angle?

QUESTION ID:61

Which one of the following will be used to assess structural similarity of biomolecules?

QUESTION ID:62

A profile can be generated from a multiple sequence alignment by obtaining position specific preference (or probability) of each amino acid. This can be used to identify homologs. However, the key difference between a profile alignment like this and Hidden Markov Model (HMM) is:

QUESTION ID:63

You have purified a protein X and observed the following
A. When run on a native PAGE, it gives rise to a single band.
B. When run on a nonreducing SDSPAGE, you obtain two bands corresponding to 40kDa and 60kDa
C. When run on a reducing SDS page you get three bands corresponding to 60kDa, 30kDa, and 10kDa
What can you conclude about the purified protein X?

QUESTION ID:64

What types of bonds generally stabilize the antigen antibody interaction?

QUESTION ID:65

Tay Sachs disease is a:

QUESTION ID:66

“Dysbiosis” is a term associated with:

QUESTION ID:67

Single chain variable fragment (ScFV) are fusion proteins composed of:

QUESTION ID:68

Human embryonic stem cells (hESCs) can be obtained from:

QUESTION ID:69

Which gene is often been inserted in an adenoviral vector to treat cancer by suicide gene therapy?

QUESTION ID:70

Which one of the following is the most common adjuvant composed of water in oil emulsion with Mycobacterium tuberculosis components?

QUESTION ID:71

Karyogram of an individual shows presence of 45 chromosomes (44+X) and one sex chromosome is missing. The individual has a female appearance and dwarfism. Which of the following is the most probable condition associated with this individual?

QUESTION ID:72

Match the components of List I with those in the List II.

List I

List II

 

A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic

Purpura (ITP)

I. Thyroid

B. Hashimoto,s Disease

II. Gut

C. Celiac Disease

III. Brain

D. Huntington Disease

IV. Platelets

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:73

Which family does HIV belong to?

QUESTION ID:74

Kuru disease in human is caused by:

QUESTION ID:75

Which statement is TRUE for pathogenicity islands?

QUESTION ID:76

Which one of the following diseases can be treated with dopamine producing neurons generated from stem cells?

QUESTION ID:77

Protein A, which has strong affinity for Fc region of immunoglobulin, is extracted from:

QUESTION ID:78

Which one of the following diseases is caused due to a point mutation in the coding region of the associated gene?

QUESTION ID:79

Double pain sensation that is occasionally felt following painful stimulation of the skin is due to:

QUESTION ID:80

Interneurons:

QUESTION ID:81

The hypothalamus protects the body against hypoglycemia by:

QUESTION ID:82

Chemical transmitters in basal ganglia include all the following, EXCEPT:

QUESTION ID:83

Which one of the statements is TRUE regarding chemical synapses in the nervous system?

QUESTION ID:84

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Tissues that are nonregenerative, such as neurons in the brain, do have stem cells.
Statement II: Tissue localization does not necessarily mean lineage commitment and reduced potency, as liver stem cells can generate neurons.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:85

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and another one is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: It is essential that the animal cell cultures be maintained in antibiotic free conditions otherwise cryptic contaminations will persist
Reason R: The constant use of antibiotics favours development of chronic contamination. Many organisms are inhibited but not killed by antibiotics, which may resurface when conditions are favourable.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options below:

QUESTION ID:86

Match the components of List I with List II. 

List I

(Inducers of cell differentiation)

List II

(Cell type)

A.Hydrocortisone

I. Neuroblastoma

B. Retinoids

II. Endothelium

C. Prolactin

III. Gila , giloma

D. Interferon - 𝛾

IV. Mammary epithelium

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:87

Match the components of List I with List II. 

List I (Techniques)

List II (Used in)

A.Mosaic Spheroids

I . 3D aggregate of cells

B . Microcarrier matrix

II. Microgravity cell growth enviroment

C. Organoids

III. Bystander effects

D. Rotatory cell culture system

IV. 3D growth enviroment

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:88

What is the role of macrophage activating factor (MAF) in an animal cell culture media?

QUESTION ID:89

Common indicators of water pollution with enteropathogens are following EXCEPT

QUESTION ID:90

The first U.S patent for a GM organism was awarded to Dr. A. M. Chakrabarty for his work on one of the following:

QUESTION ID:91

The suitable method for treatment of municipal waste water and aqueous hazardous waste, which have less than 1% of suspended solids is:

QUESTION ID:92

Nitrification during nitrogen cycle is the production of:

QUESTION ID:93

Match the components of List I with List II. 

List I

List II

A.Legume

I . Frankia

B . Azolla

II. Azorhizobium

C. Sugarcane

III. Anabaena

D. Actinorhizal

IV. Acetobacter

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:94

Match the components of List I with List II. 

           List I

             (Marine Enzymes)

          List II

          (Source)

A.Chitinolytic enzymes

 I.  Digestive tracts of fish, shellfish, squid liver, octopus saliva

B. Gastric proteases 

II. Pyloric сеса, pancreatic intestines of sardine, cod & salmon

C. Polyphenol oxidases

III. Fish viscera from fishery sources  

D. Serine and cysteine proteases  

IV. Crustaceans










    Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:95

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Humans mainly obtain DHA and EPA by consuming fish whereas fish in turn obtain PUFAs from microalgae.
Statement II: Microalgae derived DHA and EPA can be used as a supplement for people
who do not consume fish and seafood.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:96

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Xenobiotic pollutants are biomagnified and accumulate in marine organisms
Statement II: Pollutants can be quantified in tissue samples from key marine animals living in the environment where pollution monitoring is in place.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:97

Brine shrimp assay involves one of the following:

QUESTION ID:98

Strong adhesives can be prepared using the constituents of one of the following:

QUESTION ID:99

Match the components of List I with List II. 

List I

List II

A.Rhodospin

I. Vitamin -C

B. Tocopherol

II. Vitamin -A

C. Isoflavonoids

III. Vitamin-E

D. Ascorbic

IV. Soyabean

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:100

Which one of the following is NOT a fermented food?

QUESTION ID:101

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and another one is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Within a few hours after an animal is killed, rigor mortis sets in with a contraction of muscle fibres and an increasing toughness of the meat.
Reason R: The loss of glycogen and disappearance of ATP from the muscles are observed in freshly killed animals.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options below:

QUESTION ID:102

Which one of the following methods of controlling microbial contamination is the least

QUESTION ID:103

Spirulina is considered as a super food for human consumption because it contains: