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Previous Year Questions

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TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

In the trp operon, what happens to the trp repressor in the absence of tryptophan?

QUESTION ID:2

Which one of the following is the correct order of mutagenesis screen?

QUESTION ID:3

In area of high GC content of the human genome

QUESTION ID:4

The bases A,G,U,C,I (inosine) all occur at 5' position of anticodons in tRNAs. What is the minimum number of tRNAs required to recognize all codons of amino acids specified by codons with complete degeneracy?

QUESTION ID:5

Which of the following cell surface markers is used to identify the B cells from blood samples?

QUESTION ID:6

Administration of the DPT vaccine (diphtheria toxoid, pertussis products, and tetanus toxoid) would stimulate which of the following types of immunity?

QUESTION ID:7

Loss of which of the following classes of molecules on the surface of a tumor cell target would result in reduced susceptibility to killing by host immune cells?

QUESTION ID:8

Genes for 16S and 28S rRNA are transcribed by

QUESTION ID:9

In cancer condition, genes can be either repressed or over-expressed. Repression of genes by DNA methylation depends on

QUESTION ID:10

Which type of inhibition requires binding of one or more substrates to enzyme before the inhibitor can bind:

QUESTION ID:11

The genes, which remain confined to differential region of Ychromosome, are

QUESTION ID:12

Blastopore is

QUESTION ID:13

Arp, profilin, and villin are all

QUESTION ID:14

Cdk1 can only be fully active when

QUESTION ID:15

Which one of following statements about Bt cotton cultivation in India is NOT TRUE?

QUESTION ID:16

The latest version of Golden rice contains the following transgenes

QUESTION ID:17

Which one of the following studies is NOT needed for the biosafety assessment of GM crops?

QUESTION ID:18

Which one of the following steps is NOT true for production of artificial seeds by desiccated system?

QUESTION ID:19

Absorption of which one of the following nutrients in human intestine is interfered by phytate present in seeds?

QUESTION ID:20

The following are the key resources needed for efficient markerassisted germplasm enhancement:
i) Suitable characterised genetic markers and the necessary information for multiplexing
ii) High-density molecular maps and densely spread markers
iii) Established marker–trait associations for traits of agronomic importance
iv) High-throughput genotyping systems.
Now rank the key resources in the right order of requirement

QUESTION ID:21

Which one of the following methods is highly amenable for automation in most of the genotyping studies?

QUESTION ID:22

A patch clamp device is used to

QUESTION ID:23

Which one of the following is a component in the signaling pathway stimulated by receptor tyrosine kinases?

QUESTION ID:24

A mutation that inactivates the cytochrome b/f complex would

QUESTION ID:25

How many ATP molecules are required for the conversion of one N2 to 2NH4+ during biological nitrogen fixation?

QUESTION ID:26

Which of the following bacterial gene can be used for increasing starch content in potato?

QUESTION ID:27

Which one of the following options describe the term "Transplastomics" correctly?

QUESTION ID:28

The electrons from excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II are accepted first by

QUESTION ID:29

Which one of the following agents stimulates direct DNA uptake by protoplasts?

QUESTION ID:30

Transgenic plants expressing barnase or barstar genes are used for

QUESTION ID:31

The presence of polyadenylation signals in the wild type CRY1Ac gene from Bacillus thuringiensis prevented expression of appropriate amount of CRY1Ac protein in transgenic plants. What was done to overcome this problem?

QUESTION ID:32

The following are some of the genes and DNA sequences important for Agrobacterium-mediated transformation of plants:
i. gene conferring resistance to an antibiotic under a promoter expressed in plants
ii. T-DNA border sequences
iii. vir genes
iv. a reporter gene like β-glucuronidase under CaMV 35S promoter.
Which of the above features in combination given below are present on a binary vector and minimally required for transfer of T-DNA from Agrobacterium to plant cell and positive selection of the transformants?

QUESTION ID:33

Which one of the following hormone ratios usually promote shoot formation from callus?

QUESTION ID:34

Which one of the following dyes can be used to test the viability of cultured plant cells?

QUESTION ID:35

The two Vir proteins with nuclear localization signals which help in movement of T-DNA to plant nucleus are

QUESTION ID:36

Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE for Agrobacterium mediated plant transformation?

QUESTION ID:37

The breeding method for conventionally transferring cytoplasm from one genotype to the other is

QUESTION ID:38

Detaselling is a method of emasculation followed in ________________

QUESTION ID:39

A mechanism where stamens and pistils of hermaphrodite flowers may mature at different times leading to cross pollination is ______________________

QUESTION ID:40

Which one of the following amino acids is an example of a compatible osmolyte in response to a range of environmental stresses?

QUESTION ID:41

The principal signal molecule involved in induced systemic resistance in plants is

QUESTION ID:42

International treaty in the field of the protection of the new variety of plants and rights of the breeders is

QUESTION ID:43

The revised Genebank Standards for Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture were endorsed at the 14th Regular Session of the CGRFA, at

QUESTION ID:44

Gluconoacetobacter diazotrophicus is predominantly found in

QUESTION ID:45

A system in which there is exchange of energy but not of mass, is called a/an __________ system.

QUESTION ID:46

The second law of thermodynamics is concerned with

QUESTION ID:47

The oxygen transfer rate in an aerobic fermentation process does not depend on the

QUESTION ID:48

A culture is grown in a flask and after 120 h there were 1.0 x106cells/ml. After 270 h there were 1.0 x109 cells/ml, the specific growth rate of the organisms is

QUESTION ID:49

In a CSTR at steady state of volume 1L, the feed rate of a compound A is 1L/h. The exit concentration of A is 50% of the inlet concentration and the rate of conversion of A to products is a first order reaction given by dCA/dt= k CA . The value of k is

QUESTION ID:50

Which of the following processes provides the best effluent quality for water reuse?

QUESTION ID:51

In any centrifugal separator the separation efficiency is a…………………..

QUESTION ID:52

In aqueous two phase separation systems, a phase diagram is prepared at constant :

QUESTION ID:53

For preparative chromatography, a simple scale up principle which can be used without significantly affecting resolution by

QUESTION ID:54

Penicillin is extracted using isoamylacetate in a counter current extractor. Before the extraction, pH of the aqueous solution is adjusted to pH 2.5. This is done as penicillin

QUESTION ID:55

In an adsorption column for the separation of antibiotics, a sharp break through curve indicates

QUESTION ID:56

Which of the following is not a desired property of the membranes used for separation

QUESTION ID:57

Identify which of the following is NOT considered as a criterion for scale up of fermentation processes

QUESTION ID:58

If agitator energy input per unit volume of the fermentor is kept constant during scale up, the factor that would always decrease upon increasing size of the fermenter is

QUESTION ID:59

For a given thickness of the head closing the end of cylindrical vessel, which of the following can withstand the highest pressure ?

QUESTION ID:60

A mechanical seal is used for

QUESTION ID:61

Which of the following elements is not included in the scope of market analysis ?

QUESTION ID:62

"Break-even point" is the point of intersection of

QUESTION ID:63

Fumaric acid is produced from Malic acid using Fumarase. Calculate standard heat of reaction for the following transformation:
C4H6O5 → C4H4O4 + H2O
Given: (Δhc°)malic acid= -1328.8 kJ/gmol (Δhc°)Fumaric acid= -1334.0 kJ/gmol

QUESTION ID:64

Air at 104.2 kPa at 37°C with a relative humidity of 60% is cooled at the same pressure to 29°C. The cooled air has a higher________

QUESTION ID:65

Which of the following only permits uni-directional fluid flow?

QUESTION ID:66

The internal temperature in the refrigerator is 280 K and the external temperature is 300K. The theoretical maximum value of coefficient of performance is

QUESTION ID:67

Concentrated feeding in a Fed batch system is used to get

QUESTION ID:68

A digestible linear polysaccharide abundantly found in cereals having α-1,4 linkages in its structure is

QUESTION ID:69

A prominent prebiotic substance is:

QUESTION ID:70

Considering the importance of moisture content of food in promoting microbial growth, which one of the following statements is true

QUESTION ID:71

The rate of cell disintegration in high pressure homogenizer primarily depends on the

QUESTION ID:72

Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

QUESTION ID:73

In a counter current single pass heat exchanger, cooling water enter at 0°C and leaves at 20°C. Hot water enters from the other side at 60°C at a flow rate which is half of the cooling water flow rate. Assuming there is no heat loss, what is the Log Mean Temperature Difference?

QUESTION ID:74

The Pyramidal neurons in the cerebral cortex are found in

QUESTION ID:75

Which one of the following types of glial cells participate in the reuptake mechanism of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft?

QUESTION ID:76

Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by

QUESTION ID:77

Saccadic eye movement

QUESTION ID:78

Which part of the brain integrates autonomic, endocrine and behavioral responses?

QUESTION ID:79

The patterning of the nervous system along the anterior-posterior axis in embryo is controlled by

QUESTION ID:80

All the neurons in the basal ganglionic nuclei are inhibitory except in

QUESTION ID:81

Tay–Sachs disease is due to a defect in the enzyme ________________ and ________________ as its substrate:

QUESTION ID:82

Which one of the following causes stunted growth and severe fasting hypoglycemia with ketonuria?

QUESTION ID:83

Which one of the following techniques is of highest resolution for detection of chromosomal alterations?

QUESTION ID:84

E. coli bacteria are beneficial to humans because they

QUESTION ID:85

Which of the following reporters can be used for magnetic resonance imaging?

QUESTION ID:86

Which one of the following statements forms the basis for the increased circulatory life time for a sialylated recombinant therapeutic protein?

QUESTION ID:87

Which one of the following plays a role in changing the antigen binding site of a B cell after antigenic stimulation?

QUESTION ID:88

Rostral is an anatomical term meaning towards the

QUESTION ID:89

An enzyme having Km values of 2.5x10-5M and 2.5x10-7M for the substrates S1 and S2, respectively, is added to a solution consisting of 100 nano moles of both S1 and S2. Which of the following statement is correct?

QUESTION ID:90

Phlebitis is the inflammation of

QUESTION ID:91

Mucosal immunity is preferentially stimulated if an immunogen is administered

QUESTION ID:92

An example of lysogeny in animals could be

QUESTION ID:93

Which one of the following is the earliest site of hematopoiesis in the embryo?

QUESTION ID:94

Which one of the following viruses contains single stranded DNA as the genome?

QUESTION ID:95

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the drugs that affect the stability of microtubules used in cancer chemotherapy

QUESTION ID:96

Therapies of lysosomal and peroxisomal disorders that have shown success in clinical trials with enzyme replacement therapy exclude:

QUESTION ID:97

Lysosomes are thought to play an important role in which of the following processes?

QUESTION ID:98

COFAL test is used for the diagnosis of

QUESTION ID:99

Which one of the following animals has a cheek pouch in their mouth and used as an animal model for studying oral cancer?

QUESTION ID:100

Which one of the following protozoan is transmitted by ingestion of ticks?

QUESTION ID:101

The demyelination of the central nervous system white matter produced by the canine distemper virus is an example of:

QUESTION ID:102

Which one of the following clinical conditions does not have exudates?

QUESTION ID:103

BioSteel is a trademark name for a high-strength based fiber material which was made from the recombinant spider silk-like protein extracted from the milk of transgenic

QUESTION ID:104

Which of the following protozoan parasites replicates inside a non nucleated human cell

QUESTION ID:105

Hypophysation refers to

QUESTION ID:106

The term "Mitotic gynogen" refers to

QUESTION ID:107

In animal cell culture, CO2 incubator is used for maintaining open culture system. What is the function of CO2?

QUESTION ID:108

Which one of the following is a fish cell line?

QUESTION ID:109

Photosynthetic sulphur bacteria get hydrogen ions for CO2 reduction  from

QUESTION ID:110

White spot syndrome virus is transmitted

QUESTION ID:111

Ziconotide, a synthetic bioactive peptide originally isolated from the marine snail Conus magus is used as an

QUESTION ID:112

Which of the following is a bioluminescent bacterium?

QUESTION ID:113

The site of production of Gonad Inhibiting Hormone (GIH) in crustaceans is

QUESTION ID:114

In bony fishes, Immunoglobulin IgM is secreted as a

QUESTION ID:115

Which one of the following electron acceptors used by the bacteria is mainly responsible for microbial induction of marine corrosion?

QUESTION ID:116

Which one of the following methods is used to identify the sites in a genome that are occupied in vivo by a gene regulatory protein?

QUESTION ID:117

The class of immunoglobulin found in fish is

QUESTION ID:118

Besides nitrogen fixation the heterocysts of cyanobacteria also contribute to

QUESTION ID:119

The enzyme involved in hydrogen production from biophotolysis in green algae is

QUESTION ID:120

The compound used for the preferential removal of diatoms from microalgal cultures is

QUESTION ID:121

The overall reaction for microbial conversion of glucose to L-glutamic acid is: 
What mass of oxygen is required to produce 49 g glutamic acid?  Molecular weight of glutamic acid=147 

QUESTION ID:122

Which one of the following databases allows users to search marine species datasets from all of the world's oceans?

QUESTION ID:123

N2 fixation requires large amounts of energy, since there is high activation energy for breaking the triple bond of the N2. If so, how many molecules of ATP are required for reducing one molecule of nitrogen?

QUESTION ID:124

Marine environment has abundance of osmotrophs. Osmotrophs are defined as organisms which obtains nutrients and energy via passive or active transport of

QUESTION ID:125

Most endangered species are victims of

QUESTION ID:126

The Ozone layer saves from lethal UV. It mainly absorbs-

QUESTION ID:127

Total energy available for work at equilibrium is termed as

QUESTION ID:128

Global warming is due to:

QUESTION ID:129

In a pond ecosystem, net productivity by zooplankton is 'p' and biomass consumed by small fishes is 'c', then the ratio of c/p is termed as

QUESTION ID:130

Two species or populations are competing for the exact same resources, and one will eventually exclude the other. What is the technical term for this?

QUESTION ID:131

Which of the following processes is most capable of slowing global warming?

QUESTION ID:132

Ecosytem is mainly concerned with

QUESTION ID:133

An organism with the ability to withstand changes to biotic and abiotic environmental factors is said to have __________

QUESTION ID:134

An undersea volcano in the Hawaiian Islands chain erupts, forming a new island in the Pacific Ocean. Over the course of time, which of these would most likely be the first species to survive on the new island?

QUESTION ID:135

A certain membrane protein is known to contain a single membrane spanning α-helix of length 72 amino acids. A scientist makes deletion mutants of this protein by reducing the length of this α-helix. What would be the minimum length of the α-helix that will still keep the membrane protein active?

QUESTION ID:136

A compound X inhibits an enzyme A competitively. A small concentration of X increases the enzyme's activity while higher concentration inhibits the activity significantly. This indicates that the enzyme

QUESTION ID:137

It is observed that in a multiple sequence alignment of homologous proteins, there is an absolutely conserved Glycine residue at a particular position. Crystal structure analysis of a representative protein shows that the Φ and Ψ angles of this residue occurs in the bottom right quadrant of the Ramachandran map. What is the evolutionary basis of conservation of this Glycine residue?

QUESTION ID:138

Which of the following terms will have to be taken into consideration for developing a potential function for docking simulation?

QUESTION ID:139

You are interested in a particular enzyme that is expressed in various human tissues. You have isolated the protein from the brain, liver and kidneys. After a lot of experimentation you determine that the liver protein has three domains A, B and C occurring in sequential order. Domain B is the catalytic domain and the other two have regulatory function. The kidney protein has only domains A and B in that order and the brain protein has domains B and C. You then proceed to determine the primary structure of the proteins using chemical methods and find that the amino acid sequence of the three domains are completely identical regardless of the source from which they were isolated. You then ask the question whether the three different proteins have all originated from the same gene by means of alternative splicing, or they could be products of different genes. Having the experimentally determined protein sequences and knowing the sequence of the human genome, which one of the following bioinformatic method you will use to answer the question above.

QUESTION ID:140

When p and q are lengths of sequences, the computational complexity of the Needleman and Wunsch algorithm is

QUESTION ID:141

Given the following Table of joint and marginal probabilities:
A1                          A2 
B1 0.24                 0.06
B2 0.21                 0.49
What is the value of P(B2|A1)? 

QUESTION ID:142

In the following figure, identify the parallel and anti-parallel p-strands in a protein structure 


QUESTION ID:143

The E. coli ribosomal release factor gene has an in-frame stop codon in the middle of the protein coding sequence. Mutating the stop codon in this gene makes the protein non-functional. Which one of the following is an adequate explanation for this observation?

QUESTION ID:144

A protein has three domains P, Q, and R, whereas another protein has three domains R, S and Q in that order. The preferred alignment algorithm for these two proteins will be

QUESTION ID:145

PAM120, PAM80 and PAM60 scoring matrices are most suitable for aligning sequences with

QUESTION ID:146

Which of the following descriptors would be a suitable set for QSAR analysis?

QUESTION ID:147

A closed circular plasmid of length 5000 base pairs is completely relaxed in aqueous buffer. If the plasmid is put in 80% ethanol so that it transforms to A-form DNA, what will be the status of its superhelicity?

QUESTION ID:148

How many edges meet at every branch node in a phylogenetic tree?

QUESTION ID:149

Which one of the following proteins can be used as a template for structure prediction by homology modelling?

QUESTION ID:150

In a pairwise alignment, an optimal alignment is the one that

QUESTION ID:151

Which one of the following correctly specifies the order of helices according to their radius?

QUESTION ID:152

In protein sequence analysis, Twilight zone refers to the evolutionary distance corresponding to about

QUESTION ID:153

The double-helical structure of DNA was first obtained using

QUESTION ID:154

Molecular dynamics differs from molecular mechanics by taking account of the

QUESTION ID:155

An organism has 10 pairs of chromosomes. If all the genes in this organism were mapped how many linkage groups would be observed?

QUESTION ID:156

In a genetic map two genes A and B are 60 cM apart. If an individual heterozygous for the two genes (AaBb) is test-crossed, what percentage of the progeny will have the genotype aabb?

QUESTION ID:157

The following can be used as DNA markers:
a. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
b. Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism
c. Randomly Amplified Polymorphic DNA
d. Microsatellites.
Which of the above can be used to distinguish a heterozygote from a homozygote.

QUESTION ID:158

The following events lead to changes in the DNA: a. Inversion b. Recombination c. Translocation d. Transition. Which of the above can lead to changes in the linkage map of an organism?

QUESTION ID:159

The following are terms which are used to describe sequence identities
a. Homologs b. Paralogs c. Orthologs d. Analogs.
Which of the above can be used to describe the relationship between a myoglobin gene from human and that from a mouse?

QUESTION ID:160

To make a linkage map in Drosophila, a three-point test cross was carried out. The parental cross was between homozygous flies of genotype a+c and +b+. The double crossovers obtained after the test cross had the genotype a++ and +cb. What is the order of the three genes?

QUESTION ID:161

7Mouse-human somatic cell hybridization led to a number of cell clones in which all mouse chromosomes are present, but only certain human chromosomes are retained. The results are summarized below. The table indicates three such clones. +' indicates presence of human chromosomes and -' for those that are absent. All other human chromosomes are absent. 

If an enzyme activity was present only in clone C, the allele

QUESTION ID:162

The following pedigree shows the inheritance of an autosomal recessive trait 
What is the probability that a child (C) born to individuals A and B will show the trait? 

QUESTION ID:163

Assume a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for alleles at an autosomal recessive disease locus. The frequency of mutant allele 'q' is 1/50. The fraction of the population representing carriers of the disease is closest to

QUESTION ID:164

A subset of informative SNPs that may be used as good representative of the rest of the SNPs is called as tag-SNPS. 
The following is a set of SNPs representing four haplotypes. Of the four shaded SNPs (a to d) which of the following combinations can be used as a tag-SNP for the four haplotypes?