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Previous Year Questions

TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

Mr. X, Mr. Y and Mr. Z went to a fruit shop to purchase apples and oranges at a fixed price for each orange and apple. The transaction amount for each purchase was noted. (I) Mr. X purchased 8 oranges and 4 apples (II) Mr. Y purchased 16 oranges and 8 apples (III) Mr. Z purchased 6 oranges and 5 apples. The individual prices of oranges and apples can be obtained by which one of the following?

QUESTION ID:2

A watch repair man noticed that the clock under repair showed 12 minutes slow at 10:00 PM. He made an adjustment and went home. Next day at 10:00 AM, the clock showed 10:12 AM. At what time the clock would have shown the correct time?

QUESTION ID:3

In a class of 15, the mean marks for a unit examination was 25 with a standard deviation 0. The correct interpretation is:

QUESTION ID:4

A person travelled 3 km towards west and continued walking 4 km towards north. The shortest distance from the point of starting to current position is

QUESTION ID:5

Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys? How many boys are there in that row ?

QUESTION ID:6

'Soldier' is related to 'Army' in the same way as 'Pupil' is related to ______

QUESTION ID:7

What should come in the place of 'X' in the following series: 3, 8, 6, 14, X, 20 ?

QUESTION ID:8

Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures. 

QUESTION ID:9

Based on the following assumptions
I. Conveyance allowance will not help in bringing punctuality.
II. Discipline and reward should always go hand in hand.
The CEO of a company issues the following statement: "In order to bring punctuality in our office, we must provide conveyance allowance to our employees." Which of the above assumptions is implied?

QUESTION ID:10

A man has some buffaloes and ducks. If the number of heads is 70 and the number of legs is 200, then the number of buffaloes is

QUESTION ID:11

Identify the pair that best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in Day : Week.

QUESTION ID:12

A 300 bp long B- form of plasmid DNA has 20 complete turns. This DNA molecule is:

QUESTION ID:13

Which one of the following sequences is a palindrome?

QUESTION ID:14

The nucleotide sequence in an mRNA is 5' UAA AUG ACC CAU UGG UCU CGU UAG AAA AAA 3'. Assuming that ribosomes could translate this mRNA, how many amino acids long would you expect the resulting polypeptide chain to be?

QUESTION ID:15

The difference between two numbers is 4 and the difference of their squares is 152. The sum of these two numbers is

QUESTION ID:16

One ml of NADH solution gave absorbance of 0.31 O.D. at 340 nm wavelength with 1 cm cuvette path length. Calculate the molarity of NADH in this solution. (ε340=6220 M-1 cm-1, mol wt. of NADH = 663 Da)

QUESTION ID:17

Number of molecules present in 1 ml of 250 μg per ml solution of 10 kDa protein will be - (Avogadro's number is 6.022 x 1023 molecules per mole)

QUESTION ID:18

A producer must select a pair consisting of one lead actor and one supporting actor from 6 candidates. The number of possible pairs that could be selected are:

QUESTION ID:19

Read the following passage and answer questions given at the end of the passage:
Although the schooling of fish is a familiar form of animal social behavior, how the school is formed and maintained is only beginning to be understood in detail. It had been thought that each fish maintains its position chiefly by means of vision. Our work has shown that, as each fish maintains its position, the lateral line, an organ sensitive to transitory changes in water displacement, is as important as vision. In each species a fish has a "preferred" distance and angle from its nearest neighbor. The ideal separation and bearing, however, are not maintained rigidly. The result is a probabilistic arrangement that appears like a random aggregation. The tendency of the fish to remain at the preferred distance and angle, however, serves to maintain the structure. Each fish having established its position uses its eyes and its lateral lines simultaneously to measure the speed of all the other fish in the school. It then adjusts its own speed to match a weighted average that emphasizes the contribution of nearby fish. According to the above passage, the structure of a fish school is dependent on which of the following?

QUESTION ID:20

Read the following passage and answer questions given at the end of the passage:
Although the schooling of fish is a familiar form of animal social behavior, how the school is formed and maintained is only beginning to be understood in detail. It had been thought that each fish maintains its position chiefly by means of vision. Our work has shown that, as each fish maintains its position, the lateral line, an organ sensitive to transitory changes in water displacement, is as important as vision. In each species a fish has a "preferred" distance and angle from its nearest neighbor. The ideal separation and bearing, however, are not maintained rigidly. The result is a probabilistic arrangement that appears like a random aggregation. The tendency of the fish to remain at the preferred distance and angle, however, serves to maintain the structure. Each fish having established its position uses its eyes and its lateral lines simultaneously to measure the speed of all the other fish in the school. It then adjusts its own speed to match a weighted average that emphasizes the contribution of nearby fish. The passage suggests that, after establishing its position in the school formation, an individual fish will subsequently

QUESTION ID:21

The Budh International circuit length is 5.1 km. One Formula 1 driver made 61.5 rounds and stopped the race. What is the net displacement from start light?

QUESTION ID:22

On a bright sunny day, a healthy person (with perfect eyesight) walking on a tar road saw the legs of a deer were "blurred or wavy" on the surface, far ahead of him. This unusual image formation is because of:

QUESTION ID:23

In which one of the following situations, the entropy may be maximum?

QUESTION ID:24

What is the pH of 10-8 M solution of HCl?

QUESTION ID:25

You have induced a rare mutation in a microbe which in special media has 50% higher specific growth rate (2/3rd the doubling time) of the normal cells. If the mutation frequency is 1X10-6, how many generations of the normal culture are needed for the populations of mutant and normal cells to be equal?

QUESTION ID:26

The two most common processes that lead to production of multiple functional proteins from same DNA sequences are:

QUESTION ID:27

Which of the following statements is false?

QUESTION ID:28

Which of the following statements about the glycolysis pathway in the cytosol is incorrect?

QUESTION ID:29

The trp operon is transcribed when

QUESTION ID:30

Glycosylation of protein occurs in the

QUESTION ID:31

PMSF (a serine protease inhibitor) inhibits which of the following:

QUESTION ID:32

Innate immunity is mediated by:

QUESTION ID:33

Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, while our closest relatives, chimpanzees, have 24. Chromosome studies indicate that at some point early in human evolution, two chromosomes simultaneously broke into a large portion and a small portion. The large parts combined to form a large chromosome, and the small parts combined to form a much smaller chromosome (which was subsequently lost). This important chromosomal change could best be described as

QUESTION ID:34

Transgenic organisms carry the transgene in:

QUESTION ID:35

What is a pseudogene?

QUESTION ID:36

An operon is a

QUESTION ID:37

Pyrosequencing uses which of the following:

QUESTION ID:38

Necrotrophic plant pathogens

QUESTION ID:39

Transgenic crops occupying the largest cultivated area in the world are tolerant to

QUESTION ID:40

Which one of the following techniques is used to detect SNPs?

QUESTION ID:41

Which one of the following phytochrome genes in Arabidopsis thaliana is responsible for hypocotyl elongation, flowering and seed germination?

QUESTION ID:42

Bread wheat Triticum aestivium is

QUESTION ID:43

The Cytokinin receptor is

QUESTION ID:44

The br2 (Brachytic 2 ) gene encodes a P-glycoprotein required for normal auxin transport in corn. Which one of the following describes the phenotype of br2 mutants?

QUESTION ID:45

A pipe having an outside diameter do and an inside diameter dI is used to transport a hot fluid. Heat transfer occurs radially outwards. The area for heat transfer per unit length of the pipe in given by

QUESTION ID:46

What is the generation time of a bacterial population that increases from 100 cells to 100,000 cells in 3 hours of growth?

QUESTION ID:47

Based on the flow behavior of fluids depicted in the following figure, choose the correct option. 


QUESTION ID:48

Cells are grown in a CSTR at Steady state at two dilution rates 0.1h-1 and 0.50 and the steady state concentrations are as follows:


If the inlet substrate concentration is 20 g/1, the cells follow Monod growth kinetics and product formation kinetics is modeled as both growth associated and non-growth associated kinetics given by the equation; then answer the following questions: The best estimate of maximum specific growth rate is: 

QUESTION ID:49

Which transparent bioplastic is produced by fermentation?

QUESTION ID:50

In any centrifugal separator, the separation efficiency is a function of

QUESTION ID:51

A green process of solvent extraction of biomolecules is

QUESTION ID:52

For a given fluid, as the pipe diameter increases, the pumping cost

QUESTION ID:53

The critical regulatory site in the circuit of emotions is:

QUESTION ID:54

Which one of the following is the most populous in the CNS?

QUESTION ID:55

Huntington's disease (HD) is caused by degeneration of neurons in the _____________________, leading clinically to involuntary movements (chorea), psychiatric symptoms and dementia.

QUESTION ID:56

The function of the pyloric sphincter is to prevent the backflow of material from the

QUESTION ID:57

Which of the following types of stem cells have a highest risk of teratoma formation?

QUESTION ID:58

Which one of the following cell types is the most characteristic component of the early stages of acute inflammatory reaction?

QUESTION ID:59

Severe combined immunodeficiency mice and nude mice differ in which of the following cellular components?

QUESTION ID:60

Smallest lipid containing enveloped animal virus belongs to

QUESTION ID:61

Which one of the following characteristic cells is found in granulomatous inflammation?

QUESTION ID:62

Role of diatoms in the oceans is

QUESTION ID:63

One of the free living aerobic nitrogen fixing bacterium in the Oceans is

QUESTION ID:64

The prominent group of microorganism involved in marine biocorrosion is

QUESTION ID:65

"Green house effect" with respect to global warming refers to

QUESTION ID:66

A high BOD value in aquatic environment is indicative of

QUESTION ID:67

Primary productivity at the climax stage of a succession is

QUESTION ID:68

You have isolated an Indian strain of a phage Φx174. You measure the nucleotide base content of the phage and find the following result: A- 40%, G- 10%. What are the likely percentage contents of T and C?

QUESTION ID:69

Cluster analysis in DNA microarray experiments refers to

QUESTION ID:70

A sample of a homo-multimeric protein containing one atom of iron per polypeptide which amounts to 0.56% by weight. Gel filtration indicates that the molecular weight of the multimer is 20 kDa. The maximum number of subunits that the protein may have is (Assume that the atomic weight of Fe is 56)

QUESTION ID:71

A tri-peptide has an amino acid composition (Lys, Phe, Pro). Dansyl chloride treatment produces Dns-Phe. The peptide is not cleaved by trypsin. The primary structure of the peptide is:

QUESTION ID:72

You have been given two unlabelled samples of PTH-Lysine which has been derivatized either in the α-NH2 or in the ε-NH2group. Which one of the following techniques may be used to distinguish between these two?

QUESTION ID:73

Polytene chromosome is generated due to

QUESTION ID:74

If a man of blood group AB marries a woman of blood group A whose father was of blood group O, to what different blood groups can this man and woman expect their children to belong?

QUESTION ID:75

A human male (XY) carrying an allele for a trait on the X chromosome is

QUESTION ID:76

Positive feedback is operating

QUESTION ID:77

roughly a cube of 15 μm on a side. Assume the density of cell is 1.03gm/ml and 20% of total weight of which is occupied by protein which is having 400 amino acids (mol wt=50,000g/mol). The total no. of molecules of that protein present in the hepatocyte will be

QUESTION ID:78

Process of formation of ATP from ADP while harvesting the photon is referred as

QUESTION ID:79

Match the Enzyme from Group A with the respective Class in Group B 


QUESTION ID:80

Match the Cofactor in Group A with appropriate 'group carried in activated form' in Group B


QUESTION ID:81

There are four conserved homologous motifs within the Bcl-2 family: BH1, BH2, BH3, and BH4; which among these is critical for Bcl-2 family heterodimerization?

QUESTION ID:82

What will be the charge of the protein having pH less than its pI value,?

QUESTION ID:83

Ammonium sulfate is the most suitable salt for protein precipitation, because

QUESTION ID:84

There are two protein molecules S and M. They have the same molecular weight, same charge and are structurally very similar but vary in certain domains. How will you separate S and M?

QUESTION ID:85

What provides the information necessary to specify the three dimensional shape of a protein?

QUESTION ID:86

Those portions of a transmembrane protein that cross the lipid bilayer usually consist of which secondary structures?

QUESTION ID:87

Which one among the following suits to protein families?

QUESTION ID:88

Which of the following determines the specificity of an antibody towards an antigen?

QUESTION ID:89

An allosteric inhibitor affects the active site of an enzyme by which of the following?

QUESTION ID:90

Phosphorylation controls the protein activity by which one of the following reasons?

QUESTION ID:91

Which of the following classes of enzymes add a phosphate group to another protein?

QUESTION ID:92

The reaction between dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to form fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is best described as

QUESTION ID:93

In the following options which has the most reduced form of carbon atom

QUESTION ID:94

The similarities between mitogenic stimulation by EGF and depolarization of the membrane of skeletal muscle cell by acetylcholine are

QUESTION ID:95

The KDEL sequence of the ER luminal proteins is responsible for

QUESTION ID:96

The direction of a chemical reaction is best predicted by

QUESTION ID:97

1g of rice flour from 1kg pack is mixed in 100 ml of sterile water. Aliquot from this solution was dispensed in test tube in order to make dilution of 5X to make final volume of 10 ml.1 ml of this solution was then poured on sterile nutrient agar plate. 5 colonies were observed after 24 hours of incubation. What is the viable count of bacterial cell in the rice flour sample?

QUESTION ID:98

Which of the following is false about the E. Coli Lac operon?

QUESTION ID:99

A substance exists in protonated form with a pKa 4.7. The percentage of the protonated form at pH 5.7 will be close to

QUESTION ID:100

Most of the dry mass in a tree trunk is originally derived from

QUESTION ID:101

You have examined 10000 cells in a culture and found that only 2 cells were in mitosis. Therefore the mitotic index is

QUESTION ID:102

In vitro coupled transcription and translation systems have been developed that use reticulocyte or wheat germ lysates to specifically translate a defined cDNA. Using this technique, you have translated a gene of your interest. However, when you run SDS-PAGE to check for the translated product, you see many bands from the top to the bottom of the gel. This could be due to the following reasons

QUESTION ID:103

Cell cycle controller is robust and adaptable. Additionally, it functions like a switch to ensure unidirectional cell cycle. This switch like behavior can be achieved by which one of the following mechanisms

QUESTION ID:104

Colchicine treatment blocks the polymerization of microtubules whereas Taxol blocks the depolymerization of microtubules. Treatment with either colchicine or taxol ultimately results in cell death. It is possible to achieve the same result even though the actions of both agents are opposite because they

QUESTION ID:105

In mammals, average lengths of transcription factor binding sequences are quite short i.e., ~7 base pairs. Hence, the frequency of occurrence of such sites in the entire genome is very high vis-a-vis the total number of genes present therein. However, the specificity of transcription is still achieved

QUESTION ID:106

Cell division cycle is divided into 4 phases G1, S, G2 and M. Standard eukaryotic cell cycles are of 12 hr or longer duration. Early embryonic cell cycles are extremely rapid having time duration of less than an hour. Which of the following phases are drastically reduced in embryonic cell cycles?

QUESTION ID:107

Recognition of intracellular pathogens in innate immune cells involves

QUESTION ID:108

In complementation tests, Benzer simultaneously infected E.coli cells with two phages, each of which carried a different mutation. What conclusion did he make when the progeny phage produced normal plaques? 

QUESTION ID:109

Discontinuous replication is a result of which property of DNA?

QUESTION ID:110

Primers are synthesized where on the lagging strand?

QUESTION ID:111

Which one of the following is the difference between the core promoter and the regulatory promoter?

QUESTION ID:112

In the trp operon, what happens to the trp repressor in the absence of tryptophan?

QUESTION ID:113

Which one of the following is the correct order of mutagenesis screen?

QUESTION ID:114

In area of high GC content of the human genome

QUESTION ID:115

The bases A,G,U,C,I (inosine) all occur at 5' position of anticodons in tRNAs. What is the minimum number of tRNAs required to recognize all codons of amino acids specified by codons with complete degeneracy?

QUESTION ID:116

Which of the following cell surface markers is used to identify the B cells from blood samples?

QUESTION ID:117

Administration of the DPT vaccine (diphtheria toxoid, pertussis products, and tetanus toxoid) would stimulate which of the following types of immunity?

QUESTION ID:118

Loss of which of the following classes of molecules on the surface of a tumor cell target would result in reduced susceptibility to killing by host immune cells?

QUESTION ID:119

Genes for 16S and 28S rRNA are transcribed by

QUESTION ID:120

In cancer condition, genes can be either repressed or over-expressed. Repression of genes by DNA methylation depends on

QUESTION ID:121

Which type of inhibition requires binding of one or more substrates to enzyme before the inhibitor can bind:

QUESTION ID:122

The genes, which remain confined to differential region of Ychromosome, are

QUESTION ID:123

Blastopore is

QUESTION ID:124

Arp, profilin, and villin are all

QUESTION ID:125

Cdk1 can only be fully active when

QUESTION ID:126

Which one of following statements about Bt cotton cultivation in India is NOT TRUE?

QUESTION ID:127

The latest version of Golden rice contains the following transgenes

QUESTION ID:128

Which one of the following studies is NOT needed for the biosafety assessment of GM crops?

QUESTION ID:129

Which one of the following steps is NOT true for production of artificial seeds by desiccated system?

QUESTION ID:130

Absorption of which one of the following nutrients in human intestine is interfered by phytate present in seeds?

QUESTION ID:131

The following are the key resources needed for efficient markerassisted germplasm enhancement:
i) Suitable characterised genetic markers and the necessary information for multiplexing
ii) High-density molecular maps and densely spread markers
iii) Established marker–trait associations for traits of agronomic importance
iv) High-throughput genotyping systems.
Now rank the key resources in the right order of requirement

QUESTION ID:132

Which one of the following methods is highly amenable for automation in most of the genotyping studies?

QUESTION ID:133

A patch clamp device is used to

QUESTION ID:134

Which one of the following is a component in the signaling pathway stimulated by receptor tyrosine kinases?

QUESTION ID:135

A mutation that inactivates the cytochrome b/f complex would

QUESTION ID:136

How many ATP molecules are required for the conversion of one N2 to 2NH4+ during biological nitrogen fixation?

QUESTION ID:137

Which of the following bacterial gene can be used for increasing starch content in potato?

QUESTION ID:138

Which one of the following options describe the term "Transplastomics" correctly?

QUESTION ID:139

The electrons from excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II are accepted first by

QUESTION ID:140

Which one of the following agents stimulates direct DNA uptake by protoplasts?

QUESTION ID:141

Transgenic plants expressing barnase or barstar genes are used for

QUESTION ID:142

The presence of polyadenylation signals in the wild type CRY1Ac gene from Bacillus thuringiensis prevented expression of appropriate amount of CRY1Ac protein in transgenic plants. What was done to overcome this problem?

QUESTION ID:143

The following are some of the genes and DNA sequences important for Agrobacterium-mediated transformation of plants:
i. gene conferring resistance to an antibiotic under a promoter expressed in plants
ii. T-DNA border sequences
iii. vir genes
iv. a reporter gene like β-glucuronidase under CaMV 35S promoter.
Which of the above features in combination given below are present on a binary vector and minimally required for transfer of T-DNA from Agrobacterium to plant cell and positive selection of the transformants?

QUESTION ID:144

Which one of the following hormone ratios usually promote shoot formation from callus?

QUESTION ID:145

Which one of the following dyes can be used to test the viability of cultured plant cells?

QUESTION ID:146

The two Vir proteins with nuclear localization signals which help in movement of T-DNA to plant nucleus are

QUESTION ID:147

Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE for Agrobacterium mediated plant transformation?

QUESTION ID:148

The breeding method for conventionally transferring cytoplasm from one genotype to the other is

QUESTION ID:149

Detaselling is a method of emasculation followed in ________________

QUESTION ID:150

A mechanism where stamens and pistils of hermaphrodite flowers may mature at different times leading to cross pollination is ______________________

QUESTION ID:151

Which one of the following amino acids is an example of a compatible osmolyte in response to a range of environmental stresses?

QUESTION ID:152

The principal signal molecule involved in induced systemic resistance in plants is

QUESTION ID:153

International treaty in the field of the protection of the new variety of plants and rights of the breeders is

QUESTION ID:154

The revised Genebank Standards for Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture were endorsed at the 14th Regular Session of the CGRFA, at

QUESTION ID:155

Gluconoacetobacter diazotrophicus is predominantly found in

QUESTION ID:156

A system in which there is exchange of energy but not of mass, is called a/an __________ system.

QUESTION ID:157

The second law of thermodynamics is concerned with

QUESTION ID:158

The oxygen transfer rate in an aerobic fermentation process does not depend on the

QUESTION ID:159

A culture is grown in a flask and after 120 h there were 1.0 x106cells/ml. After 270 h there were 1.0 x109 cells/ml, the specific growth rate of the organisms is

QUESTION ID:160

In a CSTR at steady state of volume 1L, the feed rate of a compound A is 1L/h. The exit concentration of A is 50% of the inlet concentration and the rate of conversion of A to products is a first order reaction given by dCA/dt= k CA . The value of k is

QUESTION ID:161

Which of the following processes provides the best effluent quality for water reuse?

QUESTION ID:162

In any centrifugal separator the separation efficiency is a…………………..

QUESTION ID:163

In aqueous two phase separation systems, a phase diagram is prepared at constant :

QUESTION ID:164

For preparative chromatography, a simple scale up principle which can be used without significantly affecting resolution by

QUESTION ID:165

Penicillin is extracted using isoamylacetate in a counter current extractor. Before the extraction, pH of the aqueous solution is adjusted to pH 2.5. This is done as penicillin

QUESTION ID:166

In an adsorption column for the separation of antibiotics, a sharp break through curve indicates

QUESTION ID:167

Which of the following is not a desired property of the membranes used for separation

QUESTION ID:168

Identify which of the following is NOT considered as a criterion for scale up of fermentation processes

QUESTION ID:169

If agitator energy input per unit volume of the fermentor is kept constant during scale up, the factor that would always decrease upon increasing size of the fermenter is

QUESTION ID:170

For a given thickness of the head closing the end of cylindrical vessel, which of the following can withstand the highest pressure ?

QUESTION ID:171

A mechanical seal is used for

QUESTION ID:172

Which of the following elements is not included in the scope of market analysis ?

QUESTION ID:173

"Break-even point" is the point of intersection of

QUESTION ID:174

Fumaric acid is produced from Malic acid using Fumarase. Calculate standard heat of reaction for the following transformation:
C4H6O5 → C4H4O4 + H2O
Given: (Δhc°)malic acid= -1328.8 kJ/gmol (Δhc°)Fumaric acid= -1334.0 kJ/gmol

QUESTION ID:175

Air at 104.2 kPa at 37°C with a relative humidity of 60% is cooled at the same pressure to 29°C. The cooled air has a higher________

QUESTION ID:176

Which of the following only permits uni-directional fluid flow?

QUESTION ID:177

The internal temperature in the refrigerator is 280 K and the external temperature is 300K. The theoretical maximum value of coefficient of performance is

QUESTION ID:178

Concentrated feeding in a Fed batch system is used to get

QUESTION ID:179

A digestible linear polysaccharide abundantly found in cereals having α-1,4 linkages in its structure is

QUESTION ID:180

A prominent prebiotic substance is:

QUESTION ID:181

Considering the importance of moisture content of food in promoting microbial growth, which one of the following statements is true

QUESTION ID:182

The rate of cell disintegration in high pressure homogenizer primarily depends on the

QUESTION ID:183

Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

QUESTION ID:184

In a counter current single pass heat exchanger, cooling water enter at 0°C and leaves at 20°C. Hot water enters from the other side at 60°C at a flow rate which is half of the cooling water flow rate. Assuming there is no heat loss, what is the Log Mean Temperature Difference?

QUESTION ID:185

The Pyramidal neurons in the cerebral cortex are found in

QUESTION ID:186

Which one of the following types of glial cells participate in the reuptake mechanism of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft?

QUESTION ID:187

Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by

QUESTION ID:188

Saccadic eye movement

QUESTION ID:189

Which part of the brain integrates autonomic, endocrine and behavioral responses?

QUESTION ID:190

The patterning of the nervous system along the anterior-posterior axis in embryo is controlled by

QUESTION ID:191

All the neurons in the basal ganglionic nuclei are inhibitory except in

QUESTION ID:192

Tay–Sachs disease is due to a defect in the enzyme ________________ and ________________ as its substrate:

QUESTION ID:193

Which one of the following causes stunted growth and severe fasting hypoglycemia with ketonuria?

QUESTION ID:194

Which one of the following techniques is of highest resolution for detection of chromosomal alterations?

QUESTION ID:195

E. coli bacteria are beneficial to humans because they

QUESTION ID:196

Which of the following reporters can be used for magnetic resonance imaging?

QUESTION ID:197

Which one of the following statements forms the basis for the increased circulatory life time for a sialylated recombinant therapeutic protein?

QUESTION ID:198

Which one of the following plays a role in changing the antigen binding site of a B cell after antigenic stimulation?

QUESTION ID:199

Rostral is an anatomical term meaning towards the

QUESTION ID:200

An enzyme having Km values of 2.5x10-5M and 2.5x10-7M for the substrates S1 and S2, respectively, is added to a solution consisting of 100 nano moles of both S1 and S2. Which of the following statement is correct?

QUESTION ID:201

Phlebitis is the inflammation of

QUESTION ID:202

Mucosal immunity is preferentially stimulated if an immunogen is administered

QUESTION ID:203

An example of lysogeny in animals could be

QUESTION ID:204

Which one of the following is the earliest site of hematopoiesis in the embryo?

QUESTION ID:205

Which one of the following viruses contains single stranded DNA as the genome?

QUESTION ID:206

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the drugs that affect the stability of microtubules used in cancer chemotherapy

QUESTION ID:207

Therapies of lysosomal and peroxisomal disorders that have shown success in clinical trials with enzyme replacement therapy exclude:

QUESTION ID:208

Lysosomes are thought to play an important role in which of the following processes?

QUESTION ID:209

COFAL test is used for the diagnosis of

QUESTION ID:210

Which one of the following animals has a cheek pouch in their mouth and used as an animal model for studying oral cancer?

QUESTION ID:211

Which one of the following protozoan is transmitted by ingestion of ticks?

QUESTION ID:212

The demyelination of the central nervous system white matter produced by the canine distemper virus is an example of:

QUESTION ID:213

Which one of the following clinical conditions does not have exudates?

QUESTION ID:214

BioSteel is a trademark name for a high-strength based fiber material which was made from the recombinant spider silk-like protein extracted from the milk of transgenic

QUESTION ID:215

Which of the following protozoan parasites replicates inside a non nucleated human cell

QUESTION ID:216

Hypophysation refers to

QUESTION ID:217

The term "Mitotic gynogen" refers to

QUESTION ID:218

In animal cell culture, CO2 incubator is used for maintaining open culture system. What is the function of CO2?

QUESTION ID:219

Which one of the following is a fish cell line?

QUESTION ID:220

Photosynthetic sulphur bacteria get hydrogen ions for CO2 reduction  from

QUESTION ID:221

White spot syndrome virus is transmitted

QUESTION ID:222

Ziconotide, a synthetic bioactive peptide originally isolated from the marine snail Conus magus is used as an

QUESTION ID:223

Which of the following is a bioluminescent bacterium?

QUESTION ID:224

The site of production of Gonad Inhibiting Hormone (GIH) in crustaceans is

QUESTION ID:225

In bony fishes, Immunoglobulin IgM is secreted as a

QUESTION ID:226

Which one of the following electron acceptors used by the bacteria is mainly responsible for microbial induction of marine corrosion?

QUESTION ID:227

Which one of the following methods is used to identify the sites in a genome that are occupied in vivo by a gene regulatory protein?

QUESTION ID:228

The class of immunoglobulin found in fish is

QUESTION ID:229

Besides nitrogen fixation the heterocysts of cyanobacteria also contribute to

QUESTION ID:230

The enzyme involved in hydrogen production from biophotolysis in green algae is

QUESTION ID:231

The compound used for the preferential removal of diatoms from microalgal cultures is

QUESTION ID:232

The overall reaction for microbial conversion of glucose to L-glutamic acid is: 
What mass of oxygen is required to produce 49 g glutamic acid?  Molecular weight of glutamic acid=147 

QUESTION ID:233

Which one of the following databases allows users to search marine species datasets from all of the world's oceans?

QUESTION ID:234

N2 fixation requires large amounts of energy, since there is high activation energy for breaking the triple bond of the N2. If so, how many molecules of ATP are required for reducing one molecule of nitrogen?

QUESTION ID:235

Marine environment has abundance of osmotrophs. Osmotrophs are defined as organisms which obtains nutrients and energy via passive or active transport of

QUESTION ID:236

Most endangered species are victims of

QUESTION ID:237

The Ozone layer saves from lethal UV. It mainly absorbs-

QUESTION ID:238

Total energy available for work at equilibrium is termed as

QUESTION ID:239

Global warming is due to:

QUESTION ID:240

In a pond ecosystem, net productivity by zooplankton is 'p' and biomass consumed by small fishes is 'c', then the ratio of c/p is termed as

QUESTION ID:241

Two species or populations are competing for the exact same resources, and one will eventually exclude the other. What is the technical term for this?

QUESTION ID:242

Which of the following processes is most capable of slowing global warming?

QUESTION ID:243

Ecosytem is mainly concerned with

QUESTION ID:244

An organism with the ability to withstand changes to biotic and abiotic environmental factors is said to have __________

QUESTION ID:245

An undersea volcano in the Hawaiian Islands chain erupts, forming a new island in the Pacific Ocean. Over the course of time, which of these would most likely be the first species to survive on the new island?

QUESTION ID:246

A certain membrane protein is known to contain a single membrane spanning α-helix of length 72 amino acids. A scientist makes deletion mutants of this protein by reducing the length of this α-helix. What would be the minimum length of the α-helix that will still keep the membrane protein active?

QUESTION ID:247

A compound X inhibits an enzyme A competitively. A small concentration of X increases the enzyme's activity while higher concentration inhibits the activity significantly. This indicates that the enzyme

QUESTION ID:248

It is observed that in a multiple sequence alignment of homologous proteins, there is an absolutely conserved Glycine residue at a particular position. Crystal structure analysis of a representative protein shows that the Φ and Ψ angles of this residue occurs in the bottom right quadrant of the Ramachandran map. What is the evolutionary basis of conservation of this Glycine residue?

QUESTION ID:249

Which of the following terms will have to be taken into consideration for developing a potential function for docking simulation?

QUESTION ID:250

You are interested in a particular enzyme that is expressed in various human tissues. You have isolated the protein from the brain, liver and kidneys. After a lot of experimentation you determine that the liver protein has three domains A, B and C occurring in sequential order. Domain B is the catalytic domain and the other two have regulatory function. The kidney protein has only domains A and B in that order and the brain protein has domains B and C. You then proceed to determine the primary structure of the proteins using chemical methods and find that the amino acid sequence of the three domains are completely identical regardless of the source from which they were isolated. You then ask the question whether the three different proteins have all originated from the same gene by means of alternative splicing, or they could be products of different genes. Having the experimentally determined protein sequences and knowing the sequence of the human genome, which one of the following bioinformatic method you will use to answer the question above.

QUESTION ID:251

When p and q are lengths of sequences, the computational complexity of the Needleman and Wunsch algorithm is

QUESTION ID:252

Given the following Table of joint and marginal probabilities:
A1                          A2 
B1 0.24                 0.06
B2 0.21                 0.49
What is the value of P(B2|A1)? 

QUESTION ID:253

In the following figure, identify the parallel and anti-parallel p-strands in a protein structure 


QUESTION ID:254

The E. coli ribosomal release factor gene has an in-frame stop codon in the middle of the protein coding sequence. Mutating the stop codon in this gene makes the protein non-functional. Which one of the following is an adequate explanation for this observation?

QUESTION ID:255

A protein has three domains P, Q, and R, whereas another protein has three domains R, S and Q in that order. The preferred alignment algorithm for these two proteins will be

QUESTION ID:256

PAM120, PAM80 and PAM60 scoring matrices are most suitable for aligning sequences with

QUESTION ID:257

Which of the following descriptors would be a suitable set for QSAR analysis?

QUESTION ID:258

A closed circular plasmid of length 5000 base pairs is completely relaxed in aqueous buffer. If the plasmid is put in 80% ethanol so that it transforms to A-form DNA, what will be the status of its superhelicity?

QUESTION ID:259

How many edges meet at every branch node in a phylogenetic tree?

QUESTION ID:260

Which one of the following proteins can be used as a template for structure prediction by homology modelling?

QUESTION ID:261

In a pairwise alignment, an optimal alignment is the one that

QUESTION ID:262

Which one of the following correctly specifies the order of helices according to their radius?

QUESTION ID:263

In protein sequence analysis, Twilight zone refers to the evolutionary distance corresponding to about

QUESTION ID:264

The double-helical structure of DNA was first obtained using

QUESTION ID:265

Molecular dynamics differs from molecular mechanics by taking account of the

QUESTION ID:266

An organism has 10 pairs of chromosomes. If all the genes in this organism were mapped how many linkage groups would be observed?

QUESTION ID:267

In a genetic map two genes A and B are 60 cM apart. If an individual heterozygous for the two genes (AaBb) is test-crossed, what percentage of the progeny will have the genotype aabb?

QUESTION ID:268

The following can be used as DNA markers:
a. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
b. Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism
c. Randomly Amplified Polymorphic DNA
d. Microsatellites.
Which of the above can be used to distinguish a heterozygote from a homozygote.

QUESTION ID:269

The following events lead to changes in the DNA: a. Inversion b. Recombination c. Translocation d. Transition. Which of the above can lead to changes in the linkage map of an organism?

QUESTION ID:270

The following are terms which are used to describe sequence identities
a. Homologs b. Paralogs c. Orthologs d. Analogs.
Which of the above can be used to describe the relationship between a myoglobin gene from human and that from a mouse?

QUESTION ID:271

To make a linkage map in Drosophila, a three-point test cross was carried out. The parental cross was between homozygous flies of genotype a+c and +b+. The double crossovers obtained after the test cross had the genotype a++ and +cb. What is the order of the three genes?

QUESTION ID:272

7Mouse-human somatic cell hybridization led to a number of cell clones in which all mouse chromosomes are present, but only certain human chromosomes are retained. The results are summarized below. The table indicates three such clones. +' indicates presence of human chromosomes and -' for those that are absent. All other human chromosomes are absent. 

If an enzyme activity was present only in clone C, the allele

QUESTION ID:273

The following pedigree shows the inheritance of an autosomal recessive trait 
What is the probability that a child (C) born to individuals A and B will show the trait? 

QUESTION ID:274

Assume a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for alleles at an autosomal recessive disease locus. The frequency of mutant allele 'q' is 1/50. The fraction of the population representing carriers of the disease is closest to

QUESTION ID:275

A subset of informative SNPs that may be used as good representative of the rest of the SNPs is called as tag-SNPS. 
The following is a set of SNPs representing four haplotypes. Of the four shaded SNPs (a to d) which of the following combinations can be used as a tag-SNP for the four haplotypes?