Previous Year Questions

QUESTION ID:2

The opportunity that beckons India is to make optimal use of technology, management, entrepreneurship, and investments to overcome the challenges of this decade and beyond. Yesterday's goals cannot be a benchmark as India contemplates graduating to the company of the developed nations of the world. Our targets must be higher, our coverage more inclusive and above all, the methods to achieve must be unique.

Since Independence, India as a nation has indeed made massive progress in almost every social and economic field. But, as we strive to have an economically developed nation by 2020, each incremental step opens up new vistas before us. After every few pages, we mark our place in history, heading for a new chapter of challenges not experienced earlier.

Following a steady decline in world income - from about 33 per cent in 0 CE to around 25 per cent in 1600 CE - India's share declined even further during the British Raj, falling sharply from about 16 per cent in 1820 CE, to less than 4 per cent at the time of Independence. Since Independence, there has been a steady rise in income, and the per capita national product has increased by more than five times, from Rs. 5,700 in 1950 to about Rs. 32,000 in 2008, and today, India's share in world income - purchasing power parity (PPP) - stands at about 6.3 per cent. But while the economy has been growing steadily and poverty, as a percentage, declining steadily, the absolute number of people below the poverty line has been constant.

Which word in the given passage means "without interruption"? 

QUESTION ID:3

The opportunity that beckons India is to make optimal use of technology, management, entrepreneurship, and investments to overcome the challenges of this decade and beyond. Yesterday's goals cannot be a benchmark as India contemplates graduating to the company of the developed nations of the world. Our targets must be higher, our coverage more inclusive and above all, the methods to achieve must be unique.

Since Independence, India as a nation has indeed made massive progress in almost every social and economic field. But, as we strive to have an economically developed nation by 2020, each incremental step opens up new vistas before us. After every few pages, we mark our place in history, heading for a new chapter of challenges not experienced earlier.

Following a steady decline in world income - from about 33 per cent in 0 CE to around 25 per cent in 1600 CE - India's share declined even further during the British Raj, falling sharply from about 16 per cent in 1820 CE, to less than 4 per cent at the time of Independence. Since Independence, there has been a steady rise in income, and the per capita national product has increased by more than five times, from Rs. 5,700 in 1950 to about Rs. 32,000 in 2008, and today, India's share in world income - purchasing power parity (PPP) - stands at about 6.3 per cent. But while the economy has been growing steadily and poverty, as a percentage, declining steadily, the absolute number of people below the poverty line has been constant.

What does India need to become a developed nation?

(A) Take rapid and incremental steps towards progress

(B) Contemplate on only yesterday's goals

(C) Make thoughtful usage of technology in various fields

(D) Work steadily on economic indicators

(E) Set higher, inclusive and unique targets

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:4

The opportunity that beckons India is to make optimal use of technology, management, entrepreneurship, and investments to overcome the challenges of this decade and beyond. Yesterday's goals cannot be a benchmark as India contemplates graduating to the company of the developed nations of the world. Our targets must be higher, our coverage more inclusive and above all, the methods to achieve must be unique.

Since Independence, India as a nation has indeed made massive progress in almost every social and economic field. But, as we strive to have an economically developed nation by 2020, each incremental step opens up new vistas before us. After every few pages, we mark our place in history, heading for a new chapter of challenges not experienced earlier.

Following a steady decline in world income - from about 33 per cent in 0 CE to around 25 per cent in 1600 CE - India's share declined even further during the British Raj, falling sharply from about 16 per cent in 1820 CE, to less than 4 per cent at the time of Independence. Since Independence, there has been a steady rise in income, and the per capita national product has increased by more than five times, from Rs. 5,700 in 1950 to about Rs. 32,000 in 2008, and today, India's share in world income - purchasing power parity (PPP) - stands at about 6.3 per cent. But while the economy has been growing steadily and poverty, as a percentage, declining steadily, the absolute number of people below the poverty line has been constant.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Since Independence, there has been a steady rise in income and the increase of per capita national product by five times from ₹ 5,700 in 1947 to about ₹ 32,000 in 2008.

Statement II: Poverty has declined while the economy has grown but the absolute number of people below poverty line has been constant.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:5

The opportunity that beckons India is to make optimal use of technology, management, entrepreneurship, and investments to overcome the challenges of this decade and beyond. Yesterday's goals cannot be a benchmark as India contemplates graduating to the company of the developed nations of the world. Our targets must be higher, our coverage more inclusive and above all, the methods to achieve must be unique.

Since Independence, India as a nation has indeed made massive progress in almost every social and economic field. But, as we strive to have an economically developed nation by 2020, each incremental step opens up new vistas before us. After every few pages, we mark our place in history, heading for a new chapter of challenges not experienced earlier.

Following a steady decline in world income - from about 33 per cent in 0 CE to around 25 per cent in 1600 CE - India's share declined even further during the British Raj, falling sharply from about 16 per cent in 1820 CE, to less than 4 per cent at the time of Independence. Since Independence, there has been a steady rise in income, and the per capita national product has increased by more than five times, from Rs. 5,700 in 1950 to about Rs. 32,000 in 2008, and today, India's share in world income - purchasing power parity (PPP) - stands at about 6.3 per cent. But while the economy has been growing steadily and poverty, as a percentage, declining steadily, the absolute number of people below the poverty line has been constant.

Read the given passage and Match List I with List II.

QUESTION ID:6

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

Let us discuss coal, another fossil fuel. Even though India has abundant quantities of coal, it is constrained by regional locations, a high ash content that affects the thermal efficiency of our power plants, besides which there are also environmental concerns. Thus, a movement towards energy independence would demand accelerated work in the production of energy from the coal sector through integrated gasification and a combined cycle route.

In 2030, the total energy requirement of the nation is expected to be 4,00,000 MW. By that time, if we were to follow the present route, the power generated from coal-based power plants would increase from the existing 80,000 MW to 2,00,000 MW. This would demand a significant build-up of thermal power stations and a large-scale expansion of coal fields, leading, naturally, to much higher levels of pollution.

The hydel capacity generated through normal water sources and by the interlinking of rivers is expected to contribute an additional 50,000 MW. Numerous large-scale solar energy farms with a capacity of hundreds of megawatts could together contribute around 55,000 MW. The nuclear power plants should have a target of 50,000 MW of power. At least 64,000 MW of electrical power should come from wind energy. The balance 51,000 MW has to be generated through conventional thermal plants, through coal and gas, and renewable sources of energy such as biomass, through burning municipal solid waste and solar thermal power. The most significant aspect, however, is that the power generated through renewable energy technologies has to be increased to 28 per cent from the present 5 per cent.

To meet the energy requirements of the nation, the power generation through renewable energy technologies should be:

QUESTION ID:7

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

Let us discuss coal, another fossil fuel. Even though India has abundant quantities of coal, it is constrained by regional locations, a high ash content that affects the thermal efficiency of our power plants, besides which there are also environmental concerns. Thus, a movement towards energy independence would demand accelerated work in the production of energy from the coal sector through integrated gasification and a combined cycle route.

In 2030, the total energy requirement of the nation is expected to be 4,00,000 MW. By that time, if we were to follow the present route, the power generated from coal-based power plants would increase from the existing 80,000 MW to 2,00,000 MW. This would demand a significant build-up of thermal power stations and a large-scale expansion of coal fields, leading, naturally, to much higher levels of pollution.

The hydel capacity generated through normal water sources and by the interlinking of rivers is expected to contribute an additional 50,000 MW. Numerous large-scale solar energy farms with a capacity of hundreds of megawatts could together contribute around 55,000 MW. The nuclear power plants should have a target of 50,000 MW of power. At least 64,000 MW of electrical power should come from wind energy. The balance 51,000 MW has to be generated through conventional thermal plants, through coal and gas, and renewable sources of energy such as biomass, through burning municipal solid waste and solar thermal power. The most significant aspect, however, is that the power generated through renewable energy technologies has to be increased to 28 per cent from the present 5 per cent.

Which word in the passage is the antonym of “rare”?

QUESTION ID:8

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

Let us discuss coal, another fossil fuel. Even though India has abundant quantities of coal, it is constrained by regional locations, a high ash content that affects the thermal efficiency of our power plants, besides which there are also environmental concerns. Thus, a movement towards energy independence would demand accelerated work in the production of energy from the coal sector through integrated gasification and a combined cycle route.

In 2030, the total energy requirement of the nation is expected to be 4,00,000 MW. By that time, if we were to follow the present route, the power generated from coal-based power plants would increase from the existing 80,000 MW to 2,00,000 MW. This would demand a significant build-up of thermal power stations and a large-scale expansion of coal fields, leading, naturally, to much higher levels of pollution.

The hydel capacity generated through normal water sources and by the interlinking of rivers is expected to contribute an additional 50,000 MW. Numerous large-scale solar energy farms with a capacity of hundreds of megawatts could together contribute around 55,000 MW. The nuclear power plants should have a target of 50,000 MW of power. At least 64,000 MW of electrical power should come from wind energy. The balance 51,000 MW has to be generated through conventional thermal plants, through coal and gas, and renewable sources of energy such as biomass, through burning municipal solid waste and solar thermal power. The most significant aspect, however, is that the power generated through renewable energy technologies has to be increased to 28 per cent from the present 5 per cent.

Which of the following factor(s) are a reason behind the constrained utilization of coal as a fuel for generating energy?

(A) low thermal efficiency of our power plants
(B) regional locations
(C) lack of integrated gasification
(D) high ash content
(E) environmental concerns

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:9

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

Let us discuss coal, another fossil fuel. Even though India has abundant quantities of coal, it is constrained by regional locations, a high ash content that affects the thermal efficiency of our power plants, besides which there are also environmental concerns. Thus, a movement towards energy independence would demand accelerated work in the production of energy from the coal sector through integrated gasification and a combined cycle route.

In 2030, the total energy requirement of the nation is expected to be 4,00,000 MW. By that time, if we were to follow the present route, the power generated from coal-based power plants would increase from the existing 80,000 MW to 2,00,000 MW. This would demand a significant build-up of thermal power stations and a large-scale expansion of coal fields, leading, naturally, to much higher levels of pollution.

The hydel capacity generated through normal water sources and by the interlinking of rivers is expected to contribute an additional 50,000 MW. Numerous large-scale solar energy farms with a capacity of hundreds of megawatts could together contribute around 55,000 MW. The nuclear power plants should have a target of 50,000 MW of power. At least 64,000 MW of electrical power should come from wind energy. The balance 51,000 MW has to be generated through conventional thermal plants, through coal and gas, and renewable sources of energy such as biomass, through burning municipal solid waste and solar thermal power. The most significant aspect, however, is that the power generated through renewable energy technologies has to be increased to 28 per cent from the present 5 per cent.

Given below are two statements that are based on the passage mentioned above:

Statement I: To meet the expected energy requirements in 2030, the power generation through renewable energy technologies has to be increased by percent.

Statement II: The balance 51,000 MW will be generated through conventional thermal plants.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:10

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

Let us discuss coal, another fossil fuel. Even though India has abundant quantities of coal, it is constrained by regional locations, a high ash content that affects the thermal efficiency of our power plants, besides which there are also environmental concerns. Thus, a movement towards energy independence would demand accelerated work in the production of energy from the coal sector through integrated gasification and a combined cycle route.

In 2030, the total energy requirement of the nation is expected to be 4,00,000 MW. By that time, if we were to follow the present route, the power generated from coal-based power plants would increase from the existing 80,000 MW to 2,00,000 MW. This would demand a significant build-up of thermal power stations and a large-scale expansion of coal fields, leading, naturally, to much higher levels of pollution.

The hydel capacity generated through normal water sources and by the interlinking of rivers is expected to contribute an additional 50,000 MW. Numerous large-scale solar energy farms with a capacity of hundreds of megawatts could together contribute around 55,000 MW. The nuclear power plants should have a target of 50,000 MW of power. At least 64,000 MW of electrical power should come from wind energy. The balance 51,000 MW has to be generated through conventional thermal plants, through coal and gas, and renewable sources of energy such as biomass, through burning municipal solid waste and solar thermal power. The most significant aspect, however, is that the power generated through renewable energy technologies has to be increased to 28 per cent from the present 5 per cent.

Match List I with List II on the basis of the passage mentioned above:

Choose the correct options given below:

QUESTION ID:11

If it was Saturday on 17th December, 2002, what was the day on 26th December 2004?

QUESTION ID:12

Study the given pattern and select the number that can replace question mark in the given matrix:

QUESTION ID:13

If in a certain code language 'FRIEND' is written as 'JPMCRB', 'UNCLE' is written as 'YLGJI', then what will be the code for 'LEADER'?

QUESTION ID:14

Find the missing number from the given alternatives.

QUESTION ID:15

If,
P × Q means P is the husband of Q.
P + Q means P is the father of Q.
P − Q means P is the mother of Q.
P ÷ Q means P is the sister of Q.

Then, which of the following relations shows that C is the paternal grandfather of D?

QUESTION ID:16

In this question a number series is given. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series.

856, 849, 824, 763, ?, 431

QUESTION ID:17

Sunita starts from her home towards North. After walking 15 meters, she turned to her right and walked 55 meters. Then she turned to her left and after walking a distance of 20 meters turned to her left again and walked 67 meters. What is the shortest distance between her home and final position and what is the direction of final position with respect to her home?

QUESTION ID:18

Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting on a straight bench all facing north. There are exactly three friends sitting between A and B. D is sitting to the left of B. Only one friend is sitting to the left of A. B is sitting immediately left of F. Only one friend is sitting between D and A. Who is sitting at the extreme right end?

QUESTION ID:19

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

BSNT : YXGC :: MXRV : ? :: FPCY : CUVH

QUESTION ID:20

A cube is painted black on two adjacent faces and on one opposite face, yellow on two opposite faces and green on the remaining face. It is then cut into 64 equal cubes. How many cubes have one black coloured face only?

QUESTION ID:21

In the given question, two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:
All Hammers are pliers. All screws are pliers.

Conclusions:
I. Some hammers are screws.
II. Some screws are hammers is a possibility.

QUESTION ID:22

In this question there is a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.

Statement:
Rohan always studies from the reference books of publication X for his competitive exams.

Assumptions:
I. Many of the questions asked in competitive exams are from the reference books of publication X.
II. Studying from reference books are necessary for competitive exams.

QUESTION ID:23

Following table provides the marks obtained by four friends in five different subjects. Maximum marks in each subject are 100.

QUESTION ID:24

In this question there is a statement, followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Statement:
A large number of people got ill due to eating cut fruits from roadside shops.

Courses of Action:
I. Municipal corporation should penalize the roadside vendors if they sell cut fruits.
II. People should be made aware about the dangers of eating cut fruits sold in open.

QUESTION ID:25

The following pie chart show the distribution of students appearing in the Board examination (Chart I) and the students who have passed the Board examination (Chart II) from the different schools A, B, C, D and E.

Total number of students appeared = 1800

Which school has the lowest percentage of students passed with respect to those appeared?

QUESTION ID:26

How many rectangles are there in the given figure?

QUESTION ID:27

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

QUESTION ID:28

Select the box that cannot be formed by folding the given unfolded box.

QUESTION ID:29

Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line AB.

QUESTION ID:30

Study the Venn diagram and answer the question. The alphabets and numbers in different sections indicate the number of persons who play different games in a school.

If the total number of persons who play games in the school is 108 and the number of persons who play at least two games is 54, find the number of persons who play all the three games.

QUESTION ID:31

QUESTION ID:32

Direction: Refer the chart below and answer the question. What is annual average rate of increase in the ice-cream market from 1996 to 2001?

QUESTION ID:33

Statement I : The number of squares in the figure.

Statement II : The number of triangles in the figure.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:34

Statement I : The mirror-image of U T Z F Y 6 K H is

Statement II : The water-image of D 6 Z 7 F 4 is

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:35

If ‘−’ means ‘÷’, means ‘+’, ‘÷’ means ‘×’, ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘×’ means ‘+’, then which of the following equations is correct?

QUESTION ID:36

Complete the figure matrix.

QUESTION ID:37

A cube whose two adjacent faces are coloured is cut into 64 identical small cubes. How many of these small cubes are not coloured at all?

QUESTION ID:38

A dealer marks his goods at 20% above the cost price and allows a discount of 16% on the marked price. What is his gain percentage?

QUESTION ID:39

if 2a=3b=4c=6d, then value of  is

QUESTION ID:40

In trapezium ABCD, in which AB ∥ DC,

∠A = 130° and ∠B = 110°. What is the value of ∠C − ∠D ?

QUESTION ID:41

In a town, 65% people watched the news on television, 40% read a newspaper and 25% read a newspaper and watched the news on television also. What percent of the people neither watched the news on television nor read a newspaper?

QUESTION ID:42

(A) The missing term of the series
4, 8, 28, 80, 244, ?, is 728.

(B) The missing term of the alphabet series
UPI, SHJ, ODP, MBQ, ? is IAV.

(C) The missing term of the letter – number series
Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, ? is Y88B.

(D) The missing term of the letter – number series
D–4, F–6, H–8, J–10, ? is L–22.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:43

The ratio of the ages of man and his wife is 4 : 3. After 4 years, this ratio will be 9 : 7. If at the time of their marriage, the ratio of their ages was 5 : 3, then how many years ago were they married?

QUESTION ID:44

Read the following information and answer the question:

Alka is older than Mala. Gopal is older than Mala but younger than Alka. Kapil is younger than Ram and Mala. Mala is older than Ram.

(A) Mala’s age is between Gopal and Ram.
(B) Gopal age is between Mala and Kapil.
(C) Mala lies in the middle.
(D) Alka is the youngest.
(E) Kapil is the eldest.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:45

Direction : Study the table carefully and answer the question : Number of washing machines and refrigerators manufactured by a company.

Find, what was the difference in the total number of washing machines and refrigerators manufactured in 2006 to the total number of washing machines and refrigerators manufactured in 2008?

QUESTION ID:46

Given below are two statements :

Statement I: A compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 10% per annum is ₹ 525. The simple interest on the same sum for double the time at half the rate percent per annum is ₹ 500.

Statement II: The respective ratio of milk and water in the mixture is 4 : 3. If 6 litres of water is added to this mixture, the respective ratio of milk and water becomes 8 : 7, then the quantity of milk in the original mixture is 24 litres.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options :

QUESTION ID:47

if  then what is the value of  ?

QUESTION ID:48

A sector of a circle of radius 6 cm is formed with central angle 60°. What will be its area (in cm²)? (Here ‘π’ refers to 22/7)

QUESTION ID:49

How many four digit numbers can be formed by using the digits 0, 1, 3, 7 if repetition of digits are allowed? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:50

What is the difference between simple interest and compound interest on sum ₹10,000 at the rate of 10% per annum for the period of two years?

QUESTION ID:51

A short microtubular organelle projecting into extracellular medium used for locomotion

QUESTION ID:52

Organelle that is involved in carbohydrate digestion, autophagy, hydrolysis etc.

QUESTION ID:53

Microtubular protein having ATPase activity and required for movement

QUESTION ID:54

Which of the following principle of bioethics emphasizes the importance of minimizing harm and maximizing benefits in health care decisions?

QUESTION ID:55

Which of the following ethical principle supports the idea that health care resources should be distributed fairly among individuals and communities?

QUESTION ID:56

Match List I with List II.

QUESTION ID:57

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : An endocrine gland releases substances through tubes or ducts.

Statement II : An exocrine gland releases substances it makes directly into the fluid bathing the glands.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:58

Match List I with List II. 

QUESTION ID:59

Which of the following connective tissues has a matrix of collagen and elastin fibres in a rubbery ground substance?

QUESTION ID:60

All of the following acts as anaphylotoxins EXCEPT

QUESTION ID:61

The mechanism by which B cells ensure that only one heavy and one light chain allele is translated is referred to as

QUESTION ID:62

Given below are two statements regarding Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC).

Statement I: MHC I contains two different polypeptide chains – α chain and β chain.

Statement II: MHC I is present on all nucleated cells.

In the light of the above two statements, select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:63

The function of the 3′ to 5′ exonuclease activity of a DNA polymerase is to:

QUESTION ID:64

Identify which of the following tests is the most convincing to identify a gene as oncogene or tumor suppressor gene.

QUESTION ID:65

A study is done on a mammalian cell line that has a doubling time of 24 hours. These cells are synchronized in G1 and then labeled for 2 days with BrdU (an analog of thymidine). At the end of labeling period, chromosomal DNA is isolated from the cells and its density analyzed by equilibrium centrifugation in cesium chloride gradients. Which of the following patterns would be expected to be seen?
(H = heavy, L = light)

QUESTION ID:66

Identify the correct order in which extra-cellular signals are transmitted.

(A) Adenylate cyclase
(B) cAMP
(C) Protein kinase A

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:67

Which of the following is not a function of the lysosomes?

QUESTION ID:68

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In Anaphase I, homologous chromosomes separate while sister chromatids remain together.
Statement II : In Anaphase II, chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:69

The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to :

QUESTION ID:70

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

QUESTION ID:71

Regarding BLAST (Basic Local Alignment Search Tool) all the following statements are correct EXCEPT :

QUESTION ID:72

Given below are two statements; in which one is Assertion (A) and the other one is Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Cri du chat syndrome is a classical example of endopolyploidy in human.

Reasoning (R): In Cri du chat syndrome there is partial monosomy resulting from small terminal deletion involving chromosome 5.

In the light of above statements choose the correct answer :

QUESTION ID:73

Given below are two statements :

Statement I: The genetic code is written in linear form with three nucleotide letters, thus referred as triplet code.

Statement II: The coding system is highly variable, in different organisms one triplet code can specify different amino acids in different organisms.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options:

QUESTION ID:74

In a pedigree, the first person identified to be suffering from a genetic disease is called as :

QUESTION ID:75

Two hypothetical SNPs (Single Nucleotide Polymorphism) in humans are 4 map units (m.u.) apart. The allele at SNP1 can be A or T; the allele at SNP2 can be C or G. A male with genotype AG/TC and a female with genotype AC/AC have a child. What is the probability they have a child with genotype AG/AC?

QUESTION ID:76

The clover leaf structure is a unique feature of which of the following molecules?

QUESTION ID:77

An autosomal recessive condition affects 1 new born in 10,000. What is the expected frequency of carriers?

QUESTION ID:78

The Hardy Weinberg principle is integral to population genetics. All of the following options can disturb the Hardy Weinberg equilibrium EXCEPT

QUESTION ID:79

In genetic linkage, the concept of recombination fraction is very important, of the characteristics given here, choose the correct ones.

(A) Recombination fraction is usually designated as θ (theta)
(B) It is the measure of the distance separating two loci on different chromosomes
(C) It gives an indication of the likelihood that a cross-over will occur between the two loci
(D) Genes at loci are not linked then θ = 0.5
(E) Genes at unlinked loci will segregate together during 20% of all meiosis

QUESTION ID:80

The process of genetic counselling involves various steps. These steps have been randomised and listed below. From the options given below, choose the correct sequence in which the counselling steps should be undertaken/performed.

(A) Risk assessment
(B) Diagnosis based on history and investigation
(C) Long term contact and support group
(D) Discussion of options

QUESTION ID:81

In which stage of the cell cycle, the cells double their amount of DNA?

QUESTION ID:82

In Eukaryotes, citric acid cycle takes place in

QUESTION ID:83

What is the approximate molecular mass of polypeptide containing 100 amino acid residues?

QUESTION ID:84

Human genomic DNA isolated with concentration of 400 µg/ml, needs to be digested with restriction enzyme Bam H1 (2000 U/ml). Investigator needs to set reaction with 10 µg of genomic DNA with 10 units of enzyme. How much volume (in µl – micro litre) needs to be drawn from the two stock solutions respectively to get 10 µg of DNA and 10 U of enzyme?

QUESTION ID:85

Match the List I with List II.

QUESTION ID:86

Select the correct primer pair of forward and reverse primer sequence that amplify full length of sequence given below :

5′ – TAC TAT CGA GTA CTA GAC TAC TAAGT 1 – 100 – 1 ACT, AGA, CGT ACG, TAG, TAC, GTT ACT AC – 3′

QUESTION ID:87

________ variant of BLAST, compares a DNA query sequence to the protein database.

QUESTION ID:88

Which one of the following is not a primary database?

QUESTION ID:89

The computational approaches to predict the three-dimensional structures of proteins are :

(A) Homology modeling
(B) X-ray crystallography
(C) NMR
(D) Threading
(E) Ab-initio

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:90

What happens to transferrin when iron is bound to it and it interacts with its receptor?

QUESTION ID:91

Which non-viral gene delivery method utilizes physical forces to introduce genetic material into cells?

QUESTION ID:92

Which protein is responsible for cleaving double stranded RNA into smaller fragments during RNA interference?

QUESTION ID:93

What is the main advantage of using Short Tandem Repeats (STRs) over restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) in DNA fingerprinting?

QUESTION ID:94

Which of the following steps in PCR is responsible for separating double-stranded DNA into single strands?

QUESTION ID:95

Match the List I with List II. 

QUESTION ID:96

The reductive pentose phosphate pathway is also known as
(A) Photosynthetic Carbon Oxidation cycle (PCO)
(B) Calvin – Benson cycle
(C) Photorespiration
(D) C4 cycle

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:97

Cortisones, used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, are produced from fermentation of _______________ by Rhizopus nigricans.

QUESTION ID:98

In cell cycle there are 4 stages. M, G1, S and G2. There is another term commonly used; G0 phase. Choose the best described statement for this G0 phase.

QUESTION ID:99

Based on series of events outlined in Central Dogma, there are enzymes that convert from one stage to the other. However, one conversion is not possible yet. Identify the stage:

QUESTION ID:100

In lactose operon, the following events happen.

(A) The operon is normally in an “off” mode when appropriate substrate in absent.
(B) Lactose is an inducer substrate.
(C) If lactose is added to the cell’s environment, it triggers events that turn the operator “on”.
(D) The structural genes are transcribed in 3 different transcripts coding for all three different enzymes.
(E) As lactose is depleted, operon is repressed.

Which of the answer is correct?

QUESTION ID:101

In NMR spectroscopy, the role of chemical shift is to

QUESTION ID:102

Following are few diseases resulting from ion channel defects. Choose the incorrect pair from the following pairs.

QUESTION ID:103

Classic hemophilia, or hemophilia A, is the best known clotting defect. This disorder is genetically transmitted as a sex-linked recessive characteristic.

Given below are two statement.

Statement I: In classic hemophilia, factor VIII (anti hemophilic factors) of the intrinsic pathway is missing or has markedly reduced activity.

Statement II: Factor VIII inhibits the activation of factor X, the final protease of intrinsic pathway by factor IX a serine protease.

In the light of the above statements, choose correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:104

In number of known three-dimensional protein structures is new in the tens of thousands and more than doubles every couple of years. One of the most important resources available to biochemists is Protein Data Bank (PDB). Choose correct statements for PDB from following.

QUESTION ID:105

Next-generation pyrosequencing uses two enzymes to detect nucleotide addition with flashes of light.

From the following, identify the correct pair of enzymes.

QUESTION ID:106

Tay-Sachs disease, in which ganglioside GM2 accumulates in the brain and spleen owing to lack of enzyme X. The symptoms of this disease is progressive developmental retardation, paralysis, blindness and death by the age of 3 or 4 years.

The correct name of the enzyme X is:

QUESTION ID:107

From the following statements, choose the incorrect statement.

QUESTION ID:108

Many cells can precisely control the time of their own death by one process of programmed cell death, or apoptosis. Choose the incorrect roles of apoptosis from following statements.

QUESTION ID:109

Two homologs that are present in different species are called as

QUESTION ID:110

In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which electrolyte imbalance is commonly observed?

QUESTION ID:111

During protein synthesis, which of the following class of RNA molecular are charged with amino acids?

QUESTION ID:112

From the following statements, match the correct statements about the mechanism of action of antibiotics given below:

QUESTION ID:113

The most sensitive test among thyroid function test for detecting primary hypothyroidism?

QUESTION ID:114

The ATP-dependent pathway of protein degradation in eukaryotic cells is quite different, involving the protein ubiquitin. Ubiquitin is covalently linked to proteins determined for destruction via an ATP-dependent pathway involving three separate types of enzymes. Identify correct set of three separate types of enzymes.

QUESTION ID:115

In chronic kidney disease, hyperkalemia is often a concern due to impaired renal excretion. Which hormone’s decreased activity exacerbates this condition?

QUESTION ID:116

Which one of the following is an experimental method for determining three dimensional structure of a protein?

QUESTION ID:117

Chose a compound with best docking score.

QUESTION ID:118

Which algorithm is used for global alignment?

QUESTION ID:119

In the FASTA format the definition line start with

QUESTION ID:120

The PDB-ID or PDB code is of ________ character and is represented as ________.

QUESTION ID:121

When aligning sequences that are highly divergent best results will be obtained with which substitution matrix?

QUESTION ID:122

Transport proteins associated with facilitated diffusion process include

(A) Uniporters
(B) Pump motors
(C) Ion channels
(D) Transport motors

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:123

Plants that take up high amounts of metal elements from soil and store them in their aerial tissue are known as

(A) hyper accumulators
(B) metallophytes
(C) chelators
(D) reducers

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:124

C2 oxidative photosynthetic carbon cycle is known as

(A) Photorespiration
(B) Calvin–Benson cycle
(C) Photosynthetic carbon oxidation cycle (PCO)
(D) Reduction pentose phosphate pathway

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:125

Leaves maximize light absorption by continuously adjusting the orientation of leaf lamina is called

QUESTION ID:126

Secondary macro nutrients include

QUESTION ID:127

Two peptides are subjected to column chromatography. At the pH of mobile phase, Peptide ‘A’ has a net charge of –3 due to more Glu and Asp residue. Peptide ‘B’ has a net charge of +1.

Statement I : Peptide ‘A’ will elute first in cation-exchange column.

Statement II : Peptide ‘B’ will elute second in anion-exchange column.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:128

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : PCR can be used for in vitro amplification of genes.

Statement II : PCR can be used to introduce site-directed point mutation in a cloned gene.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:129

Match List I with List II.

QUESTION ID:130

Which of the following restriction endonuclease are ‘4-base cluster’ and leads to ‘blunt ends’?

QUESTION ID:131

Match List I with List II. 

QUESTION ID:132

Match List I with List II.  

QUESTION ID:133

Eukaryotic cells in the tissue has multiple adhesive mechanisms. Animal cell adhesion to basal lamina matrix is mediated by ________.

QUESTION ID:134

Match List I with List II.  

QUESTION ID:135

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Subtractive hybridization for enriching mRNA and subsequent making enriched library requires involvement reverse transcribing resin-bound single-stranded mRNA.

Statement II : During subtractive hybridization DNA-RNA hybrid are separated from unbound mRNA by use of a column chromatography.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:136

__________ is NOT used to tag the secondary antibodies for use in ELISA.

QUESTION ID:137

Which of the following is not a method of contraception?

QUESTION ID:138

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Progesterone cooperates with estrogens to prepare and maintain the endometrium for implantation of a fertilized ovum.

Statement II : Progesterone is mainly secreted by ovarian follicles.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:139

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the “surfactant” lining the alveoli of lungs?

(A) It helps in preventing alveolar collapse
(B) It is produced by alveolar type II cells
(C) Its excessive secretion can cause infant respiratory distress syndrome
(D) Dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine (DPPC) is an important constituent of the surfactant

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:140

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Respiratory acidosis is caused by an abnormally high PCO₂ in systemic arterial blood – above 45 mm Hg.

Statement II : Any condition that decreases the movement of CO₂ from the blood to the alveoli of the lungs to the atmosphere causes a buildup of CO₂, H₂CO₃ and H⁺.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:141

Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse into and out of capillaries following their partial presence gradient
(B) Hemoglobin in RBCs greatly increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood
(C) Hemoglobin do not carry carbon dioxide
(D) In plasma, most carbon dioxide is transported in the form of carbolic acid
(E) Buffers help prevent the blood from becoming too acidic

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:142

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the term ‘Steatorrhea’?

(A) It is passage of fatty, bulky and clay-colored stools.
(B) It is caused due to destruction of exocrine portion of pancreas.
(C) It can be caused due to impaired digestion and absorption of fat.
(D) It can be caused by lipase deficiency.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:143

Which of the following factors lead to an increased cardiac output?

(A) Increased sympathetic stimulation
(B) Increased catecholamines in the blood
(C) Decreased body temperature
(D) Calcium channel blockers
(E) Increased contractivity of heart

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:144

Which of the following statements are CORRECT regarding angiotensin II?

(A) It increases the glomerular filtration rate by causing vasoconstriction of the efferent arterioles
(B) It enhances reabsorption of Na⁺ and water in the proximal convoluted tubule
(C) It stimulates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
(D) Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:145

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Conditioned reflex is a classic example of dissociative learning.

Statement II : A conditioned reflex is a reflex response to a stimulus that previously elicited little or no response and is acquired by repeatedly pairing the stimulus with another stimulus that normally does produce the response.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:146

A 36-year-old woman reported muscle weakness in the extraocular eye muscles and muscles of the extremities. Her muscle weakness worsens by physical activity and improves with rest. Sensation appears normal. The woman is suffering from?

QUESTION ID:147

Genetic code refers to the

QUESTION ID:148

Telomerase enzyme plays role in

QUESTION ID:149

Klinefelter syndrome is

QUESTION ID:150

The trisomy condition in Down Syndrome is due to non-disjunction of chromosome during gamete formation. This process occurs during