Previous Year Questions

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QUESTION ID:1

Consider the following statements with reference to ELISA :

(A) When detection is done on the basis of labelled antibody raised against the antigen of interest, the antibody is called as primary antibody.

(B) When detection is done on basis of labelled antibody that binds to an antibody raised against the antigen of interest, the labelled antibody is called as secondary antibody.

(C) Secondary antibody recognizes multiple epitopes in the FC region of primary antibody, thus amplify the signal.

(D) Non-specific antibodies also bind to antigen.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:2

With reference to Beer Lambert Law read the following statements carefully :

(A) Beer-Lambert Law is a linear relationship between absorbance and the concentration.

(B) A plot of concentration against absorbance will always be linear.

(C) A plot of concentration against absorbance will be linear at low concentration only.

(D) A plot of concentration against absorbance will be linear at low concentration but forms a plateau at high concentration.

(E) A plot of concentration against absorbance will be linear at low temperature but exponential at high concentration.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:3

The characteristic strong absorbance of light by most proteins at 280 nm wavelength is mainly due to which of the following class of amino acids?

QUESTION ID:4

Match List I with List II. 

List IList II
(A) Dialysis(I) Large molecule will be eluted first
(B) Lyophilization(II) Thin layer chromatography
(C) Adsorption(III) Dispersal of molecule from high concentration through a semi permeable membrane
(D) Size exclusion chromatography(IV) Rapid freezing of samples followed by removal of water
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:5

TBLASTX results in 36 database searches because

QUESTION ID:6

Match List I with List II. 

List IList II
(A) Zymogen(I) Specificity of enzyme substrate interaction
(B) Lock and key Model(II) Enzyme kinetics
(C) Isoenzyme(III) Inactive form of an enzyme
(D) Michaelis-Menten Equation(IV) Lactate dehydrogenase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:7

A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme

QUESTION ID:8

Match List I with List II. 

List IList II
(A) Homology Modelling(I) Disorder prediction
(B) Fold recognition(II) Target protein lacks homology at both sequence and structure level
(C) ab-initio prediction(III) Target protein shares substantial similarity to other protein of known structure
(D) Disordered(IV) Target protein shares folds but lacks homology of sequence level
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:9

Match List I with List II. 

List IList II
(A) BLAST N(I) Protein pattern against Protein DB
(B) BLAST P(II) DNA query against Protein DB
(C) PHI-BLAST(III) Protein query against Protein DB
(D) BLAST X(IV) DNA/RNA query against Gene Bank (DNA)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:10

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The α–helix structure is stabilized by hydrogen bonds formed between the main chain atoms of residues i and i + 4.

Statement II : β–strands are stabilized by hydrogen bonds between residues of adjacent strands.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:11

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Peptide bond exhibits partial double bond character.

Statement II : Peptide bond has non-planar nature.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:12

Which among the following techniques is primarily used for 3D structure determination of biological macromolecules?

QUESTION ID:13

Match List I with List II. 

List IList II
(A) Tertiary structure(I) Amino acid sequence
(B) Primary structure(II) α - helices
(C) Secondary structure(III) Arrangement of secondary structural elements in space
(D) Quaternary structure(IV) Arrangement of tertiary structure in space

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:14

Determination of 3D structure of membrane proteins often appears difficult as compared to the cytoplasmic proteins because :

QUESTION ID:15

Ramachandran plot is widely used to :

QUESTION ID:16

Which among the following chromatographic methods can be used to separate samples from each other on the basis of size?

QUESTION ID:17

Which among the following techniques can NOT be used to determine 3D structure of biomolecules?

QUESTION ID:18

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Dynamic light scattering principle can be used to determine the approximate size and dimension of a protein in solution.

Statement II : Circular Dichroism spectroscopy can map protein-ligand interactions.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:19

You performed an experiment to create a gene knock out mice to study the function of gene X. During this experiment you prepared a plasmid containing a cloned gene X and two drug sensitivity genes neo and tk, which confer resistance to neomycin and sensitivity to ganciclovir, respectively. You then introduced the recombinant plasmid into the mouse ES cells. What it is purpose of including the neo and tk genes in the plasmid?

(A) Gene tk is used to make cells with non-homologous recombination ganciclovir sensitive.
(B) Gene neo is used to select transfected cells.
(C) Gene neo is used to make cells with non-homologous recombination neomycin sensitive.
(D) Gene tk is used to select transfected cells.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:20

Which among the following statements are correct about very long DNA fragments (>100 kb) from eukaryotic genomes?

(A) They can be efficiently packaged in a λ phage vector.
(B) They can be propagated in a yeast artificial chromosome.
(C) They must have cohesive ends for cloning.
(D) They can be separated by pulsed field gel electrophoresis technique.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:21

All the following statements are true regarding RFLP and RAPD except :

QUESTION ID:22

Recombinant DNA technology has made it possible to start with a particular gene, make mutations in it, and then create mutant cells or organisms, a process commonly referred to as :

QUESTION ID:23

Nobel Prizes in Immunologic Research

Match List I with List II.

List IList II
(A) Jules Bordet (1919)(I) Development of Radio Immunoassay
(B) Rosalyn R Yalow (1977)(II) Immune Regulatory Theories
(C) Charles Richet (1913)(III) Complement Mediated Bacteriolysis
(D) Niels K Jerne (1984)(IV) Anaphylaxis

Choose the correct answers from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:24

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The restriction enzymes are natural products of Bacteria and they cut the DNA at defined sequences.

Statement II : The restriction enzymes cut only single stranded DNA molecules.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:25

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Isopleth is a contour line showing the value of a function of two variables connecting the points where the function has a particular value. This was explained in Wandelwalls equilibration.

Statement II : The relationship between pH and bicosonsonate concentration is described by Henderson’s-Hasselbalch equation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the given options :

QUESTION ID:26

In the process of signaling and vertebrate motor neuron

(A) Action potential have three main phases, a depolarization phase, a repolarization phase and after hyperpolarization phase.

(B) The depolarization phase is result of opening and voltage gated Ca⁺ channels which open in response to suprathreshold depolarization of the membrane.

(C) The opening and voltage-gated Na⁺ channels causes the repolarization phase.

(D) An action potential in one part of the axon triggers other action potentials in adjacent areas of the axonal membrane, allowing conduction without decrement.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:27

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The difference in carbon dioxide equilibrium curve for oxygenated and deoxygenated blood is called as Haldane effect.

Statement II : Detection of ingested chemical is known as gustation and a G-protein coupled receptor involved in the sense of taste that detects sweet tastants is known as metaducin.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:28

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The simplest mechanism of RNA replication such as ‘Rolling circle synthesis by RNA polymerase II’ is used by several negative and positive polarity viruses.

Statement II : Majority of RNA viruses appear to employ two general mechanisms of initiation of RNA dependent RNA polymerase – (1) a primer independent mechanism and (2) a primer dependent mechanism.

In the light of the above statements, choose correct answer from the options below :

QUESTION ID:29

Match the viral encoded enzymes to their respective functions.

Match List I with List II.

List IList II
(A) DNA integrase(I) Poly adenylation
(B) RNA helicase(II) 5' capping
(C) Poly (A) polymerase(III) Integration of viral DNA
(D) Guanyl and Methyl transferase(IV) Disrupt intermolecular or intramolecular base pairing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:30

Which among the following are correct for the processes of membrane extrusion termed as ‘Budding’ during viral replication.

(A) Membrane extrusion is driven by envelope glycoprotein alone.
(B) In the absence of viral glycoproteins, the capsid precursors are able to induce budding.
(C) Interaction between viral glycoprotein spikes and the assembled capsid is required.
(D) Membrane fusion is a final event in the process.
(E) Endosomal sorting complex for transport (ESCRT) mediates transport.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:31

Given below are two statements :

Assertion (A) : During replication of retroviruses, mutants that are unable to integrate do not establish a spreading infection.

Reason (R) : Because ‘integration’ of linear retroviral DNA, like reverse transcription is a crucial step of the retroviral life cycle and required for efficient replication of retroviruses.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:32

Given below are two statements :

Assertion (A) : Viruses can cause cancer.

Reason (R) : Evidence-based facts showing that the ability of the causative agent passing through a fine filter identified as a virus. Also, solid tumor in chickens, ‘sarcoma’ could be transmitted by cell-free filtrates.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:33

The mutation rates expressed as mutations / nucleotide / cell infection for RNA viruses vary between :

QUESTION ID:34

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The error rate of retroviruses such as HIV overlaps in the error rates observed in viruses that utilize RNA dependent RNA polymerase.

Statement II : The fidelity of the reverse transcriptases are similar to the fidelity of RNA dependent RNA polymerase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:35

What is the estimated ratio of non-synonymous (dN) to synonymous (dS) nucleotide substitutions per site (ratio) dN/dS  in RNA and DNA viruses indicative of selective neutrality?

QUESTION ID:36

Various defense mechanisms that hosts have developed as antiviral mechanisms in response to viral infection are :

(A) Inducible cytokines (interferon)
(B) RNA interference (in plants and invertebrates)
(C) Apoptosis
(D) Cell- and Antibody-mediated immune response
(E) Autophagy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:37

Arrange the following vectors in the increasing order of their insert range :

(A) Phage λ
(B) YAC
(C) M13
(D) Plasmid
(E) Cosmid

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:38

Which among the followings is NOT a termination codon?

QUESTION ID:39

A cell culture experiment needs 2 × 106 live cells to be dispensed in a cell culture flask. The cells are available as homogeneous suspension of 20 ml in a test tube. The cells number was counted and the cell viability was tested using trypan blue staining followed by counting in a Hemocytometer with 1 mm × 1 mm chambers outlined below :

A volume of 10 μl of cell suspension was mixed with 10 μl of the trypan blue dye reagent and the mix was loaded on hemocytometer and the cell count was as follows : 

ChamberUnstained

Trypan blue stained

A164
B206
C255
D195
How much of the stock cell suspension will be needed for the experiment? 

QUESTION ID:40

A swing out rotor exhibits the maximum radius from the axis of the rotor to the bottom of the tube as 7 cm. If the rotor is operated at a speed of 20,000 rpm, what will be the relative centrifugal field (RCF) at the bottom of the centrifuge tube?

QUESTION ID:41

Cells from a mouse lymphoid tissue were isolated and stained with T cell marker anti-CD3-APC, anti CD4-FITC and anti-CD8-PE. Stained cells were analyzed by flow cytometry for T lymphocyte population and dot plot was prepared for cells gated on CD3⁺ cells as indicated below.

 

Based on distribution of CD4 and CD8 cell surface marker and relative population proportion of cells with these marker, identify the tissue of origin of the cells used for staining as belonging to :

QUESTION ID:42

Which among the followings is true of the sympathetic nervous system?

QUESTION ID:43

Which among the following statements are true?

(A) Continuous conduction is faster than saltutatory conduction.
(B) The frequency of impulses and the number of activated sensory neurons encode differences in stimuli intensities.
(C) Large diameter axons conduct nerve impulses faster than the smaller diameter ones.
(D) The diameter of an axon and the presence or absence of a myelin sheath are the most important factors that determine the speed of nerve impulse propagation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:44

Trajectory of molecular dynamic simulation of a complex receptor-drug can be analyzed using

(A) Root Mean Square Deviation (RMSD) of backbone with respect to time
(B) Root Mean Square Fluctuation (RMSF) of amino acids during simulation
(C) Change in radius of gyration with respect to time
(D) Number of hydrogen bonds formed / broken down during the course of simulation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:45

Which among the following factors has the greatest effect on the ability of blood to transport oxygen?

QUESTION ID:46

Which of the following techniques gives the most information about the positional and spatial characteristics of all atoms in a protein

QUESTION ID:47

HPLC is the diagnostic modality for

QUESTION ID:48

Choose the correct range of membrane potential, the voltage across a membrane.

QUESTION ID:49

NATIVE-PAGE experiment for separation of proteins, if the amount of cross-linker is increased, what would happen?

QUESTION ID:50

A G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) is a cell-surface transmembrane receptor that works with the help of a G-protein. Choose the correct option for the role of G-protein :