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Previous Year Questions

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TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
A person suffering from Alzheimer’s disease .................  short-term memory loss.

QUESTION ID:2

Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
____________ is the key to their happiness; they are satisfied with what they have.

QUESTION ID:3

Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the sentence below?
“As a woman, I have no country.”

QUESTION ID:4

In any given year, the probability of an earthquake greater than Magnitude 6 occurring in the Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04. The average time between successive occurrences of such earthquakes is ____ years.

QUESTION ID:5

The population of a new city is 5 million and is growing at 20% annually. How many years would it take to double at this growth rate?

QUESTION ID:6

In a group of four children, Som is younger to Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in the group. Which of the following statements is/are required to find the eldest child in the group?
Statements
1. Shiv is younger to Riaz.
2. Shiv is elder to Som.

QUESTION ID:7

Moving into a world of big data will require us to change our thinking about the merits of exactitude. To apply the conventional mindset of measurement to the digital, connected world of the twenty-first century is to miss a crucial point. As mentioned earlier, the obsession with exactness is an artefact of the information-deprived analog era. When data was sparse, every data point was critical, and thus great care was taken to avoid letting any point bias the analysis. From “BIG DATA” Viktor Mayer-Schonberger and Kenneth Cukier
The main point of the paragraph is:

QUESTION ID:8

The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two pie charts below. The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item as a percentage of the total quantity of exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 5 lakh tonnes and the total revenues are 250 crore rupees. What is the ratio of the revenue generated through export of Item 1 per kilogram to the revenue generated through export of Item 4 per kilogram?

QUESTION ID:9

X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km southeast of Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1 km south of W. Q is 1 km east of P. What is the distance between X and Q in km?

QUESTION ID:10

10% of the population in a town is HIV+. A new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is available; this kit correctly identifies HIV+ individuals 95% of the time, and HIV− individuals 89% of the time. A particular patient is tested using this kit and is found to be positive. The probability that the individual is actually positive is _______

QUESTION ID:11

Hybridizations of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3−, NH4+ respectively are

QUESTION ID:12

Potassium metal crystallizes in the body-centered cubic structure. The number of atoms per unit cell is equal to

QUESTION ID:13

Assuming ideal condition, the solution that has the highest freezing point is

QUESTION ID:14

The major product formed in the following reaction is

QUESTION ID:15

The acid that undergoes decarboxylation most readily upon heating is

QUESTION ID:16

A ball of mass 330 g is moving with a constant speed, and its associated de Broglie wavelength is 1 × 10−33 m. The speed of the ball is _________ m s–1. (h = 6.6 × 10−34 J s)

QUESTION ID:17

Diphosphonic acid (H4P2O5) has no P ̶ P bond. This acid is

QUESTION ID:18

The magnetic moment of an octahedral Co(II) complex is approximately 4.0 μB (atomic number of Co is 27). The CFSE for this complex, in Δo units, is

QUESTION ID:19

The complex ion [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (atomic number of Cr is 24) exhibits

QUESTION ID:20

Assuming ideal behavior, the density of fluorine gas at 20 °C and 0.3 atm is ____ g L–1. (Molecular weight of F2 = 38 g mol–1, R = 0.082 L atm mol–1 K–1)

QUESTION ID:21

For a first order reaction, the time required for 50% completion is 20 minutes. The time required for 99.9% completion of the reaction is ______ minutes.

QUESTION ID:22

At 298 K, the bond dissociation energies of C–H, C–C and C=C are 415, 344 and 615 kJ mol–1, respectively. The enthalpy of atomization of carbon is 717 kJ mol–1 and that of hydrogen is 218 kJ mol–1. The heat of formation of naphthalene at 298 K is ______ kJ mol–1.

QUESTION ID:23

The Fisher projection that represents (2R,3S)-2,3-dihydroxybutanoic acid is


QUESTION ID:24

A hydrocarbon that undergoes ozonolysis (reaction with ozone followed by reduction with Me2S) to form formaldehyde and glyoxal is

QUESTION ID:25

The order of acidity of the following acids is


QUESTION ID:26

During an enzyme catalyzed reaction, the equilibrium constant

QUESTION ID:27

A mixture of Arginine, Phenylalanine and Histidine was fractionated using cation exchange chromatography at neutral pH. The amino acids were eluted with an increasing salt gradient. Identify the correct order of elution.

QUESTION ID:28

Which one of the following proteases does NOT cleave on the carboxyl side of any Arginine residue in a protein?

QUESTION ID:29

The receptor for epinephrine is a

QUESTION ID:30

Choose the option with two reducing sugars.

QUESTION ID:31

The affinity of an antibody can be determined quantitatively by

QUESTION ID:32

Which one of the following molecules is an allosteric activator of phosphofructokinase-1?

QUESTION ID:33

For a single substrate enzyme, a reaction is carried out at a substrate concentration four times the value of Km. The observed initial velocity will be _________ % of Vmax.

QUESTION ID:34

Consider the following biochemical reaction:
Fructose 6-phosphate + ATPFructose 1,6-bisphosphate + ADP
The equilibrium constant under biochemical standard conditions (K'eq) for the above reaction is 254. The standard free energy change (ΔG'°) for the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate is _______

QUESTION ID:35

Given below is the hydropathy plot of a monomeric transmembrane protein.

How many transmembrane α-helices are present in the protein?

QUESTION ID:36

An aqueous solution contains two compounds X and Y. This solution gave absorbance values of 1.0 and 0.4 at 220 and 280 nm, respectively, in a 1 cm path length cell. Molar absorption coefficients (ε) of the compounds X and Y are as shown in the table below.

The concentration of Y in the solution is___________ mM.

QUESTION ID:37

A purified oligomeric protein was analyzed by SDS-PAGE under reducing and non-reducing conditions. A one litre solution of 1 mg/ml concentration has 4.01 × 1018 molecules of the oligomeric protein. Based on the data shown below, deduce the total number of polypeptide chains that constitute this protein.

QUESTION ID:38

The concentration of Mg2+ ions outside a cell is twice the concentration inside. If the transmembrane potential of the cell is –60 mV (inside negative), the free energy change of transporting Mg2+ ions across the membrane against the concentration gradient at 37 °C is __________ kJ/mol. Faraday constant: 96.5 kJ/V mol

QUESTION ID:39

Match the entries in Group I with those in Group II

Group IGroup II
P) J chain1) VDJ recombinase complex
Q) Serpin2) Component of MHC class I

R) β2-microglobulin

3) B cell co-receptor complex
S) Artemis4) C1 complement inhibitor
5) Component of MHC class II
6) Multimerization of IgA and IgM

QUESTION ID:40

The kinetic data for a single substrate enzyme is shown below. The concentration of inhibitor [I] used in the reaction was equal to the Ki of the inhibitor. The Km value of an uninhibited reaction is 2 × 10-5 M. In the presence of the inhibitor, the observed Km value is _____× 10-5 M.

QUESTION ID:41

One litre of phosphate buffer was prepared by adding 208 grams of Na2HPO4 (Mol. wt. 142) and 71 grams of NaH2PO4 (Mol. wt. 120) in water. If the pKa for the dissociation of H2PO4 – into HPO42– andH+ is 6.86, the pH of the buffer will be _____________.

QUESTION ID:42

Shown below is an electrospray ionization mass spectrum of a protein:

The numbers written on top of the peaks are the m/z values. The mass of the protein deduced from the given data is ___________ kDa

QUESTION ID:43

A human gene has only three exons (I, II and III in the given order). Total RNA was isolated from cultured human kidney cells and reverse transcribed. The resultant cDNA was used as a template in a PCR reaction containing a forward primer specific to Exon I and a reverse primer specific to Exon III. When the PCR product was analyzed by gel electrophoresis, two bands were observed of sizes 2.5 kb and 1 kb. However, when Northern blotting was performed with the same total RNA using a radiolabeled probe specific to Exon II, only one band was observed. Based on these observations, which one of the following statements is FALSE ?

QUESTION ID:44

Using the Sanger’s dideoxy chain termination method, a particular exonic region of a protein coding gene was sequenced for two individuals referred to as Subject 1 and Subject 2. The figure below shows a segment of the autoradiogram corresponding to a small window of the DNA sequence.

Which one of the following interpretations is correct for the sequenced DNA fragments?

QUESTION ID:45

A 7 kb DNA molecule of a specific sequence has two EcoRI and one PvuII restriction endonuclease sites. The restriction sites are shown below. The DNA was completely digested with both EcoRI and PvuII. The digestion product was purified and added to an appropriately buffered reaction mixture at 37 °C, which contained the Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase I and α-32P dNTPs. After one hour, the DNA in the reaction product was purified and analyzed by electrophoresis. The bands were visualized by both ethidium bromide (EtBr) staining and autoradiography. The result is shown below.
Which one of the following restriction maps is in agreement with the above result?

QUESTION ID:46

Plant which grows attached to another plant species but is not a parasitic is known as

QUESTION ID:47

An ideal cybrid should have

QUESTION ID:48

Transmission Electron Micrograph of fungal cell can usually be distinguished from plant cell due to lack of P and having less abundant Q. Find the correct combination of P and Q.

QUESTION ID:49

Identify the CORRECT answer
RNA interference (RNAi)
P. is an event of post transcriptional gene silencing
Q. works through RNA induced silencing complex

QUESTION ID:50

Find the odd one out

QUESTION ID:51

Plantibody is the

QUESTION ID:52

In a typical oil-seed crop, the matured seeds are enriched with

QUESTION ID:53

Match the following products (Column I) with the corresponding plant species (Column II )

Column IColumn II
P. Saffron1. Garcinia sp.
Q. Gamboge2. Rocella tinctoria
R. Litmus3. Crocus sativus
S. Turmeric4. Curuma sp.

QUESTION ID:54

The semi-dwarf trait of corn, wheat and rice plants used in breeding program during 1960s resulted in green revolution. Later this ‘green-revolution gene’ has been identified to be involved in either signal transduction pathway or biosynthesis of

QUESTION ID:55

In classical model to explain the plant-pathogen interaction, the host will not develop the disease upon the pathogen attack when

QUESTION ID:56

Select the CORRECT combination from the promoter (Column I), transcription machinery used (Column II) and target tissue type (Column III) to express a foreign gene in a plant system.

QUESTION ID:57

In a plant species, flower colour purple is dominant over white. One such purple-flowered plant upon selfing produced 35 viable plants, of which 9 were white-flowered and the rest were purpleflowered. What fraction of these purple-flowered progeny is expected to be pure purple-flowered line?

QUESTION ID:58

Following diagram represents the sequence of genes in a normal chromosome of a plant species:

Match the CORRECT combination for chromosomal mutation using Column - I and Column - II.

QUESTION ID:59

Match the nuclei status of mutant plant (Column-I) with the typical chromosome number (Column- II), when the wild type plant species is having 2N = 46 chromosomes.

Column-IColumn-II
P. Trisomic1. 23
Q. Triploid2. 45
R. Monosomic3. 47
S. Monoploid4. 69

QUESTION ID:60

Match the following reporter genes used in plant transformation experiments with the source of gene and detection/assay system 

Reporter gene                                     Source of gene       Detection/assay     
P. β-glucuronidase
1. Aequorea victoriai. Radioactive assay
Q. Green fluorescence protein2. Photinus pyralisii. Fluorimetric
R. Luciferase3. E. coliiii. Fluorescence
S. Chloramphenicol acetyl transferaseiv. Luminescence

QUESTION ID:61

Find the CORRECT statements in the context of Global warming effect on plant photosynthesis.
P. Decreasing aqueous solubility of dissolved CO2 compared to dissolved O2
Q. Decreasing oxygenase activity of Rubisco relative to carboxylation
R. Enhancing the ratio of CO2 to O2 in air equilibrated solution
S. Increasing photorespiration relative to photosynthesis

QUESTION ID:62

Statements given below are either TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). Find the correct combination.
P. Regulation of cell cycle progression depends on cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) and protease activity.
Q. In photosynthesis, oxidation of water produces O2 and releases electrons required by photosystem I (PSI).
R. Photorespiratory reaction occurring in oxidative photosynthetic carbon (C2) pathway involves a
cooperative interaction among three organelles: chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria.
S. Ethylene acts as a promoter of senescence and cytokinins act as a senescence antagonist.

QUESTION ID:63

Match the following diagrams P, Q, R, and S with the inflorescence type (Column I) and the corresponding plant species (Column II).

Column IColumn II
1. Umbeli. Pedicularis sp.
2. Racemeii. Smilacina sp.
3. Compound determinateiii. Epilobium sp.
4. Spikeiv. Pelargonium sp.

QUESTION ID:64

Find the right combination for P, Q, R and S with respect to gametophyte development in flowering plants.

QUESTION ID:65

Match the definition (Column I) with the type of plant community (Column II) Column I Column II

Column IColumn II                  

P. The process of occupation of a particular area by different

plant communities from their birth to maturity

1. Formation
Q. A major ecological unit of vegetation2. Consociation
R. A smaller unit of plant association3. Faciation

S. A subdivision of plant association which is related to minor

differences in temperature and moisture relations

4. Plant succession

QUESTION ID:66

Most viral capsids have

QUESTION ID:67

Intergenic suppression involves mutation in

QUESTION ID:68

Which one of the following proteins does NOT bind to a gaseous ligand?

QUESTION ID:69

A bacterial culture (5 ×10 8 cells/ml) is maintained in a chemostat of working volume 10 L. If the doubling time of the bacteria is 50 min, the required rate of flow of nutrients (in ml/min) is _______________.

QUESTION ID:70

Rheumatic fever is an example of

QUESTION ID:71

Oxygenases that catalyse the initial step in the degradation of polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons by using molecular oxygen belong to which enzyme class?

QUESTION ID:72

Which one of the following is NOT involved in horizontal gene transfer?

QUESTION ID:73

The principle of immunization was first explained by

QUESTION ID:74

Lysozyme catalyzes the breakdown of

QUESTION ID:75

Which one of the following microscopic techniques can be used to study the contour of proteins?

QUESTION ID:76

Match compounds in Group I with inhibitory activities in Group II.

Group IGroup II
(P) Vancomycin(i) Folate metabolism
(Q) Rifampin(ii) DNA synthesis
(R) Puromycin(iii) Protein synthesis
(S) Ciprofloxacin(iv) RNA synthesis
(v) Cell wall synthesis

QUESTION ID:77

Match the organisms with the appropriate growth curves.
(P) Bacteria
(Q) Extracellular virus
(R) Intracellular virus

QUESTION ID:78

The length of a coding region in an mRNA is 897 bases. How many amino acids will be there in the polypeptide synthesized using this mRNA?

QUESTION ID:79

Match the media in Group I for screening microbial isolates in Group II.

Group IGroup II
(P) Blood agar media(i) Coliforms
(Q) Minimal media(ii) Protease producers
(R) Skimmed milk agar media(iii) Hemolytic microbes
(S) Bile salt media(iv) Lipase producers
(v) Autotrophs

QUESTION ID:80

During a bacterial growth experiment, the total viable cell count at 2 h and 6 h was 1×104 cells/ml and 1×109 cells/ml, respectively. The specific growth rate (in h-1) of the culture is _____________.

QUESTION ID:81

The concentration of sodium chloride in the cytoplasm of a Halobacterium sp. was found to be 250 ng/nl. The molarity (in M) of sodium chloride is __________.

QUESTION ID:82

Match organisms in Group I with shapes in Group II and flagellar arrangements in Group III.

Group I Group II Group III 
(P) Salmonella typhi(i) helical(1) non-motile
(Q) Saccharomyces cerevisiae(ii) rod(2) amphitrichous
(R) Aquaspirillum serpens(iii) curved rod(3) peritrichous
(S) Vibrio cholerae(iv) ovoid(4) polar

QUESTION ID:83

Lethal dose curves of different microorganisms (1, 2, 3 and 4) are shown below. Which of these microorganisms are the most lethal?

QUESTION ID:84

Match items in Group I with sterilization methods in Group II.

Group IGroup II
(P) Ampicillin(i) 70 % alcohol treatment
(Q) 1% glucose in phosphate buffer(ii) Autoclaving at 15 psi for 15 min
(R) Plastic syringe(iii) Autoclaving at 10 psi for 20 min
(S) Luria broth(iv) Membrane filtration
(v) γ-ray irradiation

QUESTION ID:85

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding recA mutants of E. coli?
(P) Exhibit much reduced recombination
(Q) Do not survive UV irradiation
(R) Show no effect on doubling time
(S) Exhibit pleiotropy

QUESTION ID:86

Small geographic areas with high concentrations of endemic species and a large number of endangered and threatened species are known as

QUESTION ID:87

Which ONE of the following animals has “Osculum” as an excretory structure?

QUESTION ID:88

During development of which ONE of the following organisms, bilateral meroblastic cleavage is found?

QUESTION ID:89

The mitochondrion is NOT considered a part of the endomembrane system on account of which ONE of the following reasons?

QUESTION ID:90

The end products of glycolysis include ATP,

QUESTION ID:91

The TATA box is found in the vicinity of the transcription start site. The role of this box is to

QUESTION ID:92

Which ONE of the following processes does NOT occur in prokaryotic gene expression, but occurs in eukaryotic gene expression?

QUESTION ID:93

In Graves’ disease, the presence of auto antibodies against which ONE of the following molecules is the direct cause of hyperthyroidism?

QUESTION ID:94

In mammals, the two important organs associated with the production and elimination of urea are

QUESTION ID:95

Some endocrine glands produce hormones that stimulate functions of other endocrine glands. Which ONE of the following hormones specifically acts to increase secretion of other hormones?

QUESTION ID:96

If the recombination frequency between X - Y loci is 12, X - Z loci is 4, and Y - Z loci is 8, then the order of the loci on the chromosome is

QUESTION ID:97

A cross is made between a white eyed-miniature winged female with a red eyed-normal winged male of Drosophila melanogaster. Further crossing of F1 female offspring from this cross with a white eyed-miniature winged male fly gave 95 white eyed-normal winged, 102 red eyed-miniature winged, 226 red eyed-normal winged and 202 white eyed-miniature winged offspring in F2 generation. What is the percent frequency of recombination between the two genes?

QUESTION ID:98

A green fluorescent protein (GFP) encoding gene is fused to a gene encoding specific protein for expression in cells. What is the advantage of using GFP over staining cells with fluorescently labeled antibodies that bind to the target protein?

QUESTION ID:99

A newborn was accidentally given a drug that destroyed the thymus. Which ONE of the following would be the most likely outcome?

QUESTION ID:100

One individual has a parasitic worm infection and another is responding to an allergen such as pollen. Which ONE of the following features is common to both of them?

QUESTION ID:101

Five dialysis bags (DB1-DB5), impermeable to sucrose, were filled with various concentrations of sucrose. The bags were placed in separate beakers containing 0.6 M sucrose solution. Every 10 minutes, the bags were weighed and the percent change in mass of each bag was plotted as a function of time.
Which plot in the graph (X-axis representing time in minutes and Y-axis representing mass change in percentage) represent(s) bags that contain a solution that is hypertonic at 50 minutes?

QUESTION ID:102

Which ONE of the following combinations of products will result, when 3 molecules of acetyl CoA is fed into TCA cycle?

QUESTION ID:103

A DNA fragment shown below has restriction sites I and II, which create fragments X, Y, and Z. Which ONE of the following agarose gel electrophoresis patterns represents the separation of these fragments?

QUESTION ID:104

Theoretically, it is possible to resurrect the extinct woolly mammoth by which ONE of the following methods?

QUESTION ID:105

Regions of higher abundance of cholesterol molecules on the plasma membrane will

QUESTION ID:106

Which one of the following is NOT a source of caffeine?

QUESTION ID:107

Yoghurt is prepared using a pair of microorganisms. Choose the correct pair from the following:

QUESTION ID:108

Choose the target organism for milk pasteurization from the following:

QUESTION ID:109

Hypobaric storage is also known as _______

QUESTION ID:110

In a solution of vegetable oil (molecular mass = 292 kg kmol-1) and ethanol (molecular mass = 46 kg kmol-1), the concentration of vegetable oil in the solution is measured to be 60% (total mass basis). Therefore, mole fraction of ethanol in the solution is _______.

QUESTION ID:111

An experiment started with 4 numbers of bacterial cells. After nth generation, number of cells becomes 128. Therefore, value of ‘n’ is _______.

QUESTION ID:112

One ton of refrigeration means one of the following options:

QUESTION ID:113

Fruit juice is flowing in a circular pipe (inner diameter 2 cm) at a mass flow rate of 2 kg s-1 and at a temperature of 25°C. The density and viscosity of the juice at 25°C are 1045 kg m-3 and 0.5 Pa s, respectively. Take π = 22/7. The Reynolds number for this flow will be

QUESTION ID:114

Shear stress (τ, Pa) and shear rate (γ, s-1) relationship of a pseudoplastic fluid follows the Power law equation given by, τ = kγn = 2.6 γ0.45, where ‘n’ and ‘k’ are flow behavior index and consistency index respectively. The apparent viscosity (μa) of the fluid at a shear rate of 5 s-1 is _______ Pa s.

QUESTION ID:115

In a sterilization process, D121.1 value of the target organism is 0.22 minute. Time required for 99.999% inactivation of the target organism at 121.1°C will be _____ minutes. XL-M 1/3

QUESTION ID:116

A centrifuge having diameter of 10 cm is rotating at 10000 rpm. Take π = 22/7 and g = 9.81 m s-2. The ratio of centrifugal force to gravitational force will be _________.

QUESTION ID:117

Match the items under Group I with items under Group II

Group I                           Group II       
P. Threonine1. Fatty acid
Q. Pyridoxine phosphate2. Sugar
R. Xylose3. Amino acid
S. Oleic acid4. Co-enzyme

QUESTION ID:118

Match the items under Group I with items under Group II

Group IGroup II
P. Iron1. Osteoporosis
Q. Calcium2. Anemia
R. Zinc3. Goiter
S. Iodine4. Dwarfism

QUESTION ID:119

In a counter-current double pipe heat-exchanger, milk is cooled from 110 to 40°C using chilled water as coolant. Water enters at 5°C and leaves at 60°C. Heat flux for the system with overall heat transfer coefficient of 950 W m-2 K-1 will be ______ W m-2.

QUESTION ID:120

Saturated steam at 100°C is injected at 0.2 kg s-1 into air stream flowing at 3 kg s-1 and 25°C. Air contains 0.012 kg moisture per kg dry air. If the atmospheric pressure is 101.1 kPa, absolute humidity of air will be _____kg kg-1.

QUESTION ID:121

In an evaporator, milk is concentrated from 9.8% TSS to 52% TSS. Assume the solutes in the milk are non-volatile. The amount of vapour produced for 100 kg feed will be _______ kg.

QUESTION ID:122

Water enters a cylindrical tank at a steady uniform rate of 0.1 m3 s-1; simultaneously water is discharged from the tank through an orifice (area 0.05 m²) located at the bottom of the tank. Initial level of water in the tank from the bottom is 5 m. If the acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m s-2 and coefficient of discharge = 0.30, the final value of the steady-state height of water level from the bottom of tank is _______ m.

QUESTION ID:123

Match the following between Group I and Group II in relation to pretreatments

Group IGroup II
P. Ascorbic acid dip1. Sogginess in fruits
Q. Heat blanching2. Minimizes fruit oxidation
R. Deaeration3. Melting of fat in meat
S. Rendering4. Removal of odours
5. Minimizes destruction of vitamin C

QUESTION ID:124

A chocolate mix at 100°C is flowing through a 2 cm diameter and 4 m long stainless steel tube at 13.2 kg per minute. The density of the mix is 1750 kg m-3 and its viscosity at 100°C is 2 Pa s. Take π = 22/7. The pressure drop for this flow will be ________ Pa

QUESTION ID:125

In a tray dryer, 100 kg of a vegetable material in a suitably reduced form is dried to yield a final product of 75 kg. The dried sample of 5 g, when kept in an oven at 105°C for 24 hours results in 3.56 g of dry matter. The moisture content of the vegetable, before drying, in dry basis is_______%.