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Previous Year Questions

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QUESTION ID:1

The chairman requested the aggrieved shareholders to _________________ him.

QUESTION ID:2

Identify the correct spelling out of the given options:

QUESTION ID:3

Pick the odd one out in the following:
13, 23, 33, 43, 53

QUESTION ID:4

R2D2 is a robot. R2D2 can repair aeroplanes. No other robot can repair aeroplanes. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above statements?

QUESTION ID:5

If |9y−6| =3, then y2 −4y/3 is .

QUESTION ID:6

The following graph represents the installed capacity for cement production (in tonnes) and the actual production (in tonnes) of nine cement plants of a cement company. Capacity utilization of a plant is defined as ratio of actual production of cement to installed capacity. A plant with installed capacity of at least 200 tonnes is called a large plant and a plant with lesser capacity is called a small plant. The difference between total production of large plants and small plants, in tonnes is ____.

QUESTION ID:7

A poll of students appearing for masters in engineering indicated that 60 % of the students believed that mechanical engineering is a profession unsuitable for women. A research study on women with masters or higher degrees in mechanical engineering found that 99 % of such women were successful in their professions.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above paragraph?

QUESTION ID:8

Sourya committee had proposed the establishment of Sourya Institutes of Technology (SITs) in line with Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) to cater to the technological and industrial needs of a developing country.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentence? Based on the proposal,
(i) In the initial years, SIT students will get degrees from IIT.
(ii) SITs will have a distinct national objective.
(iii) SIT like institutions can only be established in consultation with IIT.
(iv) SITs will serve technological needs of a developing country.

QUESTION ID:9

Shaquille O’ Neal is a 60% career free throw shooter, meaning that he successfully makes 60 free throws out of 100 attempts on average. What is the probability that he will successfully make exactly 6 free throws in 10 attempts?

QUESTION ID:10

The numeral in the units position of 211870 + 146127 × 3424 is _____.

QUESTION ID:11

The species having shortest B‒F bond distance is

QUESTION ID:12

The total number of chair conformations possible for 1,2-dimethylcyclohexane is _____.

QUESTION ID:13

‘A harmful substance persists in the environment for a very long period of time’. The UNACCEPTABLE statement for this fact is

QUESTION ID:14

For an enzyme catalyzed reaction, the plot that correctly represents the relationship between the rate and temperature is

QUESTION ID:15

Combinations of a process and equation are given below. The INCORRECT combination is

QUESTION ID:16

The correct comparison of pKa ’s of [Fe(H2O)6]2+, [Fe(H2O)6]3+, V2O5 and N2O5 is

QUESTION ID:17

Given: The potential energy of two electrons separated by Bohr radius is 27.211 eV. The first Bohr radius of hydrogen is 0.5292 Å. The electron makes an orbit of radius 0.5295Å around the nucleus in hydrogen. The calculated ionization energy (eV) of hydrogen atom is __________.

QUESTION ID:18

The crystal field stabilization energy (excluding pairing energy, if any) of [CoCl4] 2‒ in Δo units is _________.

QUESTION ID:19

The correct statement is

QUESTION ID:20

Ferrous sulfate on reaction with potassium hexacyanochromate(III) produces a brick red complex. The number of unpaired electrons on Fe in the red complex is _________.

QUESTION ID:21

The major product formed in the following reaction is (ignore product stereochemistry)


QUESTION ID:22

When 1.0 g of urea (Molecular Weight = 60) is dissolved in 200 g of solvent S, the freezing point of S is lowered by 0.25 °C. When 1.5 g of a non-electrolyte Y is dissolved in 125 g of S, the freezing point of S is lowered by 0.20 °C. The molecular weight of Y is ___________.

QUESTION ID:23

The major product formed in the following reaction is


QUESTION ID:24

For a weak acid at 298 K the molar conductivities (in ohm‒1 m2 mol‒1), at infinite dilution and 0.04 mol dm‒3 are 4.3 × 10‒3 and 1.0 × 10‒3, respectively. The degree of dissociation of the acid (0.04 mol dm‒3) at 298 K is ________.

QUESTION ID:25

For propene at 298 K, the molar enthalpy of hydrogenation is ‒124.27 kJ mol‒1 and the standard enthalpy of formation is 20.42 kJ mol‒1. For propane at 298 K, the standard enthalpy of formation in kJ mol‒1 is______________.

QUESTION ID:26

Heterologous expression of green fluorescent protein is possible because the genetic code is

QUESTION ID:27

Hydrolysis of a peptide involves cleavage of the bond between the atoms

QUESTION ID:28

Inter-conversion of UDP-glucose and UDP-galactose is catalyzed by

QUESTION ID:29

Gel filtration profile and corresponding activity data for a pure enzyme are shown in the figure below. The same enzyme sample on SDS-PAGE runs as a 30 kDa polypeptide.
Which one of the following is the correct interpretation of the data?

QUESTION ID:30

Amino acid residues predominantly involved in protein-DNA interactions are

QUESTION ID:31

Cellulose serves as a structural polymer whereas starch does not. This is because cellulose contains

QUESTION ID:32

Phosphoglucose isomerase was incubated with 0.2 M of glucose 6-phosphate. On reaching equilibrium, 55% of glucose 6-phosphate was converted to fructose 6-phosphate. The equilibrium constant for this reaction is _______.

QUESTION ID:33

Molar absorption spectra labeled (i), (ii) and (iii) for three different amino acids are shown below.

Which one of the following is the correct combination of spectral assignments?

QUESTION ID:34

The fluidity of a phospholipid membrane increases when the fatty acid

QUESTION ID:35

Polypeptides are biosynthesized on the ribosomes inside the cell. Chemical synthesis of polypeptides is also possible through Merrifield’s solid-phase peptide synthesis. In both the cases the polypeptide chain is extended one amino acid at a time. The direction of polypeptide synthesis is from

QUESTION ID:36

Four groups of metabolites are given below. Choose the group in which all the compounds contain at least one bond whose of hydrolysis is ≤ −7.0kcal/mole.

QUESTION ID:37

The   for the malate dehydrogenase catalyzed step of Krebs cycle is +7.1 kcal/mole. Nevertheless, the conversion of malate to oxaloacetate in vivo proceeds spontaneously because the subsequent reaction that consumes oxaloacetate has a of

QUESTION ID:38

When freshly isolated intact mitochondria were incubated with ADP and inorganic phosphate neither the oxygen consumption nor the ATP synthesis could be detected. Addition of succinate resulted in increased oxygen consumption as well as ATP synthesis with time. Subsequent addition of cyanide to this system will result in which one of the following?

QUESTION ID:39

Three micrograms of a circular plasmid of 4200 bp was digested with a restriction enzyme and subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. Five DNA fragments of different sizes were observed and their sizes summed up to 4200 bp. The number of picomoles of DNA ends generated after complete digestion with the enzyme is _______. (Given: average molecular weight of each base pair is 660 Da)

QUESTION ID:40

An enzyme was purified using ion-exchange chromatography and the results are shown in the table below.

Which one of the following is the correct interpretation of these data?

QUESTION ID:41

Aspartate residues are found in the active sites of many enzymes. The pKa for the Beta -carboxylate of aspartate is 3.86. At physiological pH this group can function as

QUESTION ID:42

Kinetic parameters for the enzyme fumarase with three different substrates are given below
.
The specificity of fumarase for the substrates decreases in the order

QUESTION ID:43

A polypeptide with the amino acid sequence ‘AGKPDHEKAHL’ was dissolved in a buffer of pH 1.8. The predominant form of the polypeptide will have a net charge of

QUESTION ID:44

An N-terminal His-tagged protein of molecular weight 40 kDa was purified using Ni-NTA column. This protein sample was subjected to SDS-PAGE. A western blot of the same using anti-His antibodies is shown below.
Which one of the following interpretations is correct?

QUESTION ID:45

The sequence of a polypeptide that forms a transmembrane helix is shown below.

Which one of the following segments of the peptide is most likely to span the membrane?

QUESTION ID:46

Which of the following is most abundant in the aleurone layer of wheat seeds?

QUESTION ID:47

Which of the following does NOT use xylem to transport water?

QUESTION ID:48

Which of the following is the closest ancestor of all land plants?

QUESTION ID:49

4',6 diamidino 2-phenylindole (DAPI) is a fluorescent dye used to stain the nucleus. Which of the following plant cells, when mature, cannot be stained by DAPI?

QUESTION ID:50

The uptake of nitrogen (N) and phosphorus (P) by plant roots often involves interaction between root and some symbiotic organisms. Which of the following associations is most commonly found for the uptake of these two nutrients?

QUESTION ID:51

Which of the following summarizes the role of Casparian strip in transport of water in the root?

QUESTION ID:52

Atropine is a drug used in the management of pesticide poisoning. Which of the following plants can serve as a commercial source of this anticholinergic drug?

QUESTION ID:53

Which of the following is NOT involved in plant immune response?

QUESTION ID:54

Which of the following is a neutral phenomenon?

QUESTION ID:55

When a plant is infected by a pathogen at one site, the distal parts of the plant and neighboring plants develop increased resistance to subsequent pathogen attack. Which of the following molecules mediates this long-distance signal?

QUESTION ID:56

An inbred line of a plant with red flower and tall stem was crossed to another inbred line with white flower and short stem. The F1 plants, which all had red flower and tall stem, were backcrossed to the line with white flower and short stem, and the following F2 individuals were obtained: 103 red, tall; 89 white, short; 26 red, short; and 23 white, tall. What is the recombination percentage between the flower color locus and the stem height locus.

QUESTION ID:57

Consider the following pathway controlling time to flowering in wheat:

If batch P of wheat seed is vernalized before sowing and batch Q is not vernalized, then which of the following statements is most likely to be correct?

QUESTION ID:58

The three plots P, Q and R (in different units) in the graph below represent the dependence of photosynthesis rate (PR), leaf expansion rate (LER) and translocation rate of assimilates (TR) in a plant on leaf water potential. Which of the following statements is correct in this regard?

QUESTION ID:59

PIN proteins are plasma membrane-localized carrier proteins required for polar auxin transport in plants. Four different carrier proteins are shown in the diagram below labeled P1-P4. Arrow indicates the direction of auxin flow. Which among these is most likely to be a PIN protein?

QUESTION ID:60

An RFLP marker shows sequence polymorphism in two ecotypes (X and Y) of a plant. In ecotype X, the marker contains one GAATTC site in its sequence, whereas in Y it has the sequence GAAATC at the same site. The rest of the sequence is identical in both ecotypes. In a genotyping experiment, the marker was PCR amplified from four different seedlings (P, Q, R, S), completely digested with EcoRI and the products were analyzed by electrophoresis. The diagram below shows the band patterns obtained. Based on the information provided, which of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:61

The cell surface expands differently in different plant cells. Two common modes of expansion are shown below (X and Y). Each rectangular box represents a cell marked with dots on its surface. The spacing between the dots changes after the cell has undergone expansion as indicated by the arrow. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the growth of root hair and pollen tube?

QUESTION ID:62

Hardy Weinberg's equilibrium for a locus with two alleles p and q is mathematically defined as P2 + Q2 + 2PQ = 1. Which of the following equations represents the corresponding equilibrium for a locus with three alleles p, q and r? (P, Q and R represent the frequencies of p, q and r, respectively)

QUESTION ID:63

The continuous and dashed lines in the following graph represent the velocity of sap flow in two different parts of a plant at different times of a day. Which of the following statements is most appropriate based on this graph?

QUESTION ID:64

Given below are the names of some genes/enzymes and their use in genetically modified crops. Match the two columns.

Gene/enzymeCommercial use         
P. Bt genei. Golden rice

Q. β-carotene biosynthetic genes

ii. insect resistance
R. ACC deaminaseiii. herbicide resistance
S. EPSP synthaseiv. fruit ripening

QUESTION ID:65

The basic tenets of the ABC model of Arabidopsis flower development are shown below along with a diagram.

i. A class genes acting alone determine sepal identity
ii. A and B class genes acting together determine petal identity
iii. B and C class genes acting together determine stamen identity
iv. C class genes acting alone determine carpel identity
v. A and C class genes mutually inhibit each other
Which of the following organ arrangements is found in an A class mutant?

QUESTION ID:66

Which one of the following is the most appropriate technique to determine the relatedness of two bacterial species?

QUESTION ID:67

Which one of the following phages undergoes non-integrative lysogenic phase?

QUESTION ID:68

Which one of the following is NOT a part of human microbiome?

QUESTION ID:69

Resident macrophages of _________ are called Kupffer cells.

QUESTION ID:70

The enzyme responsible for generation of hypochlorous ions during phagocytosis is

QUESTION ID:71

Teichoic acid is composed of repetitive units of

QUESTION ID:72

Biofilm produced by bacteria is detected by

QUESTION ID:73

The precursor for the synthesis of aromatic amino acids is

QUESTION ID:74

The net yield of NADH in the Embden-Meyerhof pathway in E. coli is________.

QUESTION ID:75

E. coli ribonuclease contains 124 amino acids. The number of nucleotides present in the gene encoding the protein is _______________.

QUESTION ID:76

Which of the following infectious agents cross the blood-brain barrier?
(P) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(Q) Coxsackie virus
(R) Rotavirus
(S) Streptococcus pyogenes

QUESTION ID:77

At OD540nm= 0.5, which one of the following bacterial mono-dispersed cell suspensions will have (i) maximum and (ii) minimum number of cells?
(P) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
(Q) Micrococcus luteus
(R) Bacillus subtilis
(S) Escherichia coli

QUESTION ID:78

Which one of the following enzyme combinations allows some bacteria to utilize acetate through glyoxylate pathway?
(P) Isocitrate lyase
(Q) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(R) Succinyl CoA synthetase
(S) Malate synthase

QUESTION ID:79

The decimal reduction time (D121) for Clostridium botulinum spores is 0.2 min. The time required to reduce the spore count from 1012 to one spore at 121°C is_______ minutes.

QUESTION ID:80

E. coli requires three genes, galK (kinase), galT (transacetylase) and galE (epimerase) to utilize galactose. If there is a mutation in any one of these genes, the mutant cannot utilize galactose. Which one of the following combinations of merodiploids will support the growth of mutants on galactose?
(P) galK+galT+galE- / galK-galT+galE-
(Q) galK-galT+galE- / galK+galT-galE+
(R) galK+galT-galE-/ galK-galT-galE+
(S) galK+galT+galE-/ galK+galT-galE+

QUESTION ID:81

Nitrogenase reduces N2 to NH3. Metal co-factors required for this activity are __________.

QUESTION ID:82

If a bacterial cell contains 5,000 genes and if the average mutation frequency per gene is 2 ×10-4 per generation, the average number of new mutations per generation is _________.

QUESTION ID:83

The growth profile of E. coli on glucose plus lactose is shown below. The specific growth rate of the second exponential phase is____h-1.

QUESTION ID:84

Match the cell structure components given in Group I with appropriate functions from Group II.

Group IGroup II
(P) Cell membrane(I) Nutrient transport
(Q) Purple membrane(II) Photosynthesis
(R) Cisternae(III) Active transport
(S) Outer membrane(IV) Protein glycosylation
(V) Light-driven proton transport

QUESTION ID:85

Match the antibiotics given in Group I with appropriate targets from Group II.

Group IGroup II
(P) Nalidixic acid(I) RNA polymerase
(Q) Tetracycline(II) DNA gyrase
(R) Erythromycin(III) DNA polymerase
(S) Rifampin(IV) 50S ribosomal subunit
(V) Aminoacyl tRNA

QUESTION ID:86

Acorn worms (Saccoglassus sp.) belong to which ONE of the following Phyla?

QUESTION ID:87

A population of Bees develops resistance to pesticides and the trait gets fixed within a few generations. This is an example of

QUESTION ID:88

The nature of the polymorphic DNA fragment used for mapping is

QUESTION ID:89

The sex of a Drosophila melanogaster, which has 4 copies of X-chromosomes and 4 sets of autosomes will be

QUESTION ID:90

Which of the following cations are found in higher concentration in extracellular fluid as compared to intracellular fluid in animals?

QUESTION ID:91

Detoxification of alcohol occurs in liver cells where peroxisomal enzymes remove hydrogen from it, which is

QUESTION ID:92

When cells are treated with cyanide, which ONE of the following organelles will have the highest level of cyanide inside?

QUESTION ID:93

Toxoplasmosis in humans is caused by Toxoplasma gondii, an obligate intracellular parasite with two different life cycles, sexual and asexual. The sexual cycle occurs in which ONE of the following definitive hosts?

QUESTION ID:94

Which ONE of the following is often a life-threatening systemic inflammatory response?

QUESTION ID:95

During the gastrulation stage of amphibian development, ectoderm formation takes place by the expansion of epithelial cell sheet over mesodermal cells. This type of cell movement is termed as

QUESTION ID:96

In a population, 600 individuals have MM blood group, 300 have MN blood group and 100 have NN blood group. What will be the frequencies of M and N alleles in this population?

QUESTION ID:97

The molecules, hexanoic acid, lysine, histidine and glucose, each contain 6 carbon atoms, but have completely different properties due to the presence of different functional groups. Which ONE of these molecules has a high calorific value?

QUESTION ID:98

The primary function of polysaccharides attached to glycoproteins in the animal cell membrane is to

QUESTION ID:99

Which ONE of the following mechanisms is used to coordinate the expression of multiple, related genes in eukaryotic cells?

QUESTION ID:100

In an experiment involving development of 64-cell stage sea urchin, an isolated animal hemisphere was combined with isolated micromeres. Which ONE of the following will be the resulting structure?

QUESTION ID:101

Glycoprotein hormones, hCG and eCG, are synthesized in women and mares respectively, during pregnancy. Both of these chorionic gonadotropin hormones

QUESTION ID:102

Entamoeba histolytica is an intestinal parasite that causes dysentery in humans. This parasite resides in the isotonic environment of intestine and other tissues in the human body and does not possess contractile vacuoles. If this parasite is placed in fresh water, it will

QUESTION ID:103

In an experiment involving Drosophila development, a large amount of purified bicoid mRNA was injected into the posterior end of a wild-type embryo, the resulting developing embryo will have

QUESTION ID:104

The migratory desert locust, Schistocerca gregaria, exists in two mutually exclusive forms: a short-winged, uniformly colored, solitary insect and a long-winged, brightly colored, gregarious morph. These phenotypes depend on crowding. Such phenotypic plasticity is called

QUESTION ID:105

Given below is the list of animals and their respective characteristics.

AnimalsCharacteristics
I. Sea anemonei. Three pairs of jointed legs
II. Blueflyii. Diploblastic acoelomate
III. Starfishiii. Collar cells
IV. Spongeiv. Tube feet

Which ONE of the following represents the correct match?

QUESTION ID:106

Bread staling is caused by _________.

QUESTION ID:107

The grades of tea in the increasing order of their leaf size are ____, _____ and _____ .

QUESTION ID:108

Fruit juice is being pasteurized in a tubular heat exchanger. The retention time in holding tube of 0.2 m² cross sectional area is 3 seconds. If the flow rate of juice is 0.4 m3 s-1, the length of the holding tube in m, is _____

QUESTION ID:109

The oil, which experiences flavor reversion even at the lower peroxide value is _______.

QUESTION ID:110

80 kg of wheat containing 10 kg of moisture has been dried to a moisture content of 8% wet basis in 3 hours under constant rate period of drying. The drying rate in kg h-1 is _____

QUESTION ID:111

The rate of cream separation in a disc bowl centrifuge can be increased by ______ .

QUESTION ID:112

Rigor mortis is caused due to __________ .

QUESTION ID:113

Oxygen is permeating through an EVOH film of thickness ‘t’ and solubility coefficient ‘S’. If diffusivity of oxygen through the film is ‘D’, then permeability of oxygen through the film will be ______

QUESTION ID:114

Condensing steam is used to heat vegetable oil in a double pipe co-current heat exchanger. If the inlet and outlet temperature of steam are Thi and Tho, and for vegetable oil Tci and Tco respectively, the log mean temperature difference (TLM ) will be _______

QUESTION ID:115

To produce Blue veined cheese, the curd is inoculated with strains of ________.

QUESTION ID:116

Match the food spoilage organisms given in Column I with the associated foods given in Column II

Column IColumn II
P. Clostridium botulinum1. Fish
Q. Salmonella spp.2. Cooked starch foods
R. Vibrio parahaemolyticus3. Meat, egg and poultry
S. Bacillus cereus4. Canned foods

QUESTION ID:117

Fluid is flowing inside a pipe of radius ‘R’ in fully developed laminar flow. If the velocity of the fluid at the centre at a distance ‘L’ is ‘v max ’, velocity at radial distance of ¾ (R) will be __times vmax

QUESTION ID:118

The amount of sugar to be added (kg) to 40 kg of mango pulp to increase its total soluble solids from 20% wt. to 65% wt. is ________

QUESTION ID:119

a) Assertion: Acidulates are added in soft drinks to provide a buffering action.
r) Reason: Buffers tend to prevent changes in pH and prevent excessive tartness.
Choose the correct answer from the following

QUESTION ID:120

The D121 and Z values for C. botulinum spores in canned food are 0.2 min and 10 oC, respectively. Total time required in min, to reduce the spores from 102 to 10-6 at 111 oC is _______ .

QUESTION ID:121

In a typical Psychrometric Chart shown below, the processes OP, OQ and OR related to air water vapor mixture are _____, _______ and __________.

QUESTION ID:122

Match the enzymes in Column I with their functions in Column II

Column IColumn II
P. Amylase1. Conversion of sucrose to glucose and fructose
Q. Invertase2. Softening of dough
R. Phosphatase3. Effectiveness of pasteurization
S. Protease4. Conversion of starch to maltose

QUESTION ID:123

match the terms in Column I with their most appropriate description in Column II

Column I                  Column II
P. Enrichment1. Overcome the deficiency of nutrients by mixing of two plant sources
Q. Fortification2. Overcome the deficiency of nutrients from a synthetic source
R. Supplementation3. Restoration of nutrients which are lost during processing
S. Complementation4. Addition of nutrients which may or may not originally be present

QUESTION ID:124

Match the products in Column I with their Original Phase in Column II

Column I  Column II                      
P. Milk1. Colloidal
Q. Butter2. Solution
R. Lactose3. Water in oil emulsion
S. Casein4. Oil in water emulsion

QUESTION ID:125

a) Assertion: Presence of low sulphur containing amino acids makes casein in milk to boil, sterilize and concentrate without coagulation even at higher temperatures.
r) Reason: This is due to the restricted formation of di-sulphide bonds resulting in increased stability.
Choose the correct answer from the following