Menu

Previous Year Questions

Performance Meter

0%

TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

Which of the following is NOT a tenet of frontier ethics in a sustainable society? 

QUESTION ID:2

Which of the following inter-governmental conferences recommended Environmental Education to cater to all ages and socio-professional groups in the Which of the following inter-governmental conferences recommended Environmental Education to cater to all ages and socio-professional groups in the

QUESTION ID:3

Average salinity of sea water is

QUESTION ID:4

Most plants can absorb  nitrogen only in the form of

QUESTION ID:5

Persistence of DDT in environment is NOT due to

QUESTION ID:6

Grazing food chain consists of

QUESTION ID:7

Species area relationship predicts

QUESTION ID:8

Estimates of the biologically productive land and sea area needed to provide renewable  resources  that  a population  consumes  and  to  absorb  the  waste  it generates is called a

QUESTION ID:9

With the change in environmental conditions, species that are not adapted to such changed conditions disappear. This phenomenon is called

QUESTION ID:10

Compute the speed of geostrophic wind blowing parallel to the isobars in thenorthern hemisphere at latitude of 40° N. The spacing between the isobars is 200km and pressure difference is 4 mb. The altitude is 5600 m above sea level, wherethe air temperature is -25°( and air density is 0.70 kg/ and Earth's rotation (Q) = 7.3 X 1 o-5radian/sec]

QUESTION ID:11

Elements  which are NOT easily accomodated in the structures of the principal igneous  minerals are called

QUESTION ID:12

Destruction of ocean floor occurs at

QUESTION ID:13

During the estimation  of geothermal resources, which of the following  is NOT considered?


QUESTION ID:14

Shale  gas is a natural gas which is mainly dominated  by

QUESTION ID:15

Gas hydrates are NOT produced  through

QUESTION ID:16

Which component of coal cannot be determined under proximate analysis?

QUESTION ID:17

Bioenergy is a form of

QUESTION ID:18

Behavior of  the  plume,  when  stack  is under  temperature inversion  layer,  is termed as

QUESTION ID:19

Calculate hardness in units of mg/I as CaC03 of a ground water sample having ca++ ion concentration of 100 mg/

QUESTION ID:20

Which  of the following sound level existed for maximum duration as per LN concept?

QUESTION ID:21

The  time  between  successive  peaks  or  between  successive  troughs  of  the sinusoidal sound wave is called

QUESTION ID:22

Naturally occuring radioactive gas which is also produced by radioactive decay of uranium and has the potential to concentrate in buildings and homes is

QUESTION ID:23

A natural or human made depression in which solid waste is dumped, compressed and daily covered with a layer of dirt, is referred as

QUESTION ID:24

Plastic   waste   management rules   were first  notified   by   the   Ministry   of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in India in the year 

QUESTION ID:25

Process of thermal degradation of solid waste in the absence of oxygen is referred to as

QUESTION ID:26

Which  one  of  the  following  is  NOT  the  preferred  sustainable  strategy  for reducing solid waste?

QUESTION ID:27

The abandoned, idled or under-used industrial and commercial facilities, where expansion or redevelopment is complicated by real or perceived contamination, are defined as

QUESTION ID:28

The notification  of Environmental  Impact  Assessment  under the provision  of Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986 was carried out for

QUESTION ID:29

Which one of the following fundamental duties makes sure that every citizen of India  protects and improves  the natural  environment  including  forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife,
and has compassion for living creatures?

QUESTION ID:30

Which one of the following is NOT a product-based tool of environmental preventive management?

QUESTION ID:31

The functional relationship of soil(s) is expressed in terms of s = cl + o + r + ... ,where cl is climate, o is organism, and r is relief. This type of relationship is considered as:

QUESTION ID:32

A chart  which displays  distribution of weather  conditions by well  defined weather symbols on maps covering wide regions of the earth's surface at a given time is termed as

QUESTION ID:33

The correlation coefficient between two variables X andY  was 0.6 (r,) and that between a and b was 0.3 (r2). Which one of the following is TRUE with regard to interpretation of the values of r, and r2?

QUESTION ID:34

How many  National Missions form  the  core  of  the  National Action Plan  on Climate Change (NAPCC) to  focus  on  promoting understanding of  climate change, adaptation and 
mitigation, energy efficiency and  natural  resource conservation?

QUESTION ID:35

Who led  the work  ofTARUN BHARAT SANGH which  made  water  available round the year in the wells?

QUESTION ID:36

Which of the following is related to 'MARRAKESH ACCORDS'?

QUESTION ID:37

In coastal marine estuaries and bays, eutrophication is linked to harmful algal blooms causing widespread fatalities in marine organisms. This phenomenon is called

QUESTION ID:38

Determining  the concentration of aflatoxin in peanut butter and calculating the dose an average person would receive is referred as

QUESTION ID:39

Which of the following are the standard (average) sea level pressure?
A. 101325 Nm· 2
B. 14.69595 psi
C. 29.92126 inch Hg
D.10.33227 m H20
E.1013.25kPa
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:40

Choose the correct statements
A. VOC, NOx and sunlight are essential for photochemical smog.
B. Photochemical smog is predominantly formed during the summer season. 
C. NOz dissociates by sunlight at 300-400 nm.
D. Molecular 02  dissociate by sunlight and provide atomic 0 for 03  formation in
troposphere.
E. Tropospheric 03  concentration is maximum at noon on a given day. 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:41

The elemental analysis in an environmental sample can be performed using
A. UU-VIS spectrophotometer
B.AAS
C.ICP-OES
D.XRF
E.XRD
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:42

Choose the correct statements
A. Temperature has a effect in disinfection treatment of water. 
B. pH controls the amount of HOCI and OCI in water.
C. Cl2 gas used for disinfection forms HCI as a product in water.
D. Disinfection action is because ofHOCI formed and not due to Cb gas.
E. Combined chlorine exist in water due to combination of HOCI with NH3 and organic compounds.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:43

Choose the correct statement

A. UV-C breaks down 02 molecule in the stratosphere.

B. A 1% decrease in the overhead 03 in the stratosphere results in 2% increase in UV-B intensity at the ground level.

C. UV-A is biologically, the least harmful.

D. UV-B helps in 03 dissociation in the stratosphere.

E. Chapman mechanism deals with both, 03 formation and destruction, in the stratosphere.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:44

Metals used in wood preservatives are
A. Cu 
B. As 
C.Se 
D.Cr 
E.Mo
Choose  the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:45

The  biotic structure  of the ecosystem is characterized by the composition of the biological  community including:
A. species  numbers
B. biomass
C. life-form
D. life-history  
E. spatial distribution
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:46

The  international stable isotope  standard  Vienna  Peedee  Belemnite  (VPDB)
is used for the following stable isotope systems:
A) 34S/32S
B) 2H/1H
C) 18O/16O
D) 16N/15N
E) 13C/12C
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:47

Orthoclace weathers to produce
A. silica
B. dissolved K ion
C. smectite
D. kaolinite
E. dissolved biocarbonate ion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:48

The variability in height of tropopause is dependent on following factors
A. Longitude
B. Latitude
C. Temperature
D. Season
E. Vegetation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:49

Which  of the following  are NOT Thorium minerals?
A. Monazite
B. Thorite
C. Tonalite
D. Actinolite
Choose  the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:50

Which  of the following rocks act as hydrocarbon reservoirs?
A. Sandstone
8. Limestone
C. Shale
D. Mudstone
Choose  the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:51

Criteria pollutant  under  National  Ambient  Air Quality  Standards  (NAAQS)
are
A.  co
B.  C02
C.  03
D. S02
E. no3
Choose the correct answer  from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:52

Which of the following can introduce acidity in soils?
A. Presence of soluble aluminium
B. Mine tailing deposits
C. Thermal power plant emissions
D. Leaching of basic cations
E. Leaching of Si from Silicate minerals
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:53

Air pollution control techniques used primarily to control particulate matter pollution in ambient atmosphere are
A. Bag houses
B. Limestone injection multistage burner (LIMB)
C. Cyclone collectors
D. Catalytic converters
E. Electrostatic precipitators
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:54

Choose the correct statements
A. Increase in temperature reduces DO in lake water.
B. Agricultural run-off introduces turbidity in lake water.
C. Sewage discharge  increases  both DO and BOD in lake water. 
D. Enrichment of nutrients  speed-up the aging of lakes.
E. Atmospheric exchange and photosynthesis introduces  DO in lake water. 
Choose the correct  answer  from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:55

Which  of the following  greenhouse gases  are  not emitted  from  solid  waste landfills?
A.CH4
B. C02
C. SF6
D.03
E. N20
Choose the correct  answer  from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:56

Which  of the following  are NOT objectives of the Environment (Protection) Act. 1986?
A. Prevention of hazards to all living creatures  (plants, animals and human) and property
B. Conservation of the natural heritage
C. Check on soil erosion and denundation in catchment areas in rivers, lakes and reservoirs
D. Maintenance of a harmonious relationship   between  humans  and  their environment
E. Increase in productivity  of forests to meet the natural needs
Choose the correct  answer  from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:57

Which  of the following  are correct representations of standard  deviation?



 

Choose the correct answer  from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:58

Which of the following  sites found suitable for the introduction of Cheetah are situated in the state ofRajasthan?
A. Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary
B. Madhav National Park
C. Mukundara Hills Tiger Reserve 
D. Nauradehi  Wildlife Sanctuary 
E. Shergarh  Wildlife  Sanctuary
Choose  the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:59

Which ofthe following are covered under the National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem?
A. Himalayan Glaciers
B. Institutional Capacities
C. Biodiversity Conservation
D. Wildlife Conservation
E. Traditional Knowledge
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:60

Which of the following States/Ufs have more than thirty Wildlife Sanctuaries?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Maharashtra
E. Rajasthan  
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:61

For a moderately asymmetrical (non-symmetrical) distribution, mean, mode, and median obey the following relation
A. Mean =Mode =Median
B. Mode= Mean- 3(Mean-Median)
C. Mean - Median = 1/3 (Mean - Mode)
D. Mean - Mode = 3 (Median - Mean) 
E. Mode- Median = 3 (Mean)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:62

Choose the correct statements
A. Basel convention was on transboundary movement of toxic waste. 
B. Kyoto protocol was on banning ofproduction ofCFCs.
C. Montreal protocol was on controlling Global warming.
D. Earth Summit in the year 2002 was held in Johannesburg.
E. Convention on Biodiversity (CBD) was held in the year 1995. 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:63

Read the following statements
A. Systemic insecticides kill insects only after moving through the system of the plant hosting the target insect.
B. Contact pesticides enter the target pest upon direct application.
C. Contact pesticides/insecticides  or its residue kill target plants or insects on direct application
D. If a particular insect does not feed on the plant, it cannot be harmed by systemic insecticides.
E. Contact pesticides are generally used only for specific insects occuring on specific plants/crops.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:64

Match LISt I WIth LISt II

 List I List II
 A. 0.52 - 0.60 Jlm I. Absorption band of healthy vegetation.
 B. 0.63 - 0.69 Jlm II. Responsive to amount of vegetation biomass/leaf area. 
 C. 0.76 - 0.90 Jlm III. Sensitive to turgidity or amount of water in plants.
 D. 1.55 - 1.75 Jlm IV. Green reflectance of healthy vegetation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:\

QUESTION ID:65

Match List I with List II

 List I (Term)                   List II (Definition)
 A. Sympatric speciation

 I. The process by which organisms adapt to changed environmental conditions to

form new species in a relatively short period. 

 B. Parapatric speciation II. The process of differentiation and acquiring reproductive isolation within the area.
 C. Adaptive radiation III. Population evolving in different geographical regions due to isolation.
 D. Allopatric speciation IV. The process of speciation which occurs between adjacent populations within habitat.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:66

Match List I with List II

 List I (Author) List II (Concept of ecological niche)
 A. Charles Eltan (1927) I. The activity range of each species along every dimension of the environment.
 B. G.F. Gause (1934) II. The intensity of competition between species suggests the degree to which their niches overlap. 
 C. David Lack (1947) III. The place of species in the biological environment, its relationship to food and predators.
 D. G. E. Hutchinson (1959) IV. Niche relationships could provide a basis for evolutionary diversification of species.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:67

Match List I with List II

 List I (Types of interaction) List II (Nature of interaction)
 A. Parasitism I. The predator generally larger than prey have positive interaction while prey have negative interaction. 
 B. Mutualism II. Interaction favourable to both and obligatory.
 C. Predation III. The parasite generally smaller than the host benefitted while the host have negative interaction.
 D. Commensalism IV. The commensal benefits while the host remains unaffected.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:68

Match List I with List II 

List I (Name)List II (Parameter)
A. contourI. Density
B. IsohyetII. Height
C. IsopycnicIII. Wind direction
D. IsogonIV. Precipitation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:69

Match List I with List II 

List IList II Hardness Mohs
A. CalciteI. 7
B. TopazII. 5
C. ApatiteIII. 3
D. QuartzIV. 8
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:70

Match List I with List II about Chemical composition of coal 

List I - ElementList II -
A. CarbonI. 2- 20
B. HydrogenII. 60- 90
C. OxygenIII. 1 - 12
D. NitrogenIV. 1 - 3

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:71

Match List I with List II 

List IList II
A. ScopingI. Determine significance and social importance of measured impacts, particularly adverse impacts
B. EvaluationII. Comply with terms and conditions and to monitor environmental impacts
C. ES ReviewIII. Identify key issues and impacts to establish study limits
D. MonitoringIV. Systematic appraisal of the quality of EIS and compliance with legislation or modification required

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:72

Match  List I with List II

 List I - Normal Distributed Data List II - Percent of Area Covered 
 A. Fiftieth percentile ± 1SD I. 50%
 B. Mode ± 2SD II. 68%
 C. Second Quartile ± 3SD III. 95%
 D. Mean ± 3SD IV. 99.9%

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Answer: Drop

QUESTION ID:73

Match  List I with List II

 List I (Reservoir) List II (River) 
 A. Maithon I. Betwa
 B. Matatila II. Baskar
 C. Nizam Sagar III. Damodar
 D. Pong IV. Marjna

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:74

Arrange  the following   radiations of   the   electromagnetic  spectrum   m increasing  order of wave length.
A. Visible 
B. Near IR 
C. X-Ray
D. Ultra violet
E. Thermal  IR
Choose  the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:75

Arrange the following  elements of image interpretation in decreasing order of complexity.
A. Aspect
B. Association
C. Location  
D. Pattern
E. Texture
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:76

Arrange the following  rocks in increasing metamorphic grade.
A. Gneiss
8. Slate
C. Migmatite
D. Phyllite
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:77

Correct   sequence   of   mineralisation from  high   temperature   to low temperature during fractional  crystallisation of magma is
A. Olivine
B. Amphibole
C. Pyroxene
D. Biotite
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:78

Arrange the following coal types as per their increasing carbon content.
A. Lignite
B. Peat
C. Sub-bituminous
D. Anthracite  
E. Bituminous
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:79

Correct order of soil horizons starting from top surface to bottom is
A.O 
B.A 
C.B 
D.E 
E.C
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:80

Arrange  the following stages of decomposition  of landfill materials in their preferred sequence from initial to last
A. Acid phase
B. Aerobic phase
C. Unsteady methanogenesis
D. Steady methanogenesis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:81

Following are the common procedural steps in ecological impact analysis process. Arrange them from the first to the last step.
A. Focussing
B. Impact Assessment  
C. Impact Evaluation 
D. Impact Mitigation 
E. Scoping
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:82

The three monthly moving average for rainfall in New Delhi for the monsoon periods, 2019, 2021 and 2022 was to be estimated. 
In calculation of the 95% confidence interval for rainfall, arrange the following sequence of steps in correct order.
A. Choose confidence coefficient of 95%.
B. Plot a time series graph on available data. 
C. Calculate three year moving average.
D. Compute the standard error for estimate. 
E. Compute sample statistic 't',
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:83

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion  (A)  :  Natural  Ecosystems  are  less  vulnerable  to  catastrophic
changes but adapted to weather changes.
Reason (R): Natural Ecosystems are mature from a succession point of view and rich in biotic diversity with less synchronisation of growth.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options
given below:

QUESTION ID:84

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Humic acid is less soluble in acid solution compared to fulvic acid.
Reason  (R)  : Molecular  weight  of  humic  acid  is  100  to  1000  times  higher compared to fulvic acid and also its oxygen content is lower.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:

QUESTION ID:85

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Soluble phosphorus is referred to as soluble reactive phosphorus and is a limiting nutrient in aquatic systems.
Statement II: Speed of phosphorus movement between biotic and a biotic components, makes it difficult to differentiate between Zooplankton - p, bacterial-p, algae - p or even inorganic-p.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:

QUESTION ID:86

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Alien species are a significant direct threat affecting 30% of all threatened birds, 15% of all threatened plants and 10% of all threatened mammals.
Statement  II: At ecosystem  level, alien species  affect structural  diversity,
cause local extinction of native species, change fire and nutrient regimes and nutrient cycling patterns as well as produce allelochemical substances.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:87

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: With reference to solid waste, 'Rubbish' includes both combustible and non-combustible solid waste.
Statement II: Trash is part of rubbish but rubbish does not include garbage.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:88

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Past data records help in forecasting weather conditions.
Statement  II: The satistical  methods of correlation  help ONLY in forecasting weather conditions.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:

QUESTION ID:89

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Species diversity, also referred to as biodiversity, is an essential part of proper ecosystem structure and functioning and ecosystem services. Speciation, the formation of new species, and extinction, the permanent loss of species, are the major components of changes in the earth's biological diversity. Over the entire period of life on earth, a few billion years, some plant and animal species have disappeared and new species have appeared as a result of natural evolutionary processes. The background rate of extinction (or normal extinction rate) is a measure of the rate of species disappearance due to natural processes operating under normal conditions. The rate has been determined to approximately five extinctions per year on average over geological time. Much greater rates of extinction have occurred during specific periods in earth's history. These events, called mass extinctions, took place approximately  440, 360, 250, 200, and 65 million years ago. The causes of these extinction events were natural factors such as volcanic  eruptions  and asteroid impacts. These natural processes  produced major  changes  in  climate  and  habitats  to  which  many  species  could  not adequately adapt. These events are estimated to have caused the extinction of 50 to 96 % of species present at each time. The current extinction rate is estimated
to be anywhere from 10 to 1000 times the background rate of extinction, with the rate varying across taxonomic groups. This is the result of a myriad of human activities and their impacts over and above natural factors. The current climate change scenario is changing and accelerating  the rate of species extinction  by reducing the time plants and animals have to adapt to changes in ecosystem conditions. Further complicating this issue is the fact that biodiversity is unevenly distributed across the planet, where more than 113 of the known land plants and vertebrates confined to 2% of the planet surface, the so called, biodiversity hostpots.
Dinosaurs disappeared from the planet Earth during the mass extinction event of

QUESTION ID:90


Read the given  passage and answer  the questions that follow.
Species diversity, also referred to as biodiversity, is an essential part of proper ecosystem structure and functioning and ecosystem services. Speciation, the formation of new species, and extinction, the permanent loss of species, are the major components of changes in the earth's biological diversity. Over the entire period of life on earth, a few billion years, some plant and animal species have disappeared and new species have appeared as a result of natural evolutionary processes. The background rate of extinction (or normal extinction rate) is a measure of the rate of species disappearance due to natural processes operating under normal conditions. The rate has been determined to approximately five extinctions per year on average over geological time. Much greater rates of extinction have occurred during specific periods in earth's history. These events, called mass extinctions, took place approximately 440, 360, 250, 200, and 65 million years ago. The causes of these extinction events were natural factors such as volcanic  eruptions  and asteroid impacts. These natural processes  produced major  changes  in  climate  and  habitats  to  which  many  species  could  not adequately adapt. These events are estimated to have caused the extinction of 50 to 96 % of species present at each time. The current extinction rate is estimated to be anywhere from 10 to 1000 times the background rate of extinction, with the rate varying across taxonomic groups. This is the result of a myriad of human activities and their impacts over and above natural factors. The current climate change scenario is changing and accelerating the rate of species extinction by reducing the time plants and animals have to adapt to changes in ecosystem conditions. Further complicating this issue is the fact that biodiversity is unevenly distributed across the planet, where more than 113 of the known land plants and vertebrates confined to 2% of the planet surface, the so called, biodiversity hostpots.
Which one is NOT a natural factor for mass extinction?

QUESTION ID:91

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Species diversity, also referred to as biodiversity, is an essential part of proper ecosystem structure and functioning and ecosystem services. Speciation, the formation of new species, and extinction, the permanent loss of species, are the major components of changes in the earth's biological diversity. Over the entire period of life on earth, a few billion years, some plant and animal species have disappeared  and new species have appeared as a result of natural evolutionary processes. The background rate of extinction (or normal extinction rate) is a measure of the rate of species disappearance due to natural processes operating under normal conditions. The rate has been determined to approximately five extinctions per year on average over geological time. Much greater rates of extinction have occurred during specific periods in earth's history. These events, called mass extinctions, took place approximately  440, 360, 250, 200, and 65 million years ago. The causes of these extinction events were natural factors such as volcanic  eruptions  and asteroid impacts. These natural processes  produced major  changes  in  climate  and  habitats  to  which  many  species  could  not adequately adapt. These events are 
estimated to have caused the extinction of 50 to 96 o/o of species present at each time. The current extinction rate is estimated to be anywhere from 10 to 1000 times the background rate of extinction, with the rate varying across taxonomic groups. This is the result of a myriad of human activities and their impacts over and above natural factors. The current climate change scenario is changing and accelerating  the rate of species extinction  by reducing the time plants and animals have to adapt to changes in ecosystem conditions. Further complicating this issue is the fact that biodiversity is unevenly distributed across the planet. where more than 1/3 of the known land plants and vertebrates confined to 2% of the planet surface, the so called, biodiversity hostpots.
Which of the following is not an example of ecosystem service?

QUESTION ID:92

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Species diversity, also referred to as biodiversity, is an essential part of proper ecosystem structure and functioning and ecosystem services. Speciation, the formation of new species, and extinction, the permanent loss of species, are the major components of changes in the earth's biological diversity. Over the entire period of life on earth, a few billion years, some plant and animal species have disappeared  and new species have appeared as a result of natural evolutionary processes. The background rate of extinction (or normal extinction rate) is a measure of the rate of species disappearance due to natural processes operating under normal conditions. The rate has been determined to approximately five extinctions per year on average over geological time. Much greater rates of extinction have occurred during specific periods in earth's history. These events, 
called mass extinctions, took place approximately 440, 360, 250, 200, and 65 million years ago. The causes of these extinction events were natural factors such as volcanic  eruptions  and asteroid impacts. These natural processes  produced major  changes  in  climate  and  habitats  to  which  many  species  could  not adequately adapt. These events are estimated to have caused the extinction of 50 to 96 o/o of species present at each time. The current extinction rate is estimated to be anywhere from 10 to 1000 times the background rate of extinction, with the rate varying across taxonomic groups. This is the result of a myriad of human activities and their impacts over and above natural factors. The current climate change scenario is changing and accelerating the rate of species extinction by reducing the time plants and animals have to adapt to changes in ecosystem conditions. Further complicating this issue is the fact that biodiversity is unevenly distributed across the planet. 
where more than 1/3 of the known land plants and vertebrates confined to 2% of the planet surface, the so called, biodiversity hostpots.
Major cause of species extinction in modem time could be

QUESTION ID:93

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Species diversity, also referred to as biodiversity, is an essential part of proper ecosystem structure and functioning and ecosystem services. Speciation, the formation of new species, and extinction, the permanent loss of species, are the major components of changes in the earth's biological diversity. Over the entire period of life on earth, a few billion years, some plant and animal species have
disappeared  and new species have appeared as a result of natural evolutionary processes. The background rate of extinction (or normal extinction rate) is a measure of the rate of species disappearance due to natural processes operating under normal conditions. The rate has been determined to approximately five extinctions per year on average over geological time. Much greater rates of extinction have occurred during specific periods in earth's history. These events, called mass extinctions, took place approximately  440,  360, 250, 200, and 65 million years ago. The causes of these extinction events were natural factors such as volcanic  eruptions  and asteroid impacts. 
These natural processes  produced major  changes  in  climate  and  habitats  to  which  many  species  could  not adequately adapt. These events are estimated to have caused the extinction of 50 to 96 % of species present at each time. The current extinction rate is estimated to be anywhere from 10 to 1000 times the background rate of extinction, with the rate varying across taxonomic groups. This is the result of a myriad of human activities and their impacts over and above natural factors. The current climate change scenario is changing and accelerating the rate of species extinction by reducing the time plants and animals have to adapt to changes in ecosystem conditions. Further complicating this issue is the fact that biodiversity is unevenly distributed across the planet. where more than 1/3 of the known land plants and vertebrates confined to 2% of the planet surface, the so called, biodiversity hostpots.
The Sundaland Biodiversity hotspot includes:

QUESTION ID:94

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Weathering has affected the long term climate of Earth by changing the Carbon dioxide content of the atmosphere through the inorganic carbon cycle. The planet Venus has a dense atmosphere composed mostly of C02, which traps so much solar heat that surface temperature reaches 480°(. Earth has comparatively very little C02 in the atmosphere, that is enough to keep most of the surface above freezing but not too hot to support life. However, when Earth first formed, its atmosphere was probably very much like that of Venus, with much more C02. The inorganic carbon cycle helps to regulate the climate of Earth because C02  is a  greenhouse  gas,  chemical  weathering  accelerates  with  warming,  and  the formation of limestone occurs mostly in warm, tropical oceans. When Earth's climate is warm, chemical weathering and the formation of limestone increase,
drawing  C02 from  the atmosphere, which  cools the climate.  When  the global climate cools, chemical weathering and limestone formation  slow down, allowing C02 to accumulate in the atmosphere  from volcanism, which warms the Earth. 
An increase  in chemical  weathering  can also lead to global cooling by removing more C02 from the atmosphere. For example, the Cenozoic uplift and weathering of large regions of high mountains  such as the Alps and the Himalaya  may have triggered  the global cooling  that culminated in the glaciations of the Pleistocene epoch.
During formation  of Earth  and Venus, their atmospheric compositions were similar.  What  reason  is NOT  responsible for  the  habitable  temperature on Earth?

QUESTION ID:95

Read the given passage and answer the questions  that follow.
Weathering has affected the long term climate of Earth by changing  the Carbon dioxide content of the atmosphere through the inorganic carbon cycle. The planet Venus  has a dense  atmosphere composed mostly  of C02, which traps so much solar heat that surface  temperature reaches 480°(.  Earth has comparatively very little C02 in the atmosphere, that is enough  to keep most of the surface  above freezing but not too hot to support life. However, when Earth first formed, its atmosphere was probably  very much like that of Venus, with much more C02. The inorganic carbon cycle helps to regulate the climate of Earth because  C02 is a  greenhouse  gas,  chemical   weathering  accelerates  with  warming,   and  the formation  of limestone  occurs  mostly  in warm, tropical  oceans. When  Earth's climate  is warm, chemical  weathering and the formation  of limestone  increase, drawing  C02 from  the atmosphere, which  cools the climate.  When  the global climate cools, chemical weathering andlimestone formation slow down, allowing C02 to accumulate in the atmosphere  from volcanism, which warms the Earth. An increase  in chemical  weathering  can also lead to global cooling by removing more C02 from the atmosphere. For example, the Cenozoic uplift and weathering of large regions of high mountains  such as the Alps and the Himalaya  may have triggered  the global cooling  that culminated in the glaciations of the Pleistocene epoch.
Since  the origin of the Earth, C02 is naturally  and continuously being added to the earth's atmosphere through

QUESTION ID:96

Read the given passage and answer the questions  that follow.
Weathering has affected the long term climate  of Earth by changing  the Carbon dioxide content of the atmosphere through the inorganic carbon cycle. The planet Venus  has a dense atmosphere composed  mostly  of C02, which  traps so much solar heat that surface temperature reaches 480°C. Earth has comparatively very little C02 in the atmosphere, that is enough  to keep most of the surface  above freezing  but not too hot to support  life. However,  when  Earth first formed,  its atmosphere was probably  very much like that of Venus, with much more C02. The inorganic carbon cycle helps to regulate the climate of Earth because  C02 is a  greenhouse  gas,  chemical   weathering  accelerates  with  warming,   and  the formation  of limestone  occurs  mostly  in warm,  tropical  oceans. When  Earth's climate  is warm,  chemical  weathering and the formation  of limestone  increase, drawing  C02 from  the atmosphere, which  cools the climate.  When  the global climate cools, chemical weathering and limestone formation  slow down, allowing C02 to accumulate in the atmosphere  from volcanism, which warms the Earth. An increase  in chemical  weathering  can also lead to global cooling by removing more C02 from the atmosphere. For example, the Cenozoic uplift and weathering of large regions of high mountains  such as the Alps and the Himalaya  may have triggered  the global cooling  that culminated in the glaciations of the Pleistocene epoch.
Long  term cooling  of the climate on Earth is controlled  by

QUESTION ID:97

Read  the given passage and  answer the questions that  follow.
Weathering  has affected  the long term climate  of Earth by changing  the Carbon dioxide content of the atmosphere through the inorganic carbon cycle. The planet Venus  has a dense  atmosphere composed  mostly  of C02, which traps so much solar heat that surface  temperature reaches 480°(.  Earth has comparatively very little C02 in the atmosphere, that is enough  to keep most of the surface  above freezing but not too hot to support life. However, when Earth first formed, its atmosphere was probably  very much like that of Venus, with much more C02.
The inorganic carbon cycle helps to regulate the climate of Earth because C02  is a  greenhouse  gas,  chemical  weathering  accelerates  with  warming,  and  the formation of limestone occurs mostly in warm, tropical oceans. When Earth's climate is warm, chemical weathering and the formation of limestone increase, drawing C02 from the atmosphere,  which cools the climate. When the global climate cools, chemical weathering and limestone formation slow down, allowing C02 to accumulate in the atmosphere from volcanism, which warms the Earth. An increase in chemical weathering can also lead to global cooling by removing more C02 from the atmosphere. For example, the Cenozoic uplift and weathering of large regions of high mountains such as the Alps and the Himalaya may have triggered the global cooling that culminated in the glaciations of the Pleistocene epoch.
limestone is primarily

QUESTION ID:98

Read  the given  passage and answer  the questions that follow.
Weathering has affected the long term climate of Earth by changing the Carbon dioxide content of the atmosphere through the inorganic carbon cycle. The planet Venus has a dense atmosphere composed mostly of C02,  which traps so much solar heat that surface temperature reaches 480°C. Earth has comparatively very little C02 in the atmosphere,  that is enough to keep most of the surface above freezing but not too hot to support life. However, when Earth first formed, its atmosphere was probably very much like that of Venus, with much more COz. The inorganic carbon cycle helps to regulate the climate of Earth because COz is a  greenhouse  gas,  chemical  weathering  accelerates  with  warming,  and  the formation of limestone occurs mostly in warm, tropical oceans. When Earth's climate is warm, chemical weathering and the formation of limestone increase, drawing COz from the atmosphere, which cools the climate. When the global climate cools, chemical weathering and limestone formation slowdown, allowing C02 to accumulate in the atmosphere from volcanism, which warms the Earth. An increase in chemical weathering can also lead to global cooling by removing more COz from the atmosphere. For example, the Cenozoic uplift and weathering of large regions of high mountains such as the Alps and the Himalaya may have triggered the global cooling that culminated in the glaciations of the Pleistocene epoch.
Which one of the following is not an expected signature of glaciation in the Himalayas

QUESTION ID:99

Ecological engineering is based on which one of the four classes of ecotechnology?

Answer : Drop

QUESTION ID:100

What is the maximum period valid for granting Environmental Clearance (EC) for mining projects?

QUESTION ID:101

Consider the following statements regarding reactions in moderately acidic soils:
A. Base saturation is higher than that in the strongly acidic soils.
B. Free aluminium ions are abundant in soil solutions.
C. Aluminium hydroxy ions act as exchangeable cations.
D. Small amounts of readily exchangeable hydrogen contributes to soil acidity
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:102

Given below are two statements.
Statement I:
Cyclonic wind flow in the northern hemisphere is counter-clockwise.
Statement II:
If you stand with your back to the wind in the northern hemisphere, low pressure will be to your left and high pressure will be to your right.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:103

What is the correct increasing order of following rocks by per cent volume in the earth's crust?
A. Igneous rocks
B. Sedimentary rocks.
C. Metamorphic rocks
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:104

What is the correct sequence in decreasing order of hardness among the following?
A. Gypsum
B. Fluorite
C. Feldspar
D. Topaz
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:105

A random variable X follows Poisson distribution such that probabilities P(X = 1) = P(X = 2) . Now consider the following statements:
A. The mean of this Poisson distribution is 2.
B. The variance of this Poisson distribution is 2.
C. Probability P(X = 0) is equal to e²²
D. Probability P(X = 0) = P(X = 1)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:106

Identify the correct sequence of the following countries/group of countries credited with the highest to the lowest shares of cumulative CO2 emissions to date.
A. USA
B. China
C. EU
D. India
E. Japan
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:107

Relative contribution (%) of the Green House Gases to global warming in decreasing order
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Methane
C. CFC-12
D. Nitrous oxide
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:108

Consider the following statements regarding reactions of pesticides in soils:
A. They may vaporize into the atmosphere without any chemical change.
B. They do not move downward through the soil in solution form.
C. They are resistant to microbial decay.
D. They may be absorbed by plants.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:109

Consider the following regarding the incineration process of solid waste.
A. It is an oxidation process.
B. The two major combustible chemical elements are carbon and hydrogen.
C. Cellulose in the biowaste is transformed into organic acids.
D. Excess source of air is not necessary.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:110

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A: The risks from radioactive liquid wastes are caused under decontamination, solidification and disposal procedures.
Reason R: The chemicals in radioactive liquid wastes are hazardous in nature.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:111

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Hazardous materials such as lead, mercury, and hexavalent chromium in one form or other are present in electronic wastes.
Statement II: Landfilling of electronic waste is the best operation from the environmental viewpoint.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:112

Provision of Extended Producer's Responsibility (EPR) of producer, importer and brand owner for collecting back the waste generated by their product has been in the
A. Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016
B. Construction & Demolition Waste Management Rules, 2016
C. Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016
D. E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016
E. Biomedical Waste Management Rules, 2016
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:113

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Increasing the productivity of forests to meet essential needs is one of the major objectives of the National Forest Policy, 1988.
Statement II: According to the National Forest Policy, 1988, no forest-based enterprise should provide employment to local people on a priority basis.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:114

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Covariance between two variables X and Y determines whether the correlation between them is negative or positive.
Statement II: The product of the standard deviation of two variables X and Y can be both positive or negative.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:115

Consider the following statements regarding skewness:
A. For a positively skewed distribution, the value of the mean is the greatest among the mean, median and mode.
B. For a negatively skewed distribution, the median is greater than the mean.
C. Karl Pearson's coefficient of skewness always lies between the limits +1
D. Bowley's coefficient of skewness always lies between the limits ±1
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:116

Consider the following statements about normal distribution:
A. This distribution is applicable to continuous random variables.
B. It is a symmetrical distribution.
C. The mean of a standard normal distribution is 1.
D. The standard deviation of the standard normal distribution is 1.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:117

Consider the following statements pertaining to sampling theory:
A. The standard deviation of the sampling distribution of a statistic is known as its standard error.
B. The precision of the sample estimate of some population parameter is the reciprocal of the standard error of the sampling distribution of the estimate.
C. A Type - I error in hypothesis testing occurs when we accept a wrong null hypothesis.
D. A Type - II error in hypothesis testing occurs when we reject a true null hypothesis.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:118

Match List I (Instrument) with List II (Function)

 List I (Instrument) List II (Function)
 A. Campbell-Stokes Recorder I. To measure the visible light flux
 B. Pyrheliometer II. To measure total solar irradiance on a plane surface 
 C. Pyranometer III. To measure direct beam solar irradiance
 D. Lux meter IV. To measure the sunshine duration

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:119

Match List I (Analysis) with List II (Analytical techniques

 List I (Analysis) List II (Analytical techniques) 
 A. To analyze organic compounds of pollutants I. SEM
 B. To analyze the elemental composition of pollutants II. XRD
 C. Morphological analysis of pollutants III. FTIR
 D. To analyze crystalline materials of pollutants IV. XRF

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:120

Match List I (Organism) with List II (Ecosystem structure components)

List I

Organism

List-II

 Ecosystem structure components 

 A. Earthworms I. Producer
 B. Grass II. Secondary carnivore
 C. Frogs III. Primary carnivore
 D. Hawks IV. Detrivore

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:121

Match List I (Elements) with List II (Characteristics)

 List I: Elements List II: Characteristics
 A. Lithophile I. Occur mainly as sulfides
 B. Chalcophile II. Gaseous elements do not generally form compounds 
 C. Siderophile III. Occur mainly in oxygen compounds
 D. Atmophile IV. Occur mainly as native elements

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:122

Match List I (Rock types) with List II (Characteristics)

 List I: Rock types List-II: Characteristics                                                                          
 A. Rudaceous I. Rocks consisting mainly of silt and siltstones                              
 B. Arenaceous II. Rocks consisting mainly of gravels, pebbles, cobbles, and boulders
 C. Silt rocks III. Rocks consisting mainly of dust, mud, and clay
 D.    Argillaceous IV. Rocks consisting mainly of sands
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:123

Match List I (Air pollutants) with List II (Control Technique/Equipment)

 List-I: Air pollutants List-II: Control Technique/Equipment 
 A. PM2.5 I. Selective catalytic reduction
 B. SO2 II. Electrostatic precipitator
 C. NOx III. Cyclone collectors
 D. Coarse particulate matter IV. Scrubber

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:124

Match List I (Atmospheric stability) with List II (Lapse Rate)

List-I

Atmospheric stability

List-II

Lapse Rate

 A. Absolutely Stable I. ELR = DALR
 B. Absolutely Unstable II. ELR < DALR
 C. Conditionally Unstable III. ELR > DALR
 D. Dry Neutral IV. SALR < ELR < DALR 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:125

Match List I Statistical Test) with List II (Applications)

          List I

 Statistical test         

       List-II

  Applications                                                                             

 A. X2-test I. Testing the significance of difference of means
 B. One-Way ANOVA II. Testing the significance of a single mean
 C. Paired t-test III. Testing the goodness of fit between theory and experiment
 D. Z-test IV. Comparing more than two sample means
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:126

Match List I (Environmentally significant Days) with List II (Dates)

List-I

 Environmentally significant Days

List-II

Dates

 A. World Ozone Day I. 16 September 
 B. World Habitat Day II. 21 March
 C. World Forest Day III. 5 October
 D. World Water Day IV. 22 March

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:127

Match List-I (Processes) with List-II (Energy Transfer)

 List-I: Processes List-II: Energy Transfer                                                                                         
 A. Conduction I. Energy is transferred by motion of a fluid
 B. Convection II. Energy is transferred in the form of electromagnetic waves through a vacuum.
 C. Radiation III. Energy is transferred between two points in a material different temperatures
 D. Evaporation IV. Energy is lost through a phase change
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:128

A strategy favoured by r-selection is:

QUESTION ID:129

Traditionally membranes have been classified based on the minimum size of the contaminant that is excluded from passing through the particular membrane. Arrange the following in the correct sequence of decreasing pore size
A. Reverse Osmosis
B. Nanofiltration
C. Microfiltration
D. Ultrafiltration
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:130

For a given noise signal, what would be the correct order of noise indices in terms of increasing values?
A. L10
B. L50
C. L1
D. Lgo
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:131

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in the development of a model.
A. Validation
B. Formulation
C. Identification
D. Solution
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:132

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Plants generally reflect radiation highly in the near-infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
Reason R: Plant leaves generally contain high chlorophyll content.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:133

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Tropopause acts as a 'lid' limiting both convection and transport from the troposphere into the higher layers of the atmosphere.
Reason R: At tropopause height and at higher levels, the atmosphere is stable.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:134

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Isomorphous substitution is the source of constant charges on soil silicate clays.
Reason R: Cations of comparable size substitute each other in respective tetrahedral and octahedral sheets in silicate clays.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:135

Yaw control used in wind turbine generator is a:

QUESTION ID:136

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Some countries are immune to the impacts of climate change
Reason R: The net contribution of some countries is less than 1% towards the global CO2 emissions as a whole.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:137

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Solar and wind energy systems require quite large structures relative to power produced.
Reason R: Energy flux densities associated with solar energy and wind energy are on average small.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:138

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) and hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFCs) are used as substitute compounds for chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
Reason R: HCFCs and HFCs are quite susceptible to reaction with OH radicals in the troposphere
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:139

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Regression analysis is suitable for two variables having a linear causal relationship between them.
Reason R: The causal relationship between two variables is never curvilinear.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:140

Given below are two statements.
Statement I: Leslie's matrix population model is a discrete and age-independent model
Statement II: The first row in Leslie's projection matrix represents fertility
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:141

Arrange the environmental movements in chronological order
A. Silent Valley struggle
B. Chipko movement
C. Appiko movement
D. Narmada Bachao movement
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:142

Regarding Bharat Stage (BS-VI) vehicular emissions norms, choose the correct statements:
A. BS (VI) emission norms are equivalent to Euro (VI) norms.
B. BS (VI) norms require the up-gradation of engine and emission control technology
C. BS(VI) norms are applicable to all categories of the vehicles including two, three and four- wheelers.
D. BS (VI) norms do not require any change in fuel quality
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:143

Which among the following atmospheric constituents have a negative radiative forcing?
A. Tropospheric ozone
B. Stratospheric ozone
C. Sulphate Aerosol
D. Nitrous oxide
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:144

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
The colour photograph of Earthrise, taken by Apollo 8 astronaut William A. Anders on December 24, 1968, is a powerful and eloquent image. One leading environmentalist has rightfully described it as "the most influential environmental photograph ever taken". Inspired by the photograph, economist Kenneth E. Boulding summed up the finite nature of our planet as viewed in the context of the vast expanse of space in his metaphor "Spaceship Earth". What had been perceived throughout human history as a limitless frontier had suddenly become a tiny sphere: limited in its resources, crowded by an ever-expanding human population, and threatened by our use of the atmosphere and the oceans as repositories for our consumptive wastes.
Perception of the planet Earth before 1968 was that it had

QUESTION ID:145

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
The colour photograph of Earthrise, taken by Apollo 8 astronaut William A. Anders on December 24, 1968, is a powerful and eloquent image. One leading environmentalist has rightfully described it as "the most influential environmental photograph ever taken". Inspired by the photograph, economist Kenneth E. Boulding summed up the finite nature of our planet as viewed in the context of the vast expanse of space in his metaphor "Spaceship Earth". What had been perceived throughout human history as a limitless frontier had suddenly become a tiny sphere: limited in its resources, crowded by an ever-expanding human population, and threatened by our use of the atmosphere and the oceans as repositories for our consumptive wastes.
Carrying capacity of the Earth is threatened by
A. Human population explosion
B. Irrational use of atmosphere
C. Dumping of consumptive wastes in the ocean
D. Development of space technology

QUESTION ID:146

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
The colour photograph of Earthrise, taken by Apollo 8 astronaut William A. Anders on December 24, 1968, is a powerful and eloquent image. One leading environmentalist has rightfully described it as "the most influential environmental photograph ever taken". Inspired by the photograph, economist Kenneth E. Boulding summed up the finite nature of our planet as viewed in the context of the vast expanse of space in his metaphor "Spaceship Earth". What had been perceived throughout human history as a limitless frontier had suddenly become a tiny sphere: limited in its resources, crowded by an ever-expanding human population, and threatened by our use of the atmosphere and the oceans as repositories for our consumptive wastes.
Perception about the planet Earth is that, it is a

QUESTION ID:147

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
The colour photograph of Earthrise, taken by Apollo 8 astronaut William A. Anders on December 24, 1968, is a powerful and eloquent image. One leading environmentalist has rightfully described it as "the most influential environmental photograph ever taken". Inspired by the photograph, economist Kenneth E. Boulding summed up the finite nature of our planet as viewed in the context of the vast expanse of space in his metaphor "Spaceship Earth". What had been perceived throughout human history as a limitless frontier had suddenly become a tiny sphere: limited in its resources, crowded by an ever-expanding human population, and threatened by our use of the atmosphere and the oceans as repositories for our consumptive wastes.
The metaphor "Spaceship Earth" was used to described the Earth as

QUESTION ID:148

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
The colour photograph of Earthrise, taken by Apollo 8 astronaut William A. Anders on December 24, 1968, is a powerful and eloquent image. One leading environmentalist has rightfully described it as "the most influential environmental photograph ever taken". Inspired by the photograph, economist Kenneth E. Boulding summed up the finite nature of our planet as viewed in the context of the vast expanse of space in his metaphor "Spaceship Earth". What had been perceived throughout human history as a limitless frontier had suddenly become a tiny sphere: limited in its resources, crowded by an ever-expanding human population, and threatened by our use of the atmosphere and the oceans as repositories for our consumptive wastes.
Inference of the passage is that the Earth is an ecosystem of

QUESTION ID:149

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow
The fermentation products prior to 1900 AD were confined to potable alcohol and vinegar. However, the first true large-scale breweries date from the 1700s AD when wooden vats of 1500 barrels capacity were introduced. By the mid-1800s AD, the role of yeasts in alcohol fermentation had been demonstrated independently by Cagniard-Latour, Schwann and Kutzing but it was Louis Pasteur who convinced the scientific world of the obligatory role of micro-organisms in the process. During the 1800s AD, Hansen started his pioneering work for isolating and propagating single yeast cells to produce pure culture. However, many traditional ale-producing breweries still use mixed yeast cultures. Vinegar was originally produced by leaving wine in shallow bowls or partially filled barrels where it was slowly oxidized to vinegar by the development of natural flora. The appreciation of the importance of air in the process led to the development of the 'generator'. Between the years, 1900 AD and 1940 AD, themost important advances were the development in the baker's yeast, solvent fermentation, citric acid production and lactic acid production.
Vinegar is a product of

QUESTION ID:150

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow
The fermentation products prior to 1900 AD were confined to potable alcohol and vinegar. However, the first true large-scale breweries date from the 1700s AD when wooden vats of 1500 barrels capacity were introduced. By the mid-1800s AD, the role of yeasts in alcohol fermentation had been demonstrated independently by Cagniard-Latour, Schwann and Kutzing but it was Louis Pasteur who convinced the scientific world of the obligatory role of micro-organisms in the process. During the 1800s AD, Hansen started his pioneering work for isolating and propagating single yeast cells to produce pure culture. However, many traditional ale-producing breweries still use mixed yeast cultures. Vinegar was originally produced by leaving wine in shallow bowls or partially filled barrels where it was slowly oxidized to vinegar by the development of natural flora. The appreciation of the importance of air in the process led to the development of the 'generator'. Between the years, 1900 AD and 1940 AD, themost important advances were the development in the baker's yeast, solvent fermentation, citric acid production and lactic acid production.
Many traditional ale-producing breweries use

QUESTION ID:151

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow
The fermentation products prior to 1900 AD were confined to potable alcohol and vinegar. However, the first true large-scale breweries date from the 1700s AD when wooden vats of 1500 barrels capacity were introduced. By the mid-1800s AD, the role of yeasts in alcohol fermentation had been demonstrated independently by Cagniard-Latour, Schwann and Kutzing but it was Louis Pasteur who convinced the scientific world of the obligatory role of micro-organisms in the process. During the 1800s AD, Hansen started his pioneering work for isolating and propagating single yeast cells to produce pure culture. However, many traditional ale-producing breweries still use mixed yeast cultures. Vinegar was originally produced by leaving wine in shallow bowls or partially filled barrels where it was slowly oxidized to vinegar by the development of natural flora. The appreciation of the importance of air in the process led to the development of the 'generator'. Between the years, 1900 AD and 1940 AD, themost important advances were the development in the baker's yeast, solvent fermentation, citric acid production and lactic acid production.
Who among the following first developed the method of producing a pure culture of yeasts?

QUESTION ID:152

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow
The fermentation products prior to 1900 AD were confined to potable alcohol and vinegar. However, the first true large-scale breweries date from the 1700s AD when wooden vats of 1500 barrels capacity were introduced. By the mid-1800s AD, the role of yeasts in alcohol fermentation had been demonstrated independently by Cagniard-Latour, Schwann and Kutzing but it was Louis Pasteur who convinced the scientific world of the obligatory role of micro-organisms in the process. During the 1800s AD, Hansen started his pioneering work for isolating and propagating single yeast cells to produce pure culture. However, many traditional ale-producing breweries still use mixed yeast cultures. Vinegar was originally produced by leaving wine in shallow bowls or partially filled barrels where it was slowly oxidized to vinegar by the development of natural flora. The appreciation of the importance of air in the process led to the development of the 'generator'. Between the years, 1900 AD and 1940 AD, themost important advances were the development in the baker's yeast, solvent fermentation, citric acid production and lactic acid production.
In pre-1900s AD, which types of vessels were used in large-scale breweries?

QUESTION ID:153

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow
The fermentation products prior to 1900 AD were confined to potable alcohol and vinegar. However, the first true large-scale breweries date from the 1700s AD when wooden vats of 1500 barrels capacity were introduced. By the mid-1800s AD, the role of yeasts in alcohol fermentation had been demonstrated independently by Cagniard-Latour, Schwann and Kutzing but it was Louis Pasteur who convinced the scientific world of the obligatory role of micro-organisms in the process. During the 1800s AD, Hansen started his pioneering work for isolating and propagating single yeast cells to produce pure culture. However, many traditional ale-producing breweries still use mixed yeast cultures. Vinegar was originally produced by leaving wine in shallow bowls or partially filled barrels where it was slowly oxidized to vinegar by the development of natural flora. The appreciation of the importance of air in the process led to the development of the 'generator'. Between the years, 1900 AD and 1940 AD, themost important advances were the development in the baker's yeast, solvent fermentation, citric acid production and lactic acid production.
Which among the following is one of the oldest products of fermentation technology?

QUESTION ID:154

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.
Assertion (A) : Stratosphere is a strongly layered structure.
Reason. (R) : Stratosphere is neutrally stable.

QUESTION ID:155

The first law of thermodynamics states about

QUESTION ID:156

An air parcel having initial temperature of 15°C rises adiabatically to 2 km height above the surface. What is the final temperature  of the parcel?

QUESTION ID:157

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In clear water, the reflectance is very high in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum
Statement II: Pure water strongly absorbs radiation from the mid-infrared spectral region
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :