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Previous Year Questions

TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

The following table embodies details about the number of Personal Computer (PCs) produced and the percentage of PCs sold by two companies A and B from the year 2014 to 2019. Based on the data in the table, answer the questionWhat is the total number of PCs produced by Company A which remain unsold in all the six years together?

                                              


QUESTION ID:2

What is the ratio of the number of PCs sold by Company B in 2018 to the number of PCs that remained unsold by Company Ain the year 2015?



QUESTION ID:3

What is the difference between the total number of PCs sold and the total number of unsold PCs of Company B in all the six years together?


QUESTION ID:4

The number of PCs sold by Company A in 2015 is what percentage of the number of PCs sold by Company B in the year 2019?


QUESTION ID:5

The number of PCs sold by Company A in year 2017 is what percentage more than the number of PCs unsold by Company B in year 2016?


QUESTION ID:6

Which level of teaching is also designated as ‘exploratory understanding’?

QUESTION ID:7

Identify the characteristics of ‘Field‐independent learner’

Seeks guidance and demonstrations from teacher

Focuses on details of curriculum materials

Likes to compete

Relates concepts to personal experience

Can organize imformation by himself or herself

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:8

Match List I with List II
List I List II
(Teaching Method) (Examples)
Monologic teaching method (I) Cybernetics and computer‐aided instruction
Dialogic teaching method (II) Case studies and tutorials
Action based teaching method (III) Team teaching and demonstration
Self study based teaching method
Simulation and role
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:9

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Engagement in the learning process refers to the amount of time students devote to learning in the classroom.
Statement II : Formative assessment is formal whereas summative assessment is informal.
In the light of the above statements, Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:10

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A) : Teaching support system as provided by ICT based gadgets is intended to optimise learning and interest in
learning material.
Reasons (R) : Any meaningful support in teaching has to be instrumental in augmenting learning conditions and outcomes.
In the light of the above statements, Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:11

Data of research take the forms of words or pictures with the researcher as the key instrument in which of the following
studies?

QUESTION ID:12

Identify the characteristic features of ‘Hypothetico‐deductive research’ paradigm :
Researcher is detached from the study to avoid bias
Researcher becomes immersed in the research situation present or past
The researcher seeks to establish relationships and explains causes of changes in measured social facts
Actual settings are the direct source of data
An attempt is made to set up universal context free generalizations.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:13

Match List I with List II
List I List II
Research Types Goal of Research
Fundamental Research (I) Appraising impact of interventions
Applied Research (II) Amelioration of a given situation
Action of Research (III) Exploring applicability of already established principles
Evaluative Research (IV) Advancing the corpus of knowledge in a field
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:14

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : At every step of research genuineness is to be vouched. Hence the issue of research ethics becomes
germane.
Statement II : ICT application in research is supportive and facilitative rather than mandatory and absolute.
In the light of the above statements, Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:15

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R.
Assertion (A) : Research Hypothesis (H1) cannot be directly verified.
Reasons (R) : Null Hypothesis (H0) is helpful in making a claim by the researcher that his/her findings are not fortuitous or by
chance.
In the light of the above statements, Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:16

Which type of Communication is most difficult in gearing message to an audience?ons given below :

QUESTION ID:17

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Audience noise is potent when the message is controversial.
Statement II : It is impossible for any communication to convert an audience from one viewpoint to another.
In the light of the above statements, Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:18

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R.
Assertion (A) : Research has shown that the two‐step flow theory is oversimplified for every field of interest.
Reasons (R) : People tend to make great use of the media now in their respective interest.
In the light of the above statements, Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:19

Physical barriers to communication are rapidly disappearing, but psychological obstacles remain owing to which of the
following?
(A) By formal language
(B) By visual presentation
(C) By use of technology
(D) By emotional appeal
(E) By cultural attitude
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:20

Match List I with List II.

Elements of Communication Characteristic feature

Source (I) Means used to convey the message

Receiver (II) Set of verbal and nonverbal cues from a source

Message (III) A person who interprets the message

Channel (IV) A person or an event which provides verbal/non verbal cues.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:21

If the selling price is doubled, the profit triples. What would be the profit percentage?

QUESTION ID:22

Mohan buys a second hand television at a cost of Rs. 7,500 and spends Rs. 500 on its repair. Later on he sells it at a cost of Rs. 9,000. How much profit he gets in this process?

QUESTION ID:23

The average age of A, B and C is 25 years. If the average age of A and B is 22 and that of B and C is 23. Then what is the age of B?

QUESTION ID:24

In a cricket match, in the first 20 overs run rate was 4.5. What should be the run rate in the remaining 30 overs to meet a target of 325?

QUESTION ID:25

Which of the following statements is true regarding two contrary propositions?

QUESTION ID:26

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : An informal fallacy is one that may be identified through mere inspection of the form or structure of an
argument.
Statement II : Formal fallacy is one that can be detected only through analysis of the content of the argument.
In the light of the above statements, Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:27

Which of the following statements about blogs in network communication is True?

QUESTION ID:28

Identify the correct order of the following INTEL processors in the increasing order of speed.

80486

8085

Dual Core

Pentium‐III

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:29

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Bus, Ring, Star, and Mesh are types of network protocols.
Statement II : A short‐range radio communication standard that transmits data over short distances upto approximately 30
feet is known as Bluetooth.
In the light of the above statements, Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:30

Which of the following group of statements in the context of Information Technology (IT) is correct?
Mouse, Keyboard, and Plotter are all input devices.
Unix, Windows, and Linux are all operating systems.
Register, Cache Memory, and Hard Disk are all memory modules.
Montior, Printer, and Scanner are all output devices.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:31

Match List I with List II
List I List II
(Computer Terms) (Description)
Processor (I) Part that runs executable programs
RAM (II) Part that stores files permanently
Hard Disk (III) Part that stores instructions and data temporarily for use
Compiler (IV) Part that translates source program to executable program
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:32

A coal fired thermal power plant has an efficiency of 35%. The electricity from the power plant is used entirely for lighting purposes with average efficiency of 20%. What is the overall efficiency of conversion form coal to lighting?

QUESTION ID:33

As per Sustainable Development Goal 3, one of the targets is to reduce under‐5 mortality per 1000 live births to at least as low as

QUESTION ID:34

In a polluted urban area, which of the following constituents of photochemical smog has the least concentration (partsper billion by volume)?

QUESTION ID:35

For drinking and irrigation purposes, the availability of suitable water out of earth’s total water supplies is about less than

QUESTION ID:36

The Indian council of Social Science Research was established for :
strengthening different disciplines
promoting researches in social science
 enhancing quality of social science as a discipline
providing a platform for discussion on social scientists’ concerns
(supporting seminars and conferences organized by Universities
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:37

The first regulatory body in higher education in India was set up under the rubric of :

QUESTION ID:38

Who among the following was the Chairman of University Education Commission (1948)

QUESTION ID:39

For maintenance of standards of teaching examination and research and coordination of University Education which of the following section of UGC act should be referred to?

QUESTION ID:40

The NEP 2020 prioritises the increase in the GER in preschool to secondary level by 100% by the year

QUESTION ID:41

The cost price of 10 items is same as the selling price of N items. If the profit is 25%, then the value of N is? (not correct option)

QUESTION ID:42

Which fallacy is committed in the argument - "Sound is a quality because it is visible

QUESTION ID:43

Which kind of inference is illustrated when one argues that sound must be a quality because t cannot be a substance or an activity or a relation and so on?

QUESTION ID:44

Under which of the following conditions an inference may be categorized as Kevalanvayi?

QUESTION ID:45

Tidal range (R) is a critical factor in determining whether an estuary would be useful for tidal power generation as energy (E) available per tidal cycle depends on scales with R as according to the following relation :

QUESTION ID:46

Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follow:
How much time should you allot for group work? It depends on task complexity, but you must make some more refined
estimates as well. You need to determine the time to devote to group work and time to devote to all groups coming
together to share their contributions. This latter time may be used for group reports, a whole‐class discussion, debriefing to
relate the work experiences of each group to the end product, or some combination of these tasks. Group work can easily
get out of hand in the excitement, controversy, and natural dialogue that can come from passionate discussion. This
possibility requires you to place limits on each stage of the cooperative learning activity, so one stage does not take time
from another and leave the task disjointed and incomplete in your learners’ minds. Most time naturally will be devoted to
the work of individual groups, during which the major portion of the end product will be completed. Individual group work
normally will consume 60% to 80% of the time devoted to the cooperative learning activity. The remaining time must be
divided among individual group presentations and/or whole class discussion and debriefing that places the group work into
the perspective of a single end product. If you plan both group reports and whole class discussion for the same day, be
aware that the discussion probably will get squeezed into a fraction of the time required to make it meaningful. To avoid
this, the group discussion or debriefing for the following class day may be so scheduled so that class members have ample
time to reflect on their group reports and to pull together their own thoughts about the colloborative process, which may or
may not have occured as intended. Providing 15 or 20 minutes at the begining of class the next day is usually enough time
for students to have acquired the proper distance to reflect meaningfully on their experiences of the day before‐and to
learn from them.
What is the main determinant of time allocation in cooperative learning?

QUESTION ID:47

Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follow:
How much time should you allot for group work? It depends on task complexity, but you must make some more refined
estimates as well. You need to determine the time to devote to group work and time to devote to all groups coming
together to share their contributions. This latter time may be used for group reports, a whole‐class discussion, debriefing to
relate the work experiences of each group to the end product, or some combination of these tasks. Group work can easily
get out of hand in the excitement, controversy, and natural dialogue that can come from passionate discussion. This
possibility requires you to place limits on each stage of the cooperative learning activity, so one stage does not take time
from another and leave the task disjointed and incomplete in your learners’ minds. Most time naturally will be devoted to
the work of individual groups, during which the major portion of the end product will be completed. Individual group work
normally will consume 60% to 80% of the time devoted to the cooperative learning activity. The remaining time must be
divided among individual group presentations and/or whole class discussion and debriefing that places the group work into
the perspective of a single end product. If you plan both group reports and whole class discussion for the same day, be
aware that the discussion probably will get squeezed into a fraction of the time required to make it meaningful. To avoid
this, the group discussion or debriefing for the following class day may be so scheduled so that class members have ample
time to reflect on their group reports and to pull together their own thoughts about the colloborative process, which may or
may not have occured as intended. Providing 15 or 20 minutes at the begining of class the next day is usually enough time
for students to have acquired the proper distance to reflect meaningfully on their experiences of the day before‐and to
learn from them.
What can disrupt group work?

QUESTION ID:48

Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follow:
How much time should you allot for group work? It depends on task complexity, but you must make some more refined
estimates as well. You need to determine the time to devote to group work and time to devote to all groups coming
together to share their contributions. This latter time may be used for group reports, a whole‐class discussion, debriefing to
relate the work experiences of each group to the end product, or some combination of these tasks. Group work can easily
get out of hand in the excitement, controversy, and natural dialogue that can come from passionate discussion. This
possibility requires you to place limits on each stage of the cooperative learning activity, so one stage does not take time
from another and leave the task disjointed and incomplete in your learners’ minds. Most time naturally will be devoted to
the work of individual groups, during which the major portion of the end product will be completed. Individual group work
normally will consume 60% to 80% of the time devoted to the cooperative learning activity. The remaining time must be
divided among individual group presentations and/or whole class discussion and debriefing that places the group work into
the perspective of a single end product. If you plan both group reports and whole class discussion for the same day, be
aware that the discussion probably will get squeezed into a fraction of the time required to make it meaningful. To avoid
this, the group discussion or debriefing for the following class day may be so scheduled so that class members have ample
time to reflect on their group reports and to pull together their own thoughts about the colloborative process, which may or
may not have occured as intended. Providing 15 or 20 minutes at the begining of class the next day is usually enough time
for students to have acquired the proper distance to reflect meaningfully on their experiences of the day before‐and to
learn from them.
A major chunk of time in cooperative learning is devoted to which of the following?

QUESTION ID:49

Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follow:
How much time should you allot for group work? It depends on task complexity, but you must make some more refined
estimates as well. You need to determine the time to devote to group work and time to devote to all groups coming
together to share their contributions. This latter time may be used for group reports, a whole‐class discussion, debriefing to
relate the work experiences of each group to the end product, or some combination of these tasks. Group work can easily
get out of hand in the excitement, controversy, and natural dialogue that can come from passionate discussion. This
possibility requires you to place limits on each stage of the cooperative learning activity, so one stage does not take time
from another and leave the task disjointed and incomplete in your learners’ minds. Most time naturally will be devoted to
the work of individual groups, during which the major portion of the end product will be completed. Individual group work
normally will consume 60% to 80% of the time devoted to the cooperative learning activity. The remaining time must be
divided among individual group presentations and/or whole class discussion and debriefing that places the group work into
the perspective of a single end product. If you plan both group reports and whole class discussion for the same day, be
aware that the discussion probably will get squeezed into a fraction of the time required to make it meaningful. To avoid
this, the group discussion or debriefing for the following class day may be so scheduled so that class members have ample
time to reflect on their group reports and to pull together their own thoughts about the colloborative process, which may or
may not have occured as intended. Providing 15 or 20 minutes at the begining of class the next day is usually enough time
for students to have acquired the proper distance to reflect meaningfully on their experiences of the day before‐and to
learn from them.
The members of cooperative learning team should be given enough time 

QUESTION ID:50

Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follow:
How much time should you allot for group work? It depends on task complexity, but you must make some more refined
estimates as well. You need to determine the time to devote to group work and time to devote to all groups coming
together to share their contributions. This latter time may be used for group reports, a whole‐class discussion, debriefing to
relate the work experiences of each group to the end product, or some combination of these tasks. Group work can easily
get out of hand in the excitement, controversy, and natural dialogue that can come from passionate discussion. This
possibility requires you to place limits on each stage of the cooperative learning activity, so one stage does not take time
from another and leave the task disjointed and incomplete in your learners’ minds. Most time naturally will be devoted to
the work of individual groups, during which the major portion of the end product will be completed. Individual group work
normally will consume 60% to 80% of the time devoted to the cooperative learning activity. The remaining time must be
divided among individual group presentations and/or whole class discussion and debriefing that places the group work into
the perspective of a single end product. If you plan both group reports and whole class discussion for the same day, be
aware that the discussion probably will get squeezed into a fraction of the time required to make it meaningful. To avoid
this, the group discussion or debriefing for the following class day may be so scheduled so that class members have ample
time to reflect on their group reports and to pull together their own thoughts about the colloborative process, which may or
may not have occured as intended. Providing 15 or 20 minutes at the begining of class the next day is usually enough time
for students to have acquired the proper distance to reflect meaningfully on their experiences of the day before‐and to
learn from them.
The most appropriate caption for the passage will be :

QUESTION ID:51

The pioneer community in human evolution is :

QUESTION ID:52

Name the person, who launched the ‘‘Green Belt Movement’’ in Kenya, and got the Nobel Peace Prize :

QUESTION ID:53

Identify the environmental system with lowest entropy

QUESTION ID:54

Which chemical form of mercury is completely water soluble?

QUESTION ID:55

The water is classified as ‘‘aggressive’’ if :

QUESTION ID:56

The portion of UV spectrum which readily destroys DNA and causes skin cancer is : (not correct)

QUESTION ID:57

Free energy (AG) value of zero indicates

QUESTION ID:58

A gas fired, combined heat and power plant produces 5000 MWh electricity and heat of 30,000 GJ. If the input energy required to run the power plant is 60,000 GJ, the efficiency of the plant is :

QUESTION ID:59

Which of the following compounds has the least Ozone Depleting Potential?

QUESTION ID:60

Which one among the following is not an example of detrital sedimentary rocks?

QUESTION ID:61

According to the U.S. Department of Agriculture system of classification, the size of silt particles in soil ranges between

QUESTION ID:62

Which one among the following has the lowest hydraulic conductivity (m/day)?

QUESTION ID:63


QUESTION ID:64

The internal relationship between a. ẞ and y diversity can be presented as

QUESTION ID:65

The minimum time needed for the formation of one inch of the top soil is :

QUESTION ID:66

Which zone of a pond/lake ecosystem does not receive light?

QUESTION ID:67

Slash and burn’’ is a term that is usually associated with the practice of :

QUESTION ID:68

A species that has profound effect on the ecological processes of an ecosystem and whose removal or loss would result in disturbing the community structure is known as :

QUESTION ID:69

The flagship species of Kedarnath Wildlife sanctuary is :

QUESTION ID:70

The maximum permissible limit of BOD (mg/l) in the treated waste water that can be discharged into garden for watering is :

QUESTION ID:71

What is the concentration of H+ in a solution of 0.1 N NaOH at 25 C?

QUESTION ID:72

Which method is used to separate proteins on the basis of their sizes?

QUESTION ID:73

Which of the following is not a molecular method for identification of microbial population form soil or water?

QUESTION ID:74

The rate of increase in temperature with depth in the earth also known as geothermal gradient, is equal to 

QUESTION ID:75

For wind power generation, the percentage of maximum extractable power contained in the wind is

QUESTION ID:76

Carbon content in a certain type of coal is 0.81. Assume that the combustion efficiency of coal is ~100%, then how much CO will be produced on combustion of 1 kg of coal?

QUESTION ID:77

At STP. 1 ppb sulphur dioxide is equivalent to

QUESTION ID:78

Which of the following organisms is the most tolerant to sewage pollution?

QUESTION ID:79

The process of illuviation in soil indicates :

QUESTION ID:80

Carbonmonooxide is harmful to human beings, as it :

QUESTION ID:81

The ash content in coal used in stand‐alone thermal power plants in India should not be more than

QUESTION ID:82

Pyrolysis of solid wastes refers to

QUESTION ID:83

Which of the following mixture of gases can be found in biogas?

QUESTION ID:84

India became a party to CITES in the year :

QUESTION ID:85

Time clocked by an athlete in a 100 m race is an example of which type of variable?

QUESTION ID:86

In a class of 13 students, 3 students failed in a test. The marks of 10 students who passed were 6, 9, 4, 8, 7, 6, 5, 6, 7, 5. The median value of marks of all the 13 students is :

QUESTION ID:87

The probability that a standard normal variate lies between 81 and +1 is

QUESTION ID:88

Population of a city doubled in a span of 20 years. Assuming exponential growth at a constant rate over the given period, the growth rate would have been :

QUESTION ID:89

Following information is given regarding a one-way ANOVA test:There are 'k' treatments, each having sample s size N=n+n+Nz + ... + Nj. size n₁, N2, N3, n such that the total sample The degrees of freedom for the mean error sum of squares in the test will be

QUESTION ID:90

For a regression model, the following information is given :
Unexplained sum of squares = 25
Explained sum of squares = 75
The value of coefficient of determination for this model is

QUESTION ID:91

This statement is known as Among all the unbiased estimators of the population regression coeficients which are linear epp.in in the dependent variable (say I), the least squares estimators have the smallest variance

QUESTION ID:92

The place of origin of the National River Ganga is

QUESTION ID:93

Water remains in liquid state over a wide range of temperature because of its :

Specific heat

Heat of vaporisation

Density at 0 C

Bipolar nature

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:94

The difference in values of theoretical oxygen demand and actual oxygen demand is observed because of :
difference in rate of reaeration and deoxygenation
addition of dead cell biomass of bacteria as waste
accumulation of waste in bacterial tissue
formation of humus which resists degradation
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:95

The crystal structure of a compound/material can be determined using :
A. Scanning Electron Microscope
B. X‐Ray Fluorescence
C. Transmission Electron Microscopy
D. X‐Ray Diffraction
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:96

Which of the following are living fossils?
Ginkgo biloba
Panthera tigris
Elephas Maximas
Latimavia
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:97

Consider the following statements :
Earth is farthest from the sun at the time of perehelion
When perehelion occurs, it is winter season in the northern hemisphere
Seasons on earth occur due to inclination in earth’s axis of rotation
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:98

Ferromagnesian minerals are :
a group of silicates
black, brown or green colour minerals
a group of bicarbonates
highly resistant to weathering and erosional process
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:99

Consider the following statements regarding clay minerals in soil :
Some clay particles are technically not colloids yet they have colloid like properties
There are four major types of colloids present in soil
All types of clays are crystalline in nature
Soil humus are not considered as colloids
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:100

Consider the following statements :
Richter magnitude is based upon the amplitude of the largest seismic wave produced during an earthquake
An earthquake with Richter magnitude 7 producers 10 times larger displacement on the seismogram than does a
magnitude 6
S‐waves travel faster than P waves through solid materials
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:101

Consider the following statements regarding lines of regression between two variables X and Y.  The correlation between X and Y is the geometric mean of the regression coefficients of Y on X and X on Y If the variables are uncorrelated, the two lines of regression (i.e. Y on X and X on If the regression co-efficient Y on X is greater than one, the co-efficient of X on Y must also be greater than one

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:102

Energy crops :
are fast growing plants
can be grown on degraded, waste, saline or water logged lands
can not be used to produce liquid fuels
usually have high calorific values
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:103

Among the following effects of noise on people, identify the Auditory effects :
Annoyance
Speech interference
Acoustical privacy
Sleep interference
Hearing loss
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:104

In Isokinetic air sampling :
the inlet is faced against the prevailing wind
sampling flow rate is chosen so that inlet speed is same as the wind speed
there should be least possibility of distortion of particles sampled
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:105

Consider the following statements regarding organic carbon estimation following Walkley and Black method :
Organic carbon estimated by this method excludes most of the less active organic matter
100% of the total oxidizable organic carbon is oxidized in this method
(Soil organic matter percentage can be calculated by multiplying estimated organic carbon percentage by 1.724
K SO and H SO are used as reagents
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:106

Which of the following deposition mechanisms dominate(s) for particles in the size range 8-10 um?

Diffusion

Impaction

Sedimentation

QUESTION ID:107

Consider the following statements regarding the 2012 application of vermicompost :
Vermicompost is an excellent base for the establishment of beneficial microorganisms
 Presence of earthworms helps in aerating the soil
Plants respond slowly compared to compost or farm yard manure
2 4 2 4
Application of vermicompost augments the growth of N‐fixing microbes
Earthworm casts do not harbor vesicular arbuscular micorrhizal (VAM) propagules
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:108

Match List  I with List II

List I                              List II

Stenothermal            Daphnia

Eurythermal              Heteroneries

Cydomorphasis          Toad

circalunar rhythm        Fishes 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:109

Match Lit Iwith List II:

Air Quality Index                  List ii

0-50                                      Poor

51 - 100                               severe

201 - 300                             Good

401-500                               Satisfactory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:110

Match List I with List II:

List I                                                         List ii

Water Quality Parameter                  Chemical Reagent used in Analysis          

Iron                                                         Barium Chloride

Dissolved Oxygen                                 Phenanthroline

aldum                                                      Murexde

Sulphate                                                 Mingino Sulphate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:111

List i                                           List ii

(A) Animal Anatomical          White

(B) Waste sharp                      Blue

(C) Discarded                           Yellow

(D) Disposable glasswares     Red

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:112

Match List with List II:

            List I                              List II

 Waste type                             (Toxic elements)

(A) Wood preservatives        cadmium

(B)  Food cans                         Mercury

(C)  Colored printing inte         Artenic

(D)  Fluorescent lamps            Lead

Choose the corred answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:113

Match List Iwith List II :

List i                                    List II

Wild Animal /Plant          schedule of wildife Protection Act

(A) Musk Deer                      II

(B)  Himalayan Black          VI

(C)  Pitcher Plant                  I

 (D)  Bison (Gaur)                 II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:114

Match List  Iwith List II :
List  i                           List II
(Pollutant)                 (Health Effects)
(A) Cadmium             Severe skin condition 'Chloracne!
(B)  Dioxin                   Cancer
(C)  Carbofuran          weakening of bones
(D) Benzo (a) Pyrene   Impeded neuro-transmission
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:115

Match List Iwith List II:

List 1                                       List ii

Method                               Estimation 

(A) X-Ray Fluorescence    Functional groups

 meter

(B) Quartz Crystal Microbalance     Inorganic compounds

(C)  Fourier Transform                        Multi-element analysis   

  Infrared

   Spectrometer

(D) Laser Microprobe Mass              Partiolate matter

     Spectrometry

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:116

Match List I with List II :  
List I                                                       List ii                                             
Hydropower projects                          River
(A)Sardar Sarovar project                 (A)  Bhagirathi River
(B) Tehri Dam project                         (B)   Harmada River
(C) Pong Dam                                      (C)   Mahanadi River
(D) Hiraland Dam                                (D)   Beas River
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

QUESTION ID:117

Identify the correct sequence of the following data products of Indian satellites according to their spatial resolutions :
Cartosat ‐ 2 PAN
Oceansat ‐ 2 OCM
Resourcesat ‐ 2 AWIFS
IRS ‐ ID LISS ‐ 3
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:118

Identify the correct sequence of natural surfaces according to their albedo :
Ocean
Fresh snow
Grass
Desert Sand
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:119

What is the correct order of abundance of following heavy metals in the earth’s crust?
A. Fe
B. Mg
C. Al
D. Cu
Choose the correct answer from the options given below 

QUESTION ID:120

Identify the correct sequence in ascending order of the grade of metamorphism :
Gneiss
Slate
Schist
Shale
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:121

In the context of urban environment, arrange the following in order of increasing residence time.
Formaldehyde
Carbon‐mono‐oxide
Peroxyacetyl nitrate
Hydroxyl radical
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:122

Identify the correct sequence of Life Time (years) of the green house gases in increasing order

1.CH4 (Methane)

2.N2O (Nitrous Oxide)

3.CFC‐12

4. O3 (Tropospheric)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:123

Identify the correct sequence of Net Heating Value (MJ/Kg) in increasing order for the following fuels.
Charcoal
Bituminous coal
Regular gasoline
Natural gas
Oak wood
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:124

Identify the correct sequence of conversion of a fertile nuclear material to a fissile material involving the following nuclei

Np 239/146

U 239/147

PU 239/145

U 238/146

Choose the correct answer from the options are below

QUESTION ID:125

Identify the correct sequence of moisture content (%) in ascending order in the following categories of wastes :
Animal solids and organic waste
Trash
Rubbish
Garbage
Refuse
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:126

According to the Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, arrange the following metals in decreasing order of their permissible concentration (mg/kg) in the prepared compost : (not correct)
Chromium
Lead
Cadmium
Copper
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:127

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Mean deviation is a better measure of dispersion than the quartile deviation.
Statement II : Mean deviation is obtained by dividing the algebraic sum of deviations about mean by total number of observations.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:128

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The log‐normal distribution is positively skewed.
Statement II : A negatively skewed distribution has its long tail to the left
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:129

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : In the hybrid car technology, cars run on both petrol and battery based electrical engines. Reason R : Battery of the hybrid car is externally charged.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:130

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Gasoline mixed with biofuels (ethanol) has generally more energy content than pure gasoline. Statement II : Energy content per unit volume of ethanol is more than that of gasoline.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:131

The Govenment of india has introduced a scheme of eco labelling of consumer product as Ecomark

This scheme was introduced in 1986

This scheme was introduced in 1991

ISI was given the mark for this scheme 

An earthen pitcher was made the symbol for this scheme 

QUESTION ID:132

Which of the following are included in the list of hazardous wastes as per Hazardous Waste Rules 2016?

Flyash 

Empty barrels contaminated with hazardous waste 

Red mud

Chemical containing residue arising from decontamination 

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below 

QUESTION ID:133

The Biological Diversity Act 2002 provides the following provisions :

Regulation of access to biodiversity 

Does not allow local communities for using their biological resources 

Establishment of state biodiversity boards

Equitable sharing of benefits of biological resources with local communities 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below 

QUESTION ID:134

Consider the following statements 

Arithmetic Mean is greater than the geometric mean for two non equal postive real numbers 

Correlation coefficient is a confirmatory tool to establish casual realationship between two variables 

Regression coefficient is independent of change of origin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below 

QUESTION ID:135

Which of the following are correct in the context of the Elephant Project 

it was launched in Feb 1992

it was launced in April 1973

it is being implemented in 16 states 

Project is being executed in 50 reserves 

Project is being executed in 32 reserves 

QUESTION ID:136

Identify the correct sequence of the given soil texture clasees in decreasing order of stability of wet clods:

Loam 

Clay 

Sandy Loam 

Silt Loam 

Clay Loam 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below ;

QUESTION ID:137

Read the passage given below. Based on it answer the question.
According to a study published recently in the journal Nature Climate Change, while black carbon has a large effect on snow darkening and resultant melting of snow, dust particles transported from as far as Saudi Arabia that get deposited in the Western Himalayan Region (WHR) have a large role to play in melting of snow, particularly at higher elevations. Dust transported as elevated, aerosol layers get deposited at 1 – 5 km elevations, black carbon emission is mostly a surface phenomenon and influences melting of snow from surface to about 3 km elevation.
Based on remote sensing data of spatial distribution of dust aerosol concentration over the Indian subcontinent and dust‐ induced snow albedo reduction over Himalayas during the period 2011‐2016 and simulations, it has been inferred that the relative impacts of dust and black carbon vary with surface elevation of snow pack. This is in addition to snow‐melt caused by warming due to climate change. Earlier studies have shown that the magnitude of snow mass decrease is about 1mm per year at 1 km elevation, about 5 mm per year at 4.5 km elevation and about 3 mm per year at 6 km elevation.
Though black carbon has a larger snow albedo darkening effect than dust due to a larger mass absorption efficiency, the study found that radiative effects of dust deposited on snow are comparable to black carbon in the WHR at higher elevations. This is mainly because the deposition of the dust by mass is 100‐1000 times more than black carbon.
As the elevation increases, the influence of dust comes greater than black carbon and this coincides with maximum intensity of snow melt reduction seen at 3‐5 km elevation. Between these two black carbon mainly contributes to snow melt at lower elevation while dust is the major contributor for snow melt at higher elevation.
Westerlies transport dust particles as elevated aerosol layers at maximum intensities mostly during the pre‐monsoon period and this gets deposited at higher elevations in the WHR.
Due to global warming, snow cover at lower elevations in the Himalayas will occur less frequently or totally disappear compared with snow cover at higher elevations. The annual contribution of dust to snow melt will therefore likely increase in future as the black carbon effect at lower elevation weakness with dwindling snow pack.
Snow melt in Himalayas is on account of :
Dust deposition
Black carbon deposition
Increase in albedo
Climate change

QUESTION ID:138

Read the passage given below. Based on it answer the question.
According to a study published recently in the journal Nature Climate Change, while black carbon has a large effect on snow darkening and resultant melting of snow, dust particles transported from as far as Saudi Arabia that get deposited in the Western Himalayan Region (WHR) have a large role to play in melting of snow, particularly at higher elevations. Dust transported as elevated, aerosol layers get deposited at 1 – 5 km elevations, black carbon emission is mostly a surface phenomenon and influences melting of snow from surface to about 3 km elevation.
Based on remote sensing data of spatial distribution of dust aerosol concentration over the Indian subcontinent and dust‐ induced snow albedo reduction over Himalayas during the period 2011‐2016 and simulations, it has been inferred that the relative impacts of dust and black carbon vary with surface elevation of snow pack. This is in addition to snow‐melt caused by warming due to climate change. Earlier studies have shown that the magnitude of snow mass decrease is about 1mm per year at 1 km elevation, about 5 mm per year at 4.5 km elevation and about 3 mm per year at 6 km elevation.
Though black carbon has a larger snow albedo darkening effect than dust due to a larger mass absorption efficiency, the study found that radiative effects of dust deposited on snow are comparable to black carbon in the WHR at higher elevations. This is mainly because the deposition of the dust by mass is 100‐1000 times more than black carbon.
As the elevation increases, the influence of dust comes greater than black carbon and this coincides with maximum intensity of snow melt reduction seen at 3‐5 km elevation. Between these two black carbon mainly contributes to snow melt at lower elevation while dust is the major contributor for snow melt at higher elevation.
Westerlies transport dust particles as elevated aerosol layers at maximum intensities mostly during the pre‐monsoon period and this gets deposited at higher elevations in the WHR.
Due to global warming, snow cover at lower elevations in the Himalayas will occur less frequently or totally disappear compared with snow cover at higher elevations. The annual contribution of dust to snow melt will therefore likely increase in future as the black carbon effect at lower elevation weakness with dwindling snow pack.
Maximum rate of snow mass reduction per annum is at elevation of :
1 km
3‐5 km
6 km
2 km
Reason R : Both black carbon and dust darken the snow cover. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:139

Read the passage given below. Based on it answer the question.
According to a study published recently in the journal Nature Climate Change, while black carbon has a large effect on snow darkening and resultant melting of snow, dust particles transported from as far as Saudi Arabia that get deposited in the Western Himalayan Region (WHR) have a large role to play in melting of snow, particularly at higher elevations. Dust transported as elevated, aerosol layers get deposited at 1 – 5 km elevations, black carbon emission is mostly a surface phenomenon and influences melting of snow from surface to about 3 km elevation.
Based on remote sensing data of spatial distribution of dust aerosol concentration over the Indian subcontinent and dust‐ induced snow albedo reduction over Himalayas during the period 2011‐2016 and simulations, it has been inferred that the relative impacts of dust and black carbon vary with surface elevation of snow pack. This is in addition to snow‐melt caused by warming due to climate change. Earlier studies have shown that the magnitude of snow mass decrease is about 1mm per year at 1 km elevation, about 5 mm per year at 4.5 km elevation and about 3 mm per year at 6 km elevation.
Though black carbon has a larger snow albedo darkening effect than dust due to a larger mass absorption efficiency, the study found that radiative effects of dust deposited on snow are comparable to black carbon in the WHR at higher elevations. This is mainly because the deposition of the dust by mass is 100‐1000 times more than black carbon.
As the elevation increases, the influence of dust comes greater than black carbon and this coincides with maximum intensity of snow melt reduction seen at 3‐5 km elevation. Between these two black carbon mainly contributes to snow melt at lower elevation while dust is the major contributor for snow melt at higher elevation.
Westerlies transport dust particles as elevated aerosol layers at maximum intensities mostly during the pre‐monsoon period and this gets deposited at higher elevations in the WHR.
Due to global warming, snow cover at lower elevations in the Himalayas will occur less frequently or totally disappear compared with snow cover at higher elevations. The annual contribution of dust to snow melt will therefore likely increase in future as the black carbon effect at lower elevation weakness with dwindling snow pack.
The passage clearly brings out the finding that :

QUESTION ID:140

Read the passage given below. Based on it answer the question.
According to a study published recently in the journal Nature Climate Change, while black carbon has a large effect on snow darkening and resultant melting of snow, dust particles transported from as far as Saudi Arabia that get deposited in the Western Himalayan Region (WHR) have a large role to play in melting of snow, particularly at higher elevations. Dust transported as elevated, aerosol layers get deposited at 1 – 5 km elevations, black carbon emission is mostly a surface phenomenon and influences melting of snow from surface to about 3 km elevation.
Based on remote sensing data of spatial distribution of dust aerosol concentration over the Indian subcontinent and dust‐ induced snow albedo reduction over Himalayas during the period 2011‐2016 and simulations, it has been inferred that the relative impacts of dust and black carbon vary with surface elevation of snow pack. This is in addition to snow‐melt caused by warming due to climate change. Earlier studies have shown that the magnitude of snow mass decrease is about 1mm per year at 1 km elevation, about 5 mm per year at 4.5 km elevation and about 3 mm per year at 6 km elevation.
Though black carbon has a larger snow albedo darkening effect than dust due to a larger mass absorption efficiency, the study found that radiative effects of dust deposited on snow are comparable to black carbon in the WHR at higher elevations. This is mainly because the deposition of the dust by mass is 100‐1000 times more than black carbon.
As the elevation increases, the influence of dust comes greater than black carbon and this coincides with maximum intensity of snow melt reduction seen at 3‐5 km elevation. Between these two black carbon mainly contributes to snow melt at lower elevation while dust is the major contributor for snow melt at higher elevation.
Westerlies transport dust particles as elevated aerosol layers at maximum intensities mostly during the pre‐monsoon period and this gets deposited at higher elevations in the WHR.
Due to global warming, snow cover at lower elevations in the Himalayas will occur less frequently or totally disappear compared with snow cover at higher elevations. The annual contribution of dust to snow melt will therefore likely increase in future as the black carbon effect at lower elevation weakness with dwindling snow pack.
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : Assertion A : Reduction in snow albedo is more in case of black carbon than dust
Reason R : Black carbon has higher mass absorption efficiency compared to dust.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:141

Read the passage given below. Based on it answer the question.
According to a study published recently in the journal Nature Climate Change, while black carbon has a large effect on snow darkening and resultant melting of snow, dust particles transported from as far as Saudi Arabia that get deposited in the Western Himalayan Region (WHR) have a large role to play in melting of snow, particularly at higher elevations. Dust transported as elevated, aerosol layers get deposited at 1 – 5 km elevations, black carbon emission is mostly a surface phenomenon and influences melting of snow from surface to about 3 km elevation.
Based on remote sensing data of spatial distribution of dust aerosol concentration over the Indian subcontinent and dust‐ induced snow albedo reduction over Himalayas during the period 2011‐2016 and simulations, it has been inferred that the relative impacts of dust and black carbon vary with surface elevation of snow pack. This is in addition to snow‐melt caused by warming due to climate change. Earlier studies have shown that the magnitude of snow mass decrease is about 1mm per year at 1 km elevation, about 5 mm per year at 4.5 km elevation and about 3 mm per year at 6 km elevation.
Though black carbon has a larger snow albedo darkening effect than dust due to a larger mass absorption efficiency, the study found that radiative effects of dust deposited on snow are comparable to black carbon in the WHR at higher elevations. This is mainly because the deposition of the dust by mass is 100‐1000 times more than black carbon.
As the elevation increases, the influence of dust comes greater than black carbon and this coincides with maximum intensity of snow melt reduction seen at 3‐5 km elevation. Between these two black carbon mainly contributes to snow melt at lower elevation while dust is the major contributor for snow melt at higher elevation.
Westerlies transport dust particles as elevated aerosol layers at maximum intensities mostly during the pre‐monsoon period and this gets deposited at higher elevations in the WHR.
Due to global warming, snow cover at lower elevations in the Himalayas will occur less frequently or totally disappear compared with snow cover at higher elevations. The annual contribution of dust to snow melt will therefore likely increase in future as the black carbon effect at lower elevation weakness with dwindling snow pack.
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : Radiative effects of dust deposited on snow are comparable to black carbon in the WHR at higher elevations.

QUESTION ID:142

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question :
Ecologists and Economists have joined forces to estimate the value of the services that the World’s ecosystems provide. There are many direct goods such as foods and indirect services, such as the assimilation of waste that ecological systems provide on a renewable basis. Many ecosystems provide more than one service. For example, swamps are important in flood control, water supply and waste treatment and as habitat. In turn, most services are provided by more than one ecosystem; for instance, many systems are involved in nutrient cycling. Robert Constanza and his colleagues estimated that the World’s ecosystems provide atleast US $ 33 trillion worth of services annually. This staggering figure is more than the total gross national product, which is around US $ 19 trillion per year. The majority of the services are currently outside the market system and include atmospheric gas regulation, waste treatment and nutrient cycling, which at US $ 17 trillion, was by far the most expensive services performed, but even if we eliminate this, the total annual value would still be a whopping US $ 16 trillion. About 63 percent of the estimated value of natural ecosystems is contributed by marine system; with most of the value coming from coastal systems (US $ 10.6 trillion per year). About 37 percent of the estimated value cames from terrestrial systems, mainly forests (US $ 4.7 trillion) and wetlands (US $ 4.9 trillion). If ecosystem services were actually paid for, the global price system would be very different from what it is today. The price of commodities would skyrocket. However, because ecosystem services are largely outside the market, they are usually ignored or grossly undervalued.
Which one of the following ecosystems provide maximum estimated value of ecosystem services?

QUESTION ID:143

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question :
Ecologists and Economists have joined forces to estimate the value of the services that the World’s ecosystems provide. There are many direct goods such as foods and indirect services, such as the assimilation of waste that ecological systems provide on a renewable basis. Many ecosystems provide more than one service. For example, swamps are important in flood control, water supply and waste treatment and as habitat. In turn, most services are provided by more than one ecosystem; for instance, many systems are involved in nutrient cycling. Robert Constanza and his colleagues estimated that the World’s ecosystems provide atleast US $ 33 trillion worth of services annually. This staggering figure is more than the total gross national product, which is around US $ 19 trillion per year. The majority of the services are currently outside the market system and include atmospheric gas regulation, waste treatment and nutrient cycling, which at US $ 17 trillion, was by far the most expensive services performed, but even if we eliminate this, the total annual value would still be a whopping US $ 16 trillion. About 63 percent of the estimated value of natural ecosystems is contributed by marine system; with most of the value coming from coastal systems (US $ 10.6 trillion per year). About 37 percent of the estimated value cames from terrestrial systems, mainly forests (US $ 4.7 trillion) and wetlands (US $ 4.9 trillion). If ecosystem services were actually paid for, the global price system would be very different from what it is today. The price of commodities would skyrocket. However, because ecosystem services are largely outside the market, they are usually ignored or grossly undervalued.
Swamp ecosystems provide the following ecosystem services.
Assimilation of waste
Provide habitat for organisms
Terrestrial fruits
Flood control
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

QUESTION ID:144

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question :
Ecologists and Economists have joined forces to estimate the value of the services that the World’s ecosystems provide. There are many direct goods such as foods and indirect services, such as the assimilation of waste that ecological systems provide on a renewable basis. Many ecosystems provide more than one service. For example, swamps are important in flood control, water supply and waste treatment and as habitat. In turn, most services are provided by more than one ecosystem; for instance, many systems are involved in nutrient cycling. Robert Constanza and his colleagues estimated that the World’s ecosystems provide atleast US $ 33 trillion worth of services annually. This staggering figure is more than the total gross 
national product, which is around US $ 19 trillion per year. The majority of the services are currently outside the market system and include atmospheric gas regulation, waste treatment and nutrient cycling, which at US $ 17 trillion, was by far the most expensive services performed, but even if we eliminate this, the total annual value would still be a whopping US $ 16 trillion. About 63 percent of the estimated value of natural ecosystems is contributed by marine system; with most of the value coming from coastal systems (US $ 10.6 trillion per year). About 37 percent of the estimated value cames from terrestrial systems, mainly forests (US $ 4.7 trillion) and wetlands (US $ 4.9 trillion). If ecosystem services were actually paid for, the global price system would be very different from what it is today. The price of commodities would skyrocket. However, because ecosystem services are largely outside the market, they are usually ignored or grossly undervalued
If the ecosystem services are paid for the price of commodities will:

QUESTION ID:145

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question :
Ecologists and Economists have joined forces to estimate the value of the services that the World’s ecosystems provide. There are many direct goods such as foods and indirect services, such as the assimilation of waste that ecological systems provide on a renewable basis. Many ecosystems provide more than one 5) Read the following passage carefully and answer the question :
Ecologists and Economists have joined forces to estimate the value of the services that the World’s ecosystems provide. There are many direct goods such as foods and indirect services, such as the assimilation of waste that ecological systems provide on a renewable basis. Many ecosystems provide more than one service. For example, swamps are important in flood control, water supply and waste treatment and as habitat. In turn, most services are provided by more than one ecosystem; for instance, many systems are involved in nutrient cycling. Robert Constanza and his colleagues estimated that the World’s ecosystems provide atleast US $ 33 trillion worth of services annually. This staggering figure is more than the total gross national product, which is around US $ 19 trillion per year. The majority of the services are currently outside the market system and include atmospheric gas regulation, waste treatment and nutrient cycling, which at US $ 17 trillion, was by far the most expensive services performed, but even if we eliminate this, the total annual value would still be a whopping US $ 16 trillion. About 63 percent of the estimated value of natural ecosystems is contributed by marine system; with most of the value coming from coastal systems (US $ 10.6 trillion per year). About 37 percent of the estimated value cames from terrestrial systems, mainly forests (US $ 4.7 trillion) and wetlands (US $ 4.9 trillion). If ecosystem services were actually paid for, the global price system would be very different from what it is today. The price of commodities would skyrocket. However, because ecosystem services are largely outside the market, they are usually ignored or grossly undervalued.
What was the estimated value per year for the global ecosystem services outside the market system?

QUESTION ID:146

Given below are two statements :

Consider the following two statements with reference to Gaussain Plume Model 

Statement 1 

Turbulent diffusion causes mixing of polluants at a rate faster than molecular diffusion in atmosphere .

Statement 2

The distance from the stack where maximum ground level concentration is observed is relatively large when the atmosphere is more turbulent .

in the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the option given blow