Previous Year Questions

QUESTION ID:2

In a class of 10 students, 3 failed in History, 6 failed in geography and 2 failed in both. How many passed in both the subjects?

QUESTION ID:3

As shown in the diagram above, a sphere is placed on the top of an incline. It rolls down the incline without slipping in exactly 50 turns. The radius of the sphere is

QUESTION ID:4

A set of concentric circles of integer radii 1,2, ... N is shown in the figure above. An ant starts at point A1, goes round the first circle,  returns to A1, moves to A2, goes round the second circle, returns to A2, moves to A3 and repeats this until it reaches AN. The distance covered by the ant is

QUESTION ID:5

The figure above shows an infinite series of triangles, in which rl >r2> r3 ... What is the total length of the solid line segments in the figure?

QUESTION ID:6

If ai, bi and Ci are distinct, how many terms will the expansion of the product (a1 + a2 + a3) (b1 + b2 + b3 + b4) (C1+C2 + C3 + C4 + C5) contain?

QUESTION ID:7

The above plot depicts the number of research publications of a scientist along with the number of citations. Which of the following statements is not correct?

QUESTION ID:8

The next number of the sequence 1, 5, 14, 30, 55, . . . is

QUESTION ID:9

The distribution of heights and weights in a population is shown above in a 2-parameter scatter plot. The size of the square is proportional to the number of persons having a particular combination of weight and height. Which statement best describes the trend in the population?

QUESTION ID:10

What is the maximum sum of the numbers of Saturdays and Sundays in a leap year?

QUESTION ID:11

Two trains of length 150 m and 250 m pass each other with constant speeds on parallel tracks in opposite directions. The drivers and guards are at the extremities of the trains. The time gap between the drivers passing each other and first driver-guard pair passing each other is 30 s. How much later will the other driver-guard pair pass by?

QUESTION ID:12

In a room, we have one grandfather, two fathers, two sons, and a grandson. The age of one father is seven times the age of his son. The age' of the other father is twice his son's age. Assuming that there are only 3 people in the room and the grandfather is 70 years old, how old is the grandson?

QUESTION ID:13

A hemispherical bowl is being filled with water at a constant volumetric rate. The level of water in the bowl increases

QUESTION ID:14

Equal masses of two liquids of densities 6 kg/m3 and 4 kg/m3 are mixed thoroughly. The density of the mixture is

QUESTION ID:15

Two points A and B on the surface of the Earth have the following latitude and longitude co-ordinates.
A: 300 N, 450 E
B: 300 N, 1350 W
If R is the radius of the Earth, the length of the shortest path from A to B is

QUESTION ID:16

Amoebae are known to double in 3 min. Two identical vessels A & B, respectively contain one and two amoebae to start with. The vessel B gets filled in 3 hours. When will A get filled?

QUESTION ID:17

Students of a school are divided into 4 groups. What is the probability that three friends get into the same group?

QUESTION ID:18

fruit vendor buys 120 Shimla apples at 4 for Rs. 100, and 120 Golden apples at 6 for Rs. 100. She decides to mix them and sell at 10 for Rs. 200. She will make

QUESTION ID:19

QUESTION ID:20

In an enclosure there were both crows and cows. If there were 30 heads and 100 legs, what fraction of them are crows?

QUESTION ID:21

The interaction energy between atom A and B is 400 k/mol-1. The type of interaction between them is

QUESTION ID:22

Which one of the following bases has the largest hydrogen bonding possibility?

QUESTION ID:23

Enzymes help to lower the activation energies of reactions by

QUESTION ID:24

Glucose residues in amylose are linked by

QUESTION ID:25

When a membrane is depolarized to a voltage value more positive than the threshold voltage, it leads to the generation of

QUESTION ID:26

E. coli proliferates faster on 'glucose' than it does on 'lactose' because lactose is

QUESTION ID:27

Out of the list given below, which is the correct order of increasing lipid bilayer permeability?

QUESTION ID:28

In the lysogenic λ-phage

QUESTION ID:29

In bacteria chromosomal DNA replication stops at

QUESTION ID:30

The 'Uvr ABC' repair mechanism is involved in repairing

QUESTION ID:31

Which of the following phenomena is observed in compatible plantpathogen interactions?

QUESTION ID:32

Which one of the following is NOT an extracellular matrix protein?

QUESTION ID:33

The cylindrical channels in gap junctions are made of

QUESTION ID:34

A tumour suppressor protein

QUESTION ID:35

Immediate hypersensitivity reactions are associated with

QUESTION ID:36

The change in the state of specification of imaginal disc of Drosophila to that of a different disc type is known as

QUESTION ID:37

During double fertilization in plants, one sperm fuses with the egg cell and the other sperm fuses with

QUESTION ID:38

Over-expression of a dominant negative FGF receptor during amphibian development would prevent formation of

QUESTION ID:39

The cell death pathway in C. elegans can be schematically represented as: Based on the above, which one of the following statements is TRUE?
 

QUESTION ID:40

Which of the following mechanisms is NOT involved in providing photo protection to plants?

QUESTION ID:41

Which of the following plant hormones can mimic the det1 mutation, causing de-etiolation and chloroplast development in dark?

QUESTION ID:42

Under which conditions do members of the family Gramineae synthesize and release phytosiderophores?

QUESTION ID:43

The membranes of chilling-sensitive plants is characterized by

QUESTION ID:44

The only bone marrow cell that never appears in peripheral blood is

QUESTION ID:45

Various types of excitable tissues when stimulated showed response as shown in the above figures. Which one of them is an example of fast adapting tissue?

QUESTION ID:46

After gull nestlings hatch, the parents remove the egg-shells from the nest. This behaviour is to

QUESTION ID:47

Thyroxin releasing hormone (TRH) receptor belongs to

QUESTION ID:48

A cross is made between a pure breeding plant having red coloured flowers with a pure breeding plant having white coloured flowers. Such a cross is called as

QUESTION ID:49

A cis-trans complementation test is carried out to identify

QUESTION ID:50

The following is the inheritance pattern of a trait under observation:
(i) The trait often skips a generation
(ii)The number of affected males and females is almost equal
(iii) The trait is often found in pedigrees with consanguineous marriages.
The trait is likely to be

QUESTION ID:51

Given below is an evolutionary tree Based on the above, which one of the following combinations is correct? 

QUESTION ID:52

The fungal group presently classified under protists is

QUESTION ID:53

Name the common Indian bird that is generally seen in groups (aggregation)

QUESTION ID:54

The fungus associated with human oral or vaginal infection is

QUESTION ID:55

The most common vegetation in the Western Ghats of India is tropical moist deciduous forest but that in Deccan plateu is depleted thorn forest. The possible reason is

QUESTION ID:56

The following graph is for a logistically growing population, with Nt plotted on the X-axis. What is the parameter plotted on the Y-axis?

QUESTION ID:57

Annual weeds of arable lands are classified as

QUESTION ID:58

Which one of the following advancements in on the animal classification is correct?

QUESTION ID:59

Which of the following is the most appropriate spectral bands for vegetation analysis using remote sensing platforms?

QUESTION ID:60

Which of the following diseases does not leave any paleontological evidence?

QUESTION ID:61

Greater male investment in the care of offspring is most likely to lead to

QUESTION ID:62

A neuron that fires when an individual is eating by hand, also fires when he sees someone else eating with hand. Such neurons are called

QUESTION ID:63

Which of the following microbial fermentations are anaerobic?

QUESTION ID:64

Encasing of which of the following plant eel in a gelatinous matrix is referred as artificial seed?

QUESTION ID:65

Which of the following transgenic crops have been approved for commercial cultivation in India?

QUESTION ID:66

Chinese Brake fern (Pteris vittata) is hyperaccumulator of :

QUESTION ID:67

Which of the following is NOT a post-translational modification in a mammalian system?

QUESTION ID:68

Haemoglobin has characteristic circular dichroism (CD) peaks C in the far-UV, near UV and Soret regions. Contribution to near-UV CD comes entirely from

QUESTION ID:69

A weed is assumed to be dispersed randomly in a meadow. What statistical distribution will describe the dispersion correctly?

QUESTION ID:70

Co-localization of two fluorescently labeled proteins in an organelle in cells is usually visualised by

QUESTION ID:71

Tryptic digest of a heptapeptide (built from 3 lysine (K), 2 alanine (A), 1 tyrosine (Y) and 1 phenylalanine (F) yielded tri and tetrapeptide. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the heptapeptide?

QUESTION ID:72

100 ml of 0.1 M sodium acetate solution has a pH of 8.90. To this solution 1000 μl of 1M acetic acid (pKa = 4.76) of pH 2.80 is added. The pH of this mixture will be:

QUESTION ID:73

What are A, B and C in the following reactions?
 

QUESTION ID:74

Michaelis-Menten enzyme kinetics for a simple reaction involving an enzyme (E) and substrate (S) is given by the scheme:
description of Km, kcat and their relationship is provided in the following statements.
A. Km represents association constant of the ES complex.
B. Km represents the dissociation constant of the ES complex.
C. kcat is the rate constant for the chemical conversion of the ES
complex to substrate bound enzyme and product.
D. kcat/Km is a rate constant that refers to the properties and reactions of the free enzyme and free substrate.
Which of the combinations of above statements is true?
 

QUESTION ID:75

A 26-residue peptide composed of alanine and leucine shows a circular dichroism (CD) spectrum characteristic of α-helix at 50°C in 5 mM phosphate buffer at pH 7.4. Deconvolution of the spectrum indicates 60% α-helical and 40% random conformation. When the peptide solution is cooled gradually to 25°C, and the CD spectra are recorded at different temperatures, the most likely observation will be that

QUESTION ID:76

It has been observed that for the DNA double helix melting, the value of ΔH (enthalpy change of denaturation) are 80 and 90 kcal/mole at 70° and 80°, respectively. Assuming that ΔCp (constant-pressure heat capacity change) is independent of temperature, estimate ΔH associated with the denaturation of DNA at 37°C. This estimated value of ΔH (kcal/mole) is

QUESTION ID:77

Using FRAP (Fluorescence Recovery After Photo-bleaching) techniques, diffusion coefficient of three integral membranes proteins M1, M2 and M3 in a kidney cell is calculated as 1 μm/s, 0.05 μm/s and 0.005 μm/s, receptively. Considering fluid-mosaic nature of biological membrane and relationship of structural organization of integral membrane protein with diffusion coefficient, which protein(s) will have highest number of integral membrane domain?

QUESTION ID:78

One highly pathogenic DNA virus enters into the host cells by endocytosis replicates in the nucleus followed by cell lysis. You have
drugs at you disposal that block
A. acidification of vesicles.
B. mitochondrial transport.
C. nuclear export.
D. exocytosis.
Identify the right combination to prevent the infection.

QUESTION ID:79

When cells enter mitosis, their existing array of cytoplasmic microtubules has to be rapidly broken down and replaced with the mitotic spindle, which pulls the chromosomes into the daughter cells. The enzyme Katanin is activated during the onset of mitosis and chops microtubules into short pieces. The possible fate of the microtubule fragments created by Katanin will be

QUESTION ID:80

A bacterial strain can use carbohydrates and hydrocarbons as growth substrates. The strain uses glucose following a minimal lag
period after inoculation, regardless of the other carbohydrates and hydrocarbons in the growth medium. The following observations were also made.
A. In the absence of glucose, lactose is used after a lag period of about three times as long as the lag period for glucose utilization.
B. The presence of hydrocarbons does not affect the lag period for the utilization of lactose.
C. The utilization pattern for all hydrocarbons is similar to that of lactose.

D. Branched hydrocarbons are not immediately utilized if straight chain hydrocarbons are initially present. Which one of the following specific regulatory mechanisms is consistent with the above observations related to carbohydrate and hydrocarbon utilization?

QUESTION ID:81

Cell  cycle  is  regulated by  various cyclins and  cyclin  dependent kinases (CDK). On receiving mitotic stimuli, cyclin D, the first cyclin expressed, binds with  existing CDK4 to form the active cyclin D-CDK4 complex. This in turn phosphorylates retinoblastoma  protein (Rb) which activates E2f  to  further activate the  transcript ion  of  various downstream  cyclins. In a particular cell type there is a mutation in Rb such that it cannot be phosphorylated.  What will be the correct expression pattern of cyclin E in these cells after mitotic stimulation?

QUESTION ID:82

A bacterial culture was in log phase in the following figure. At time x, an antibacterial compound was added to the culture.

Which of the following lines in the growth curve represents the antibacterial activities of the compound?

QUESTION ID:83

In a cell free extract containing DNA polymerase I, Mg2+, dATP, dGTP, dCTP and dTTP (3H), the following DNA molecules were added:
a. Single stranded closed circular DNA molecule containing 824 nucleotides.
b. Single stranded closed circular DNA molecule having 1578 nucleotides base paired with a linear single standard DNA molecule of 824 nucleotides having a free-3'-OH group.
c. Double stranded linear DNA molecule containing 1578 nucleotides having free-3'-OH group at both ends.
d. Double stranded closed circular DNA molecule having 824 nucleotides. The rate of DNA synthesis was measured by incorporation of 3H thymidine in the DNA molecule and expressed as the percentage of DNA synthesis relative to total DNA input.

Which one of the following graphs represents the correct result?

QUESTION ID:84

The complex responses to different types of DNA damage in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes fall into three main categories:
(i) damage bypass
(ii) damage reversal
(iii) damage removal
Many repair proteins are isolated like
(a) DNA methyl transferase
(b) DNA glycosylase
(c) DNA polymerase IV
Which one of the following represents the correct combination?

QUESTION ID:85

In recent years, genome-wide transcription study using high throughput sequence analysis has revealed some novel results that include:
(i) presence of RNA polymerase in both intra- and intergenic regions of the genome
(ii) existence of non-coding RNAs generated from mRNA coding genes.
(iii) existence of sense-and antisense transcripts generated from the promoter and untranslated region of many annotated genes.

Possible interpretation of the above results are:
A. RNA polymerase can loosely bind to any part of the genome but its affinity becomes strong only when it reaches the promoter.
B. Binding of RNA polymerase to non-promoter regions of the genome leads to the generation of various non-coding regulatory RNAs.
C. Non-coding RNAs are generated from mRNA coding genes due to aberrant transcription initiation and termination.
D. Sense and antisense transcripts are generated from the promoter and untranslated regions of protein coding genes by a novel mechanism of bidirectional transcription.
Identify the correct combination of the above interpretations:

QUESTION ID:86

Aminacyl tRNA synthetases face two important challenges:
i) They must recognize the correct set of tRNAs for a particular amino acid.
ii) they must charge all of these isoaccepting tRNAs with the correct amino acid.
Both of these processes are carried out with high fidelity by the following possible mechanisms:
A. The discrimination ability resides predominantly at the acceptor stem of the tRNAs.
B. The specificity is contributed by the anticodon loop in tRNAs.
C. The specificity is embedded in the amino acyl synthetase at the 'N' terminus
D. The specificity is contributed by the variable loop of the tRNA.
Which of the following is correct?

QUESTION ID:87

During heat shock, mammalian cells shut down global protein synthesis while inducing heat shock proteins (Hsps). The possible
molecular regulation(s) that could explain the phenomenon are:
A. mRNA of all proteins, except those of Hsps, undergoes degradation during heat shock.
B. Cap-dependent translation of most mRNAs is affected during heat shock due to denaturation of cap binding protein, eIF-4E.
C. Translation initiation of Hsp mRNAs takes place through their internal ribosome entry sites (IRES)
D. Hsp mRNAs are abundant during heat shock and thus they compete out other mRNAs for ribosome binding and translation.
Which of the following sets is correct?

QUESTION ID:88

Bacteriophage λ is a temperate bacteriophage and has two modes in its life cycle, lysogenic and lytic. Several genes are involved in these two processes like N, cI, cII, cIII, Q, int, xis, etc.
Which one of the following diagrams represents the control mechanism correctly?

QUESTION ID:89

Clearance of phagocytosed intracellular parasite like Leishmania requires the involvement of reactive oxygen species (ROS) and reactive nitrogen species (RNS). Administration of IFN-γ to macrophages harbouring an intracellular pathogen leads to the production of ROS and RNS by JAK/STAT pathway. A macrophage cell line J774 infected with Leishmania is given the following treatments.
A. IFN- γ
B. IFN- γ +AMT, a potent iNOS inhibitor.
C. IFN- γ + apocyanin, a NADPH oxidase inhibitor.
D. IFN- γ + NMMA (N-monomethyl arginine), an arginine analogue.
What will be the most appropriate graph showing the survival of parasites after these treatments?

QUESTION ID:90

A ligand recognizes two different cell surface receptors, A and B, on the same cell type. Receptor A, after binding with the ligand is internalized along with the ligand whereas receptor B, after binding with the ligand, initiates tyrosine kinase activity of the intracellular domain. One particular disease is associated with the loss of receptor mediated signal transduction of the ligand. Different observers inferred that the disease may be resulted due to
A. loss of binding affinity of receptor A due to mutation in the extracellular domain.

B. loss of binding affinity of receptor B due to mutation in the extracellular domain.

C. mutation in the tyrosine kinase domain rendering it inactive.

D. mutation in the intracellular domain rendering it incapable of endocytosis.
Which combination of the above inferences do you think is appropriate for the cause of the disease?

QUESTION ID:91

Vascular endothelial (VE)-cadherin is an important cell adhesion molecule for endothelial cells. Endothelial cells that are unable to express VE-cadherin still can adhere to one another via N-cadherin (neural cadherin), but these cells do not survive. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for this?

QUESTION ID:92

An important role of Fas and mediate elimination of tumor cells by killer lymphocytes. In a study of 35 primary lung and colon tumors, half the tumors were found to have amplified and overexpressed a gene for a "secreted protein" that binds to Fas ligand. The main reason for survival of these tumor cells by this "secreted Fas- ligand binding protein" may be attributed to its

QUESTION ID:93

A BALB/c mouse was thymectomized on the first day after birth (mouse 1) whereas another was thymectomized on day 7 after birth (mouse 2). A third mouse underwent the same operation on day 21 after birth. After 56 days, sera were prepared from these mice and also from control mice, which had sham operation. The sera were checked for anti-DNA antibodies. Which one of the following observations is the most plausible?

QUESTION ID:94

A potentially valuable therapeutic approach for killing tumour cells without affecting normal cells is the use of immunotoxins. Immunotoxins consist of particular cell-specific monoclonal antibodies coupled to lethal toxins. Which of the following molecular approaches is NOT appropriate for killing tumor-cells?

QUESTION ID:95

A set of experiments that were carried out to demonstrate the effect of Apical Ectodermal Ridge (AER) of the chick limb bud on the underlying mesenchyme are enlisted below, along with their expected outcomes:
A. Removal of the AER of forelimb leads to cessation of limb development.
B. If an extra AER is placed in the forelimb bud, duplication of the distal region of the wing takes place.
C. If an extra AER is placed in the forelimb bud, a leg develops instead of a wing.
D. If AER of forelimb bud is replaced with beads soaked in FGF2, a normal wing develops.
E. If a non limb mesenchyme is placed below an AER, the AER directs the mesenchyme to form a normal wing.
Which of the above statements are correct?

QUESTION ID:96

Hensen's node is established as the avian equivalent of the amphibian dorsal blastopore lip. The following observations are presumed to be support of the same.
A. It is the region whose cells induce and pattern a second embryonic axis when transplanted into other locations of the gastrula.
B. It is equivalent in terms of tissue structure.
C. It expresses the same marker genes as the Spemann's organizer in Amphibians.
D. The same micro RNA can interfere with the formation of pre-chordal plate in both Hensen's node and Spemann's organizer.
Choose the correct set among the following:

QUESTION ID:97

In Amphibians, when due to some injury, the eye lens is damaged, the fully differentiated iris cells can regenerate the lens. It is achieved through the possible processes:
A. Iris cells through some signaling undergo dedifferentiation and transdifferentiation into lens cells to regenerate the lens.
B. Iris cells transform into lens cells spontaneously.
C. Iris cells induce in a stepwise manner, specific genes responsible for their dedifferentiation and then conversion to lens cells.
D. Stem cells present in iris tissue differentiate into lens cells.
Which of the following is correct?

QUESTION ID:98

The control of flowering is a complex process involving several key regulatory genes. Some statements on flower development are given below:
A. Two major types of genes regulate floral development: meristem identity genes and floral organ identity genes.
B. The important genes in Arabidopsis that play key regulatory roles in meristem identity are: APETALA1, LEAFY and SUPPRESSOR OF CONSTANS1.
C. The genes that determine floral organ identity were discovered as floral homeotic mutants.
D. Most plant homeotic genes belong to a class of related sequences known as FAD box genes.
Which one of the following combinations of the above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:99

A few statements on early developmental stages in plants are given below:
A. The cells of flower are diploid in nature.
B. Only some specialized cells in reproductive organs undergo meiosis produce haploid cells.
C. The haploid cells produced in (B) above, undergo a few normal mitotic cell divisions.
D. All the progeny cells produced in (B) above, differentiate either into haploid egg cells or into haploid sperm cells.
Which one of the following combinations of the above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:100

Cells from an early frog blastula were remove from the animal pole and used to replace cells fror the vegetal pole of the blastula. The following events may be expected.
A. Transplanted cells would develop normally as part of the cells of the vegetal pole.
B. Transplanted cells would develop as cells of the animal pole of the adult on the vegetal pole.
C. Region of the animal pole from where the cells were removed would be missing in the adult.
D. Remaining cells in the animal pole would compensate for the cells that were removed.
Which of the following are true?

QUESTION ID:101

Capacitation of mammalian sperms allows them to be activated within the uterus and facilitate fertilization. The following statements were made regarding events occurring during capacitation:
A. removal of cholesterol from sperm head.
B. Removal of non-covalently bound glycoproteins.
C. Increased expression of fibronectin.
D. Decreased permeability of calcium ions.

Identify the correct statements:

QUESTION ID:102

Asada-Halliwell pathway protects plants against oxidative stress during unfavorable environmental growth regimes. The following are some statements related to the stress-tolerance mechanism through this pathway in plants.
A. Oxygen accepts electrons as an alternative electron acceptor.
B. Hydrogen peroxide is reduced by catalase to form water.
C. Ascorbate is oxidized and regenerated.
D. Glutathione is oxidized and reduced.
Which one of the following combinations of the above statements is true?

QUESTION ID:103

The following are certain facts regarding biological nitrogen fixation in plants:
A. Oxygen irreversibly inactivates nitrogenase enzyme involved in nitrogen fixation.
B. The nod genes that code for nodulation proteins are activated by NodD
C. The two components of nitrogenase enzyme complex, the Fe protein and MoFe protein, can show catalytic activity independently.
D. During the reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase enzyme, the Fe protein reduces the MoFe protein while the MoFe protein reduces N2.
Which one of the following combination of the above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:104

Secondary metabolites are diverse array of organic compounds in plants. The following are certain statements about secondary metabolites:
A. They protect plants against being eaten by herbivores and against being infected by microbial pathogens.
B. Terpenes, the largest class of secondary metabolites are synthesized by methyl erythritol phosphate(MEP) pathway and shikimic acid pathway.
C. The most abundant classes of phenolic compounds in plants are derived from phenylalanine.
D. Alkaloids are nitrogen containing secondary metabolites in plants.
Which one of the following combinations of the above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:105

The following are some statements about long distance translocation of photoassimilates in higher plants:
A. Sugars are translocated in the phloem by mass transfer along a hydrostatic pressure.
B. Gibberellic acid stimulates the unloading of sugars from phloem tissue into apoplasts.
C. Munch pressure-flow hypothesis is crucial to drive translocation in the phloem.
D. Allocation and partition of carbon within a source leaf determine the phloem loading phenomenon.
Which one of the following combinations of the above statements is true?

QUESTION ID:106

Directional growth of plants induced by light is called phototropism. Some statements on phototropism are given below:
A. Phototropism is a photomorphogenetic response.
B. PHOT1 and PHOT2 genes mediate phototropism.
C. CRY1 and CRY2 genes although help to perceive blue light are not involved in phototropism.
D. Perception of blue light by phyA photoreceptor initiates phototropism.
Which one of the following combination of the above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:107

Plants make several hormones that are important for growth and development. Some statements on plant hormones are given below:
A. Auxin is produced primarily in the root apices
B. Cytokinins are a smaller group of related compounds.
C. Gibberellins are a large group of related compounds defined not by their biological functions but by their structures.
D. Brassinosteroids are an important class of plant hormones, which control a broad spectrum of developmental reposes including pollen tube growth.
Which one of the following combination of the above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:108

An action potential was generated on a nerve fibre by a threshold electrical stimulus. When a second stimulus was applied, no matter how strong it was, during the absolute refractory period of the action potential, the nerve fibre was unable to generate second action potential. This observation was explained in the following statements:
A. A large fraction of potassium channel was voltage inactivated
B. The critical number of sodium channels required to produce an action potential could not be recruited.
C. A large fraction of sodium channel was voltage inactivated.
D. The critical number of potassium channels required to produce an action potential could not be recruited.
Which one of the following is true?

QUESTION ID:109

Water and electrolytes like Na+ and cl- are lost from the body in diarrhoea. Oral administration of NaCl solution in this condition does not improve the situation. When glucose is administered with normal NaCl solution through oral route, the absorption of electrolytes along with water occurs and the patient recovers.
A. Glucose enhances ATP production in the mucosal cells of small intestine and thus facilitates sodium absorption.
B. Glucose inhibits the diarrheal toxin induced cAMP production in the mucosal cells of small intestine.
C. Na+ is co-transported with glucose on the apical surface of the mucosal cells of small intestine.
D. The epithelial sodium channels (ENaC) are activated by glucose in colon.
Which one of the following is true?

QUESTION ID:110

A patient has episodes of painful spontaneous muscles contraction, followed by periods of paralysis of the affected muscles. It was identified as primary hyperkalemic paralysis, an inherited disorder. The possible causes of the paralysis are
A. The elevation of extracellular K+ causes hyperpolarization of skeletal muscle cells.
B. The hyperpolarization of the muscle cell membrane inactivates sodium channels.
C. The elevation of extracellular K+ causes depolarization of skeletal muscle cells.
D. The sodium channels are voltage inactivated in depolarized state
Which one of the following is true?

QUESTION ID:111

Myoglobin (Mb) in muscles, Hemoglobin A (HbA) in adult RaC, Hemoglobin C (HbC) in patients with thinner RBC and Hemoglobin S (HbS) in sickle cell disease are four different hemoproteins. Oxygen saturation kinetics of these four proteins is different. Which of the following profile is most plausible?

QUESTION ID:112

Maintaining the salt concentration and volume plasma are two key parameters for physiological processes achieved by kidney. Which of following structural and functional combines the most efficient renal regulatory system mammals?

QUESTION ID:113

Which one of the following graphs best represents the hormone profile in a rat right after matting?

QUESTION ID:114

Which of the following representations of chromosomal arrangement in meiotic metaphase I best explains the Law of Independent Assortment?

QUESTION ID:115

Which of the following statements are true Robertsonian translocations?
A. The size of the homologous chromosome involved in translocation will differ.
B. Genes on the chromosome involved in translocation will show linkage with genes with which it normal independently assorts.
C. There will be change in the physical map, but no change in the genetic map.
D. It can be identified by G-banding chromosomes.
E. It can be identified by C-banding chromosomes.
F. It can lead to Down syndrome
Which one of the following combination is correct?

QUESTION ID:116

Ames test is used to evaluate mutagens in the environment. Which of the following statements, about Ames test are true?
A. The mutagenic effect of a compound tested using an auxotrophic strain of Salmonella typhimurium
B. The mutagenic effect of a compound is tested using His strain of Escherichia coli.
C. Using appropriate strains, compounds causing base substitutions and frame shift
D. Liver enzymes are important as they are activated by test compound to evaluate its mutagenicity potential.
E. Many compounds may have to be converted to bioactive metabolites,
which is carried out by the enzymes from the liver

QUESTION ID:117

The genetic map of three genes in Drosophila melanogaster is given below:

A cross, as given below individuals of the genotype:

The female F1 progeny are test-crossed and 1000 progeny are obtained. Assuming that there has been no double crossover, what is the expected number of progeny with the genotypes:

QUESTION ID:118

The following pedigree shows the inheritance pattern of a rare recessive disorder with complete penetrance.
A child from marriage between individuals II-2 & II-3 will show the disorder only if the parents carry the recessive allele. What is the probability that the child will show the disorder?

QUESTION ID:119

 DNA from a strain of bacteria with genotype a+  b+  c+  d+  e +  was isolated and used to transform a strain of bacteria that was a- b- c- d- e-. The transformed eel  were tested for the presence of donat ed genes. The following genes are found be co-transformed
i. a+ and d+

ii. b+ and e+

iii. c+ and d+

iv. c+ and e+

The order of genes on the bacterial chromosome is

QUESTION ID:120

Coelomates have
A. fluid filled body cavity.
B. a complete lining called peritoneum, derived from mesoderm  covering the body cavity.
C. a complete lining called peritoneum, derived from ectoderm covering the body cavity.
D. Round worm as representative of this group.
E. Flat worm as representative of this group.
Select the correct combination

QUESTION ID:121

Most biologists agree that seaweeds are protists. Some biologists think that at least some seaweeds should be considered plants, not protists. Which of the following would support the latter one?

QUESTION ID:122

Which of following shows the correct systematic hierarchy?

QUESTION ID:123

Match the following

QUESTION ID:124

In the following diagram, two models succession are represented. In this diagram A, C and D are species and arrows indicate replaced by' Based on the above, which statement is correct.
 

QUESTION ID:125

Lindeman's efficiency between trophic levels is depicted by the formula: Efficiency = A/B Where, A and B, respectively are:

QUESTION ID:126

The following matrix shows the relationship between probability of death and duration of species association. In the above, A, B, C and D are:

QUESTION ID:127

An observation was made on a species experiencing three factors A, B and C in order to infer a density dependent population regulation by a factor. The following graph shows the relationship between the adverse effect of the factors in terms of number and population density.

Based on the above observation, which of the following is correct?

QUESTION ID:128

Which of the following biotic provinces are part of Deccan Peninsula biogeographic zone of India?

QUESTION ID:129

Which one of the following plants group combinations reflects the correct increasing order of the number of species it has?

QUESTION ID:130

Micro-evolution is the term used for changes in allele frequencies that occur over time.
A) Within a population at species level
B) within a community at genus level
C) due to appearance of new genes infections
D) due to mutation, natural selection, flow and genetic drift
Which of the following combinations is NOT appropriate?

QUESTION ID:131

The following genotypes were observed in a population Which of the following is the correct frequency of H allele and what will be the expected number of HH in the given population?

QUESTION ID:132

The first vertebrate animal appeared in which of the following geological ages?
A) Paleozoic era

B) Mesozoic era

C) Ordovician period

D) Cretaceous period

E) Mississippian epoch

F) Paleocene epoch
Which of the following combinations give the best answer?

QUESTION ID:133

Fore limb of human and flippers of whale are embryologically homologous structures. What does the study of homologous structures tell us about evolution?
A. This is the example of adaptive radiation, occurred due to similar group of organisms inhabiting different environments
B. This is the example of divergent evolution, occurred due to similar group of organisms inhabiting different environments
C. Similar group of organisms with mutations and variations getting naturally selected in different environments
D. This is the example of convergent evolution, occurred due to similar group of organisms inhabiting different environments
Which of the following is the correct combination?

QUESTION ID:134

Foster pups were presented to a primiparous rat at the mid gestation period. Which of the following behaviour will be found in the pregnant rat?

QUESTION ID:135

Electrons are transferred from reduced c enzymes like NADH, NADPH to pyruvic acid its derivatives during fermentation. Those fin electron acceptors are reduced to the end-product for example latic acid, propionic acid, etc. end products depend on the particular microorganism and the substrate The correct match is

QUESTION ID:136

In resting cells, proteins X and Y are localized in the cytosol. Upon stimulation with lipopolysaccharide (LPS), both of them are phosphorylated and translocate to the nucleus. You have used antibodies against phosphorylated forms of proteins X and Y which are conjugated to either red, or green or blue dye. Keeping optical aberration of light in mind, which one of the following will be the best for visualizing X and Y In the nucleus by fluorescence microscopy?

QUESTION ID:137

A transgenic plant is developed with the following T-DNA construct Which of the above are correct?

In order to analyze the nature of integration, genomic DNA digested with EcoRI was used for Southern hybridization using either probe A or B. The result obtained is as

The following conclusions were made:

A. There are two copies of the T-DNA cassette integrated at one loci and a third copy at another loci.

B. There are two copies of the T-DNA cassette integrated at one loci.

C. Complete T-DNA cassette has been integrated in all cases.

D. In one T-DNA cassette there is a truncation towards the RB

E. In one T-DNA cassette there is a towards the LB

F. The arrangement of the T-DNA cassettes integrated at the same loci is

G. The arrangement of the T-DNA cassette integrated at the same loci is

Which of the above are correct?

QUESTION ID:138

While designing an experiment for Agrobacterium mediated plant transformation, a student noted down the following points:
A. Ti and Ri plasmids induce crown gall and hairy root disease, respectively
B. Enzymes octopine synthase and nopaline synthase involved in the synthesis of octopine and nopaline, respectively are encoded by T-DNA.
C. All the six vir genes, vir A, vir B, vir C, vir D, vir E and vir G are absolutely required for virulence.

D. Almost perfect 25 bp direct repeat sequences flanking all Ti and Ri plasmids in the T-DNA region is essential for T-DNA transfer.
Which one of the following combinations of the above statement is correct?

QUESTION ID:139

The following are certain facts regarding bioremediation:
A. Biodegradable plastics are made using polyhydroxy alkanoates (PHAs) such as polyhydroxybutyrate (PHB).
B. Pseudomonas putida F1 bacterial strain is involved in degradation of aromatic hydrocarbon.
C. The bacterium Deinococcus radiodurans consume and digest toluene and ionic mercury from highly radioactive nuclear waste.
D. Bioaugmentation is a process of improving the microorganisms already existing in the system for degradation of xenobiotic compound.
Which one of the following combination of above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:140

An unknown peptide was isolated from the leaf of a medicinal plant and purified to homogeneity. The peptide did not yield any sequence when subjected to Edman degradation. However, tryptic digest of the peptide produced a unique sequence. The mass of the intact peptide was found to be 18 Da less than that obtained from the trypsin treated sample. The possible interpretation of the above experimental results could be that the
A. the N-terminus of the peptide was blocked by acetylation or methylation.
B. the peptide was cyclic and contained at least one internal arginine or lysine residue.
C. the peptide was cyclic and contained a lysine or arginine residue at the C terminus.
D. the peptide was cyclized by peptide bond formation between α- amino group and α-carboxyl group.
Which of the above statements is true?

QUESTION ID:141

A gene is regulated by a novel transcription factor. The following techniques may be used to identify the cis- regulatory element in the 1 kb promoter sequence of the gene where the novel transcription factor binds:
A. Bioinformatics analysis.
B. Cell based reporter assay.
C. S 1 nuclease assay
D. Electrophoretic mobility shift assay.
E. DNAse-I foot-printing analysis
Which one of the following can help to identify the cis element?

QUESTION ID:142

A protein D is encoded by a gene, which is 5 Kb long and has three Hind III restriction enzyme sites. The first one is 0.5 Kb from the transcription start site, the second one is 2.5 Kb from the first site and the third one is 0.5 Kb internal to the stop codon. The second site is polymorphic. In order to find out whether fetal cells contain the normal or the mutated gene, total genomic DNA from fetal cells was isolated, completely digested with Hind III, separated in an agarose gel, transferred to membrane and detected by a probe against the region between the second and third restriction site. Which one of the following band patterns will be obtained if the fetal cell is heterozygous?

QUESTION ID:143

Given below are the experimental protocols to find out the exact location of repetitive DNA sequence in mitotic chromosome by FISH (fluorescence in situ hybridization). Which one of the protocols will give the correct result?

QUESTION ID:144

At 25°C values of [θ]222, the mean residue ellipticity at 222 nm, are - 33,000 and -3,000 deg cm2 dmol^-1 for a polypeptide existing in α- helical (α) and β-structure (β), respectively. If this polypeptide undergoes a two-state heat-induced α→β transition, and a value of [θ]222 = -18,000 deg cm2 dmol^-1 is observed at 60°C, then this observation leads to the conclusion that the α helix conversion to β- structure is:

QUESTION ID:145

An EEG was recorded and its power spectrum analyses were done in rats with implant electrode for a long time. The power of the EEG waves decreased two months after electrode implantation. This observation may be due to the following:
A. Glial cells accumulate surrounding exposed tips of electrodes.
B. Degeneration of neurons occur surrounding the electrode tips due metal ion deposition.
C. Coating of electrodes are destroyed with time.
D. The microsocket becomes loose time.
Which one of the following is true?