Previous Year Questions

QUESTION ID:2

A vessel is partially filled with water. More water is added to it at a rate directly proportional to time [dV/dt α t]. Which of the following graphs depicts correctly the variation of total volume V of water with time t?

QUESTION ID:3

The triangle formed by the lines y = x, y = 1- x and x = 0 in a two dimensional plane is (x and y axes have the same scale)  

QUESTION ID:4

Statement A. The following statement is true Statement B. The preceding statement is false. Choose the correct inference from the following:  

QUESTION ID:5

The number of squares in the above figure is  

QUESTION ID:6

A person walks downhill at 10 km/h, uphill at 6 km/h and on the plane at 7.5 km/h. If the person takes 3 hours to go from a place A to another place B, and 1 hour on the way back, the distance between A and B is  

QUESTION ID:7

A bird leaves its nest and flies away. Its distance x from the nest is plotted as a function of time t. Which of the following plots cannot be right?

QUESTION ID:8

A car is moving at 60 km/h. The instantaneous velocity of the upper most points of its wheels is  

QUESTION ID:9

A living cell has a protoplasm which is water based and demarcated by a lipid bilayer membrane. If a cell is pierced up to 1/5th of its diameter with a very sharp needle, after taking the needle out  

QUESTION ID:10

If D + 1+ M = 1501 C+I+V+I+L=157 L+ 1+ V + I + D= 557 C+I + v+ I +C=207 What is V+I+M= ?  

QUESTION ID:11

Density of a rice grain is 1.5 g/cc and bulk density of rice heap is 0.80 g/cc. If a 1 litre container is completely filled with rice, what will be the approximate volume of pore space in the container?  

QUESTION ID:12

Four circles of unit radius each are drawn such that each one touches two others and their centres lie on the vertices of a square. The area of the region enclosed between the circles is  

QUESTION ID:13

A turtle starts swimming from a point A located on the circumference of a circular pond. After swimming for 4 meters in a straight line it hits point B on the circumference of the pond. From there it changes direction and swims for 3 meters in a straight line and arrives at point D diametrically opposite to point A. How far is point D from A?  

QUESTION ID:14

A film projector and microscope give equal magnification. But a film projector is not used to see living cells because  

QUESTION ID:15

In each of the following groups of words is a hidden number, based on which you should arrange them in descending order. Pick the correct answer: E. Papers I Xeroxed F. Wi-Fi veteran G. Yourself ourselves H. Breaks even  

QUESTION ID:16

Five congruent rectangles are drawn inside a big rectangle of perimeter 165 as shown. What is the perimeter of one of the five rectangles?  

QUESTION ID:17

At one instant, the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock are one over the other in between the markings for 5 and 6 on the dial. At this instant, the tip of the minute hand  

QUESTION ID:18

A cubical cardboard box made of 1 cm thick card board has outer side of 29 cm. A tight-filling cubical box of the same thickness is placed inside it, then another one inside it and so on. How many cubical boxes will be there in the entire set?  

QUESTION ID:19

There are two buckets A and B. Initially A has 2 litres of water and B is empty. At every hour 1 litre of water is transferred from A to B followed by returning ½ litre back to A from B half an hour later. The earliest A will get empty is in:  

QUESTION ID:20

Secondary colours are made by a mixture of three primary colours, Red, Green and Blue, in different proportions; each of the primary colours comes in 8 possible levels. Grey corresponds to equal proportions of Red, Green and Blue. How many shades of grey exist in this scheme?  

QUESTION ID:21

Enzymes accelerate a reaction by which one of the following strategies?  

QUESTION ID:22

The genome of a bacterium is composed of a single DNA molecule which is 10^9 bp long. How many moles of genomic DNA is present in the bacterium? [Consider Avogadro No = 6 X 10^23]  

QUESTION ID:23

The ionic strength of a 0.2 M Na2HPO4, solution will be  

QUESTION ID:24

Glycophorin having one highly hydrophobic domain is able to span a phospholipid bilayer membrane only  

QUESTION ID:25

A cell line deficient in salvage pathway for nucleotide biosynthesis was fed with medium containing 15N labelled amino acids. Purines were then extracted. Treatment with which one of the following amino acids is likely to produce 15N labelled purines?  

QUESTION ID:26

Given below are events in the cell cycle.

(a) Phosphorylation of lamin A, B, C

(b) Phosphorylation of Rb (Retinoblastoma protein)

(c) Polyubiquitination of securin

(d) Association of inner nuclear membrane proteins and nuclear pore complex proteins with chromosomes.

Which one of the following reflects the correct sequence of events in the mammalian cell cycle?  

QUESTION ID:27

It takes 40 minutes for a typical E. coli cell to completely replicate its chromosome. Simultaneous to the ongoing replication, 20 minutes of a fresh round of replication is completed before the cell divides. What would be the generation time of E. coli growing at 370C in complex medium?  

QUESTION ID:28

An antibiotic that resembles the 3' end of a charged tRNA molecule is:  

QUESTION ID:29

Coupling of the reaction centers of oxidative phosphorylation is achieved by which one of the following?  

QUESTION ID:30

Which one ofthe following chemicals is a DNA intercalator?  

QUESTION ID:31

In eukaryotic replication, helicase loading occurs at all replicators during  

QUESTION ID:32

Which of the following is NOT a second messenger?  

QUESTION ID:33

Cytotoxic T cells express  

QUESTION ID:34

Which of the following is NOT a cell adhesion protein?  

QUESTION ID:35

The mutation in an oncogene falls under which of the following classes?  

QUESTION ID:36

α-Amanitin is a fungal toxin which inhibits eukaryotic RNA polymerases. The three eukaryotic RNA polymerases show differential sensitivity to this toxin. Which one of the following order (higher to lower) is correct in respect of sensitivity towards α-amanitin?  

QUESTION ID:37

For which one of the following physiological studies 12CO2 and 13CO2 are used?  

QUESTION ID:38

Floral organ development is controlled by overlapping expression of 'A’ class, 'B' class and 'C’ class genes in different whorls. In an Arabidopsis mutant, the flowers had sepals, sepals, carpels and carpels in the four whorls. Mutation in which one of the following is the cause for the mutant phenotype?  

QUESTION ID:39

Migration of individual cells from the surface into the embryo's interior is termed as  

QUESTION ID:40

Gibberellic acid (GA) controls seed germination by directing breakdown of the stored starch. In which one of the following tissues of the barley seed, α-amylase gene is induced in response to GA?  

QUESTION ID:41

Phenylalanine, a precursor of most of the phenolics in higher plants is a product of which one of the following pathways?  

QUESTION ID:42

Alveolar cells of the lung arise from which one of the following layer(s)?  

QUESTION ID:43

In chick, development of wing feather, thigh feather and claws depends on epithelial specificity conferred by induction from mesenchymal components from different sources of the dermins. This may be attributed to?  

QUESTION ID:44

Which one of the following is NOT involved with the pacemaker potential of heart?  

QUESTION ID:45

Which one of the following neurotransmitters is secreted by the pre-ganglionic neurons of sympathetic nervous system?

QUESTION ID:46

The photosynthetic assimilation of atmospheric CO2 by leaves yield sucrose and starch as end products of two gluconeogenic pathways that are physically separated. Which one of the following combination of cell organelles are involved in such physical separation of the process?

QUESTION ID:47

You are asked to identify the stage of estrus cycle in vaginal smear of a mouse containing large number of leukocytes and very few nucleated epithelial cells. Which one of the following will be the correct stage of estrous cycle?

QUESTION ID:48

A diabetic patient developed metabolic acidosis resulting in deep and rapid breathing which is called

QUESTION ID:49

Mutation in gene 'X' leads to lethality in a haploid organism. Which one of the following is best suited to analyse the function of gene 'X'?

QUESTION ID:50

The following pedigree chart shows inheritance of a given trait.The trait can be called

QUESTION ID:51

Following is a hypothetical biochemical pathway responsible for pigmentation of leaves. The pathway is controlled by two independently assorting genes 'A' and 'B' encoding enzymes as shown below.Mutant alleles 'a' and 'b' code for non-functional proteins.What is the expected progeny after selfing a plant with the genotype AaBb?

QUESTION ID:52

In a heterozygous individual for a given gene, if a crossing over has occurred between the gene locus and the centromere of the chromosome, the segregation of the two alleles of the given gene will occur during meiosis at

QUESTION ID:53

Which of the following statements about evolution is NOT true?

QUESTION ID:54

Identify the correct match between the animal (flatworm, earthworm, roundworm) and its body cavity type (acoelomate, coelomate, pseudocoelomate):

QUESTION ID:55

According to 2014 IUCN Red List, which of the following vertebrate classes has the largest percentage of threatened species?

QUESTION ID:56

Which gas does NOT contribute to global warming through its greenhouse effect?

QUESTION ID:57

Most members of bryophyte phylum Anthocerophyta are characterized by

QUESTION ID:58

Which one of the following gymnosperm phyla produces motile sperms, bears ovulate and microsporangiate cones on separate plants and has fleshy, coated seeds?

QUESTION ID:59

A red coloured tubular flower without any odour is most likely to be pollinated by

QUESTION ID:60

In the following equations

(a) dN /dt = rN

(b) Nt = No^ert(

c) dN/dt = rN (K-N/K)

(d) dN/dt=rN x N/K

exponential population growth is described by

QUESTION ID:61

Which isotope below is best suited for metabolic labelling of glyceraldehyde-3- phospho-dehydrogenase?

QUESTION ID:62

Which one of the following conditions is NOT likely to favour male monogamy?

QUESTION ID:63

Neomycin phospho-transferase gene, frequently used as a selection marker during plant trans formation, inactivates which one of the following antibiotics?

QUESTION ID:64

Which among the following is the simplest method to estimate the concentration of glycerol in an aqueous solution of glycerol?

QUESTION ID:65

The origin and diversification of Angiosperms was during which geological period?

QUESTION ID:66

Application of gene therapy in clinical trials did NOT succeed due to

QUESTION ID:67

Which one of the following would contribute to intrinsic fluorescence to a protein?

QUESTION ID:68

For identification of three proteins moving together (as a single band) upon loading in a single lane of a SDS-PAGE gel the best method is:

QUESTION ID:69

A gene expressing a 50 kD protein from an eukaryote was cloned in an E. coli plasmid under the lac promoter and operator. Upon addition of IPTG, the 50 kDa protein was not detected. Which one of the following explains the above observation?

QUESTION ID:70

Which one of the following techniques will you use to identify more than 1000 differentially expressed genes in and tumor tissues in one experiment?

QUESTION ID:71

The exact backbone dihedral angles in a folded protein can be obtained by

QUESTION ID:72

Which one of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:73

The following are the statements about pyruvate kinase (PK).

A. ATP is an allosteric inhibitor of PK

B. Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate is an activator of PK

C. ADP is an allosteric inhibitor of PK

D. Alanine is an allosteric modulator of PK

Which of the above statement(s) are true?

QUESTION ID:74

Membrane proteins are synthesized on endoplasmic reticulum and transported to various oraganelle. One hypothesis for membrane protein sorting is hydrophobicity matching i.e., the proteins with a shorter transmembrane portion would partition into thinner membranes. You are given the following three observations:

A. It was found that transmembrane portion of proteins in Golgi membranes are short than those in plasma membranes

B. Presence of cholesterol increases the thickness of the bilayer

C. The phospholipid composition of Golgi and plasma membranes are same

Which of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:75

Four single amino acid mutants (a to d) of a protein in the epitope-region of a monoclonal antibody X were made and expressed in E. coli. The lysates from the four E. coli cultures expressing these four proteins were run or an SDS-PAGE gel and subsequently transferred to nitrocellulose membrane and Western blotted using a monoclonal antibody X raised against the wild type protein. The results are presented in the figure below

The four single mutation, upon sequencing, were found to be Valine (V) to Alanine (A); Glycine (G) to Proline (P); Alanine (A) to Aspartic acid (D) and isoleucine (I) to leucine (L). Which one of the following statements Is correct? 

QUESTION ID:76

A practical class was going on where the students were demonstrating ATP synthesis in vitro using active mitochondria. Some students added one of the following to their tubes

A. Dinitrophenol (DNP), an uncoupler

B. Mild acidification of the medium

C. Glutilferone, that permeabilizes both the membranes

D. An outer membrane permeable H+ quencher compound, ElilaIn

which one of the above, ATP synthesis will be detected?

QUESTION ID:77

You have labelled DNA in a bacterium by flowing cells in medium containing either 14N nitrogen or the heavier isotope, 15N. Furthermore, you have isolated pure DNA from these organisms, and subjected it to CsCl density gradient centrifugation leading separation of light (14N) and heavy (15N) forms of DNA to different locations in the centrifuge tube. In the next experiment, bacteria were regrown first in medium containing 15N, so that all the DNA made by cells will be in heavy form. Then these cells were transferred to medium containing only 14N and allowed the cells to divide for one generation. DNAs were extracted and centrifuged as above in the CsCl gradient. A hybrid DNA band was observed at a positions located between and equidistant from the 15N and 14N DNA bands. Based on the above observation, which one of the following conclusions is correct

QUESTION ID:78

Following is the domain organization of three proteins that are targeted to the mitochondria. Based on the domain organization in the above figure and assuming the left box to be having the mitochondrial sorting signal, predict the most likely sub-compartment of the mitochondria in which the protein will be found.

QUESTION ID:79

Lipid rafts are rich in both sphingolipids and cholesterol. Cholesterol plays a central role in raft formation since lipid rafts apparently do not form ill its absence. Why do you think cholesterol is essential for the formation of lipid rafts?

QUESTION ID:80

Which one of the following statements correctly applies to proteins which are translated on the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

QUESTION ID:81

A culture medium contains two carbon sources, one is preferred carbon source (glucose) and the second is a non-preferred source (lactose). Which one below is correct regarding the nature of growth curve of E. coli cultured in this medium?

QUESTION ID:82

Although ribonucleoside triphosphates (rNTPs) are present at approximately 10-fold higher concentration than deoxyribo-nucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs) in the cell but they are incorporated into DNA at a rate that is more than 1000-fold lower than dNTPs. This is because

QUESTION ID:83

Enlisted below are different types of RNAs produced in the cell (Column A) and their functions (Column B), but not in the same order. Choose the correct combination

QUESTION ID:84

The frequency of cells in a population that are undergoing mitosis (the mitotic index) is a convenient way to estimate the length of the cell cycle. In order to measure the cell cycle in the liver of the adult mouse by measuring the mitotic index liver slices are prepared and stained to easily identify cells undergoing mitosis. It was observed that only 3 out of 25,000 cells are found to be undergoing mitosis. Assuming that M phase lasts 30 minutes, calculate the approximate length of the cell cycle in the liver of an adult mouse?

QUESTION ID:85

A protein has 4 equally spaced trypsin sensitive sites which results in peptide fragments A1, A2, A3, A4 and A5 upon digestion with trypsin. Peptides A2 and A5, represents N-terminal and C-terminal fragments respectively. Now you are asked to synthesis this protein. At time t = 0 you added all the 20 amino acids labelled with 14C and initiated the synthesis. At time t = 4, full length protein is synthesized. If you stop the synthesis of the protein in time t = 1 and digest the protein with trypsin, which peptide will have maximum 14C label than others?

QUESTION ID:86

In prokaryotes, the initiatior t-RNA is first charged with a methionine, followed by the addition of a formyl group to the methionine by the enzyme Met-tRNA transfonnylase. Given below are several statements in this context.

A. All prokaryotic proteins have formyl methionine at their amino terminal end.

B. Defomylase removes the formyl group from the amino terminal methionine.

C. All prokaryotic proteins have methionine at their amino terminal end.

D. Aminopeptidases often remove the amino terminal methionine.

E. Aminopeptidases remove amino terminal formyl methionine.

Which of the above statement(s) are most likely to be true?

QUESTION ID:87

A hypothetical operon involved in the synthesis of an amino acid ‘X’ is ‘ON’ (transcribing) in the presence of low levels of ‘X’ and ‘OFF’ (not transcribing) in presence of high level of ‘X’. The symbols a, b and c (in the table below) represents a structural gene for the synthesis of X (X synthase), the operator region and gene encoding the repressor– but not necessarily in that order. From the following data, in which superscripts denote wild type or defective genotype, identify which are the genes for X-synthase, operator region and the repressor.

QUESTION ID:88

The mismatch-repair activity of E. coli repairs mis-incorporated bases which is not removed by the proofreading activity of DNA polymerase. However, while doing so, it has to decide which strand of the DNA is newly synthesized and which one is parental. Mismatch repair system does it by which one of the following ways?

QUESTION ID:89

Following statements are made in relation to the five widely recognized stages of Arabidopsis embryogenesis:

A. The fusion of haploid egg and sperm takes place in globular stage

B. Rapid cell division in two regions on either side of the future shoot apex forms heart stage

C. The cell elongation throughout the embryo axis and further development result in torpedo stage

D. The embryo loses water and becomes metabolically inactive in the zygotic stage

Which combination of the above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:90

Physical attachment between cells important in imparting strength in tissues. Various physical cell junctions in vertebrate epithelial tissues are classified according to their primary functions. Enlisted below in column A is the major function of a particular junction and column B enlists cell junctions, but the same order

Choose the correct combination:

QUESTION ID:91

G-protein coupled receptors (GPCR) consist of three protein subunits α, β and γ. In unstimulated state, α-subunit is GDP bound and GPCR is inactive. When GPCR gets activated, it acts like guanine nucleotide exchange (GEF) factor and induces α-subunit to release its bound GDP allowing GTP to bind in its place. In order to regulate G-protein activity by regulating GDP/GTP concentration, α subunit acts as 

QUESTION ID:92

Cellular level of tumour suppressor protein p53 is maintained by the ubiquitin ligase protein, Mdm(2) Over expression of Mdm2 was found to convert a normal cell into cancer cells by destabilizing p5(3) Another protein p19ARF inhibits the activity of Mdm2 thus stabilizing p5(3) Loss of p19ARF function also converts normal cells into cancer cells. Based on the above information, which one of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:93

Instructive and permissive interactions are two major modes of inductive interaction during development. The following compares some properties of cell lines and cord blood stem cells. Cell lines which are stored in liquid nitrogen, can be retrieved for experiments, where they behave as per their original self. Cord blood can also be retrieved from liquid nitrogen for procuring stem cells. Unlike cell lines, the stem cells can be additionally induced to undergo differentiation into desired lineage, which are very different from their original self. The behaviour of cell lines and stem cells is analogous to which of the interactions?

QUESTION ID:94

The following are statements regarding the development and maintenance of anterior and posterior compartments in each segment of Drosophila:

A. Expression of wingless and engrailed is activated by pair-rule genes

B. continued expression of wingless and engrailed is maintained by interaction between the cells expressing engrailed and wingless proteins

C. Hedgehog is expressed wingless expressing cells and forms short range gradient

D. Hedgehog is a transcription factor

E. Engrailed is a secretory factor and binds with the patched receptor of the wingless expressing cells.

Which one of the following combination of above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:95

In C. elegans, an anchor cell and a few hypodermal cells take part in the formation of vulva. The experiment performed to understand the role of these cells in vulva formation and the results obtained are as follows:

-If the anchor cell is killed by laser beam, hypodermal cells do not participate in vulva formation and no vulva develops.

- If six hypodermal cells closely located with anchor cell (called vulval precursor cells) are killed, no vulva develops

- lf the three central vulval precursor are destroyed, the three outer cells, which normally form hypodermis, take the fate of vulval cells instead.

Following are certain statements regarding vulva formation:

A. Anchor cells acts as an inducer

B. Six hypodermal cells with the potential to form vulva form an equivalence group.

C. Three, out of six, hypodermal cells participate in vulva formation

D. The central cell functions as the 10 cell and the two cells on both side act as the 20 cells

E. The 10 cell secretes a short range juxtacrine signal

Which combinations of the above statements have been derived from the above experimental results?

QUESTION ID:96

There are various subclasses of antibodies found in body fluids and body secretion. Many different functions may be attributed to these subclasses. Given below in column I is major functions I different subclasses and column II consists of the name of subclass.Select the correct combination:

QUESTION ID:97

Successful fertilization in sea urchin demands specific interaction between proteins and receptors of sperms and eggs. In view of the above, which one of the following combinations is correct?

QUESTION ID:98

The relation between cellular immune response generated against hepatitis C virus is the critical determinant of the outcome of infection. Given below are the representative figures of cellular immune response in column I and various outcome of infection in columnChoose the best possible combination

QUESTION ID:99

Following are certain statements regarding morphogen gradients and cell specification.

A. Morphogens are always transcription factors.

B. Morphogens can be paracrine factors that are produced in one group of cells and travel to another population of cells

C. When the concentration of a morphogen drops below a certain threshold cells stop differentiating and never get determined to another fate.

D. Morphogen gradients are involved in conditional specification.

Which combination of the above statements is true?

QUESTION ID:100

Which one of the following state about the nuclear receptor super family is NOT true?

QUESTION ID:101

The nodulation (nod) genes are classified as common nod genes or host specific nod genes. Some statements related to such classification are given below:

A. nodA is a common nod gene and nodC is a host specific gene.

B. nodB is a common nod gene and nodP is a host specific gene.

C. nodQ is a common nod gene and nodA is a host specific gene.

D. nodH is a common nod gene and nodQ is a host specific gene.

Choose the correct answer from the above statements:

QUESTION ID:102

Following are certain statements regarding CO2 assimilation in higher plants:

A. The action of aldolase enzyme during Calvin-Benson cycle produces fructose 1,6-bisphosphate.

B. The conversion of glycine to serine takes place in mitochondria during C2 oxidative photosynthetic carbon cycle.

C. During C4, carbon cycle, NAD-malic enzyme releases the CO2 from the 4-carbon acid, malate yielding a 3 carbon acid, pyruvate.

D. Malic acid during crassulacean acid metabolism (CAM) is stored in mitochondria during dark and released back to cytosol during day.

Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:103

Following are certain statements regarding terpene class of secondary metabolites in plants:

A. Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes.

B. Diterpenes are 20 carbon compounds.

C. All terpenes are derived from the union of 4-carbon elements.

D. Pyrethroids are monoterpene esters.

Which one of the following combination of above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:104

A convenient and reasonably reliable indicator of the time of ovulation is usually a rise in the basal body temperature, possibly because progesterone is thermogenic. Of the four situations given below, which one is ideal for ensuring pregnancy after intercourse?

QUESTION ID:105

The difference in circulation between glomerular capillaries (GC) and true capillaries (TC) are described by a researcher in the following statements:

A. The hydrostatic pressure in GC is higher than that in TC

B. The endothelial cells are fenestrated in GC but not in TC

C. Both filtration and fluid movement into capillary takes place in TC but only filtration occurs in GC.

D. The plasma colloid osmotic pressures in both the ends of GC or TC are similar.

Which one of the following is NOT correct?

QUESTION ID:106

After hemorrhage, a subject develops hypovolemia and hypotension. Following are some of the statements regarding homeostatic measure taken by the body after hemorrhage.

A. Increased release of vasopressin

B. Increased water retention and reduced plasma osmolality

C. Increased rate of afferent discharge from low pressure receptors of vascular system

D. Decreased rate of afferent discharge from high pressure receptors of vascular system

Which one of the following is NOT correct in this condition?

QUESTION ID:107

When rods of retina kept in dark, were exposed to light, photo transduction occurred. Following are some explanations given by a researcher regarding phototransduction:

A. Activation of transducin

B. Inhibition of cGMP phosphodiesterase

C. Closure of Na channels

D. Hyperpolarization of rods

Which one did NOT occur in phototransduction

QUESTION ID:108

Examples of many factors that regulate plant height in response to gibberellic acid (GA) are listed below:

A. Binding of a GA bound repressor to the promoter of the DELLA domain containing GRAS protein gene and blocking its expression.

B. Binding of the GA receptor complex to GRAS.

C. Directing GRAS for ubiquitination and degradation by the 26S proteasome.

D. Micro RNA directed down regulation of the GRAS protein expression.

Which one of the following combinations is correct?

QUESTION ID:109

A visitor to a region of hot climate is more distressed by the heat than the regular resident. Within a few weeks, the visitor is more comfortable with the heat and capacity for work is increased. Following are some of the explanations given by a researcher regarding acclimatization to heat.

A. Sweating begins at a lower body temperature

B. Blood flow through skin is high for any body temperature

C. There is rise in resting body temperature O. Vasoconstriction starts at a lower body temperature

Which one of the following is NOT true?

QUESTION ID:110

Ethylene is an important plant hormone that regulates several aspects of plant growth and development. Some statements are given below in relation to ethylene signalling pathways:

A. Unbound ethylene receptors work as positive regulators of the response pathway

B. There are more than two ethylene receptors known to date.

C. The carboxy terminal half of the ethylene receptor, ETR1 (Ethylene response 1), contains a domain homologous to histidine kinase catalytic domain.

D. EIN2 (Ethylene insensitive 2) encodes a transmembrane protein. The ein2 mutation promotes ethylene responses in both seedlings and adult Arabidopsis plants.

Which combination of the above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:111

The afferent nerve fibres of a stretch reflex were electrically stimulated and the contraction of the muscle intervated by efferent fibres was recorded. The synaptic delay was calculated from the time points of the nerve stimulation and response of the muscle. Which one of the following time durations will be probable value for the observed synaptic delay?

QUESTION ID:112

Many factors related to the role of abscisic acid (ABA) in contributing to drought, cold and salt resistance in plants are listed below:

A. The transcription factors DREB 1 and DREB2 bind to the cis-acting elements of the promoter of ABA responsive genes in an ABA dependent manner.

B. ABA induces many genes such as LEA and RD29.

C. ABA-responsive genes contain six nucleotide ABRE elements in the promoter.

D. Nine-nucleotide dehydration- responsive elements (ORE) are present in ABA responsive genes.

Which one of the following combinations of the~ above statements is correct with respect to ABA?

QUESTION ID:113

The following diagram shows meiotic pairing in an inversion heterozygote and a point where single crossing over has occurredThe resulting gametes produced may have

A. the chromosome having normal gene sequence

B. the chromosome having inverted gene sequence

C. a dicentric chromosome with duplication and deletion

D. an acentric chromosome having duplication and deletion

E. the chromosome having duplication and deletion

Which of the following combination will be most appropriate for the diagram shown:

QUESTION ID:114

Two siblings who inherit 50% of the genome from the mother and 50% from the father show lot of phenotypic differences. Which one of the following events during gametogenesis of the parents will maximally contribute to this difference?

QUESTION ID:115

Of the following, which one of the individuals will NOT necessarily carry the allele responsible for the mentioned trait?

QUESTION ID:116

Three somatic hybrid cell lines, designated as X, Y and Z, have been scored for the presence or absence of chromosomes 1 through 8, as well as fortheir ability to produce the hypothetical gene product A, B, C and D as shown in the following table:Which of the following option has most appropriately assigned chromosomes for each of the given genes?

QUESTION ID:117

In an organism, expression of gene 'X' is induced in the presence of a hormone genetic analysis showed that the hormonal signal is transduced through two proteins Let1 and Let2. The expression of gene 'X' was studied in lines over expressing (OE) the active Let proteins, knock out (KO) of the Let proteins or combination of both. Results of expression of gene 'X' in presence of the hormone is summarized below:

Based on the above, which one of the following pathways best fits the observation made? 

QUESTION ID:118

Consider the following hypothetical pathway: H allele converts X substance to H substance h allele cannot convert X to H substance and leads to phenotype 'O' A allele converts H substance leading to A phenotype a allele cannot convert H substance B allele converts H substance leading to B phenotype b allele cannot convert H substance An individual with A phenotype when crossed with that of B phenotype has a progeny with O phenotype. Which one of the following crosses can lead to the above observation?

QUESTION ID:119

The following are matches made between adult animals and their larval forms

A. Copepods- Nauplius

B. Sea cucumber- Zoea

C. Sea urchin- Echinopleuteus

D. crabs- AuriculariaE. Star fish - BipinnariaF. Brittle star- Ophiopleuteus

Which one of the combinations below reflects INCORRECT matches?

QUESTION ID:120

researcher conducts a standard test to identify enteric bacteria (A, B, C) on the basis of their biochemical properties. The result is given in the following tableBased on the above, the identified bacteria A, B and C are most probably

QUESTION ID:121

Which of the following statements about the birth rates (b1, b2) and death rates (d1, d2) of species 1 and 2 indicated in the figure is NOT true?

QUESTION ID:122

The Phylogenetic tree of amniote vertebrates is given in diagramThe groups labeled A, B, C, D are

QUESTION ID:123

Which of the following is the correct match of the algal group with its food reserve?

QUESTION ID:124

Following is a cladogram of the major taxonomic groups of the angiosperms:Groups A-E represent respectively:

QUESTION ID:125

Important chemical reactions involved in nutrient cycling in ecosystems are given below:The organisms associated with these chemical reactions are

QUESTION ID:126

The following are some important features which are commonly associated with animal development:

A. Position of anus development with respect to blastopore

B. Method of cell division

C. Mechanism of coelom formation

D. Cleavage pattern during egg development Based on the above,

which one of the following combinations differentiate the development of deuterostomes from that of protostomes?

QUESTION ID:127

In a population of effective Population size Ne with rate of neutral mutation μo, the frequency of heterozygotes per nucleotide per site at equilibrium between mutation and genetic drift is calculated as

QUESTION ID:128

In a field experiment, autotrophs are provided a 14C-labelled carbon compound for photosynthesis. Radioactivity (14C) levels were then monitored at regular intervals in all the trophic levels. In which ecosystem is the radioactivity likely to be detected fastest at the primary carnivore level?

QUESTION ID:129

Following table shows the presence (+) or absence (-) of five species in three communities (A, B, C):Based on the above, which of the following is the correct order of similarity between two pairs of communities?

QUESTION ID:130

A Population is growing logistically with a growth rate (r) of 0.15/week, in an environment with a carrying capacity of 400. What is the maximum growth rate (No) of individuals/week) that this population can achieve?

QUESTION ID:131

Following table shows the number of individuals of five tree species in a community;Based on the above, the Simpsons diversity (DS) index of the community will be

QUESTION ID:132

The "Red Queen Hypothesis" is related to

QUESTION ID:133

Individual A can derive fitness benefit of 160 units by helping Individual B, but incurs a fitness cost of 50 units in doing so following Hamilton’s rule, A should help B ONLY if B is his

QUESTION ID:134

In several populations, each of size N =20, if genetic drift results in a change in the relative frequencies of alleles,A. What is the rate of increase per generation in the proportion of populations in which the allele is lost or fixed?B. What is the rate of decrease per generation in each allele frequency class between 0 and 1?The correct answer for A and B is:

QUESTION ID:135

 Which Of the following X-Y relationships does NOT follow the pattern shown in the graph?

QUESTION ID:136

The following statements are related to plant tissue culture

A. Friable callus provides the inoculum to form cell-suspension cultures.

B. The process known as 'habituation' refers to the property of callus loosing the requirement of auxin and/or cytokinin during long term culture.

C. Cellulase and pectinase enzymes are usually used for generating protoplast cultures.

D. During somatic embryo development, torpedo stage embryo is formed before heart stage embryo.

Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:137

Glucose in the blood is detected by four different methods (a, b, c and d). The sensitivity and range of detection of glucose by these four methods is shown below. Clinically relevant concentration of glucose in blood is between 80 - 250 mg/dL Which of the following method is most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:138

Which one of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:139

During an experiment; a student found increased activity of a protein, for which there were three possible explanations, viz., increased expression of the protein, increased phosphorylation, or increased interaction with other effector proteins. After conducting several experiments, the student concluded that increased activity was due to increased phosphorylation. Which one of the following experiments will NOT support/provide the correct explanation drawn by the student?

QUESTION ID:140

As cancer progresses, several genome rearrangements including translocation, deletion, duplications etc. Occur. If these rearrangements are to be identified, which of the following techniques would be most suitable?

QUESTION ID:141

A mixture of two proteins was subjected to following three chromatographic columns:(a) Cation exchange,(b) Size exclusion (Sephadex 100) and (c) Reverse phase. Following elution profiles were obtained Which of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:142

student noted the following points regarding Agrobacterium tumefaciens:

A. tumefaciens is a gram-negative soil bacterium.

B. Opine catabolism genes are present in T- DNA region of Ti-plasmid.

C. Opines are synthesized by condensation of amino acids and alpha -ketoacids or amino acids and sugars.

D. A callus culture of crown gall tissue caused by A. tumefaciens in plants can be multiplied without adding phytohormones.

Which one of the combinations of above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:143

Fluorescence recovery after photobleaching in live cells is used to determine

QUESTION ID:144

A researcher is studying the subcellular localization of a particular protein 'X' in an animal cell. The researcher performs successive centrifugation at increasing rotor speed. The researcher starts spinning the cellular homogenate at 600g for 10 min, collects the pellet, spins the supernatant at 10,000 g for 20 min, collects the pellet, spins the supernatant at 100,000g for 1 hour, collects both the pellet and the final supernatant. On subjecting various pellets and the final supernatant to Western blotting with anti-protein-X antibody, the protein X is, observed to be maximally expressed in pellet after centrifugation at 10,000 g. Based on the above observation, what will be the most likely localization of protein X.

QUESTION ID:145

You have transiently expressed a new protein (for which no antibody is available) in a cell line to establish structure function relationship. Which one of the following strategies is the most straight forward way to examine the expression profile of this new protein?