Previous Year Questions

QUESTION ID:2

QUESTION ID:3

QUESTION ID:4

QUESTION ID:5

QUESTION ID:6

QUESTION ID:7

QUESTION ID:8

In the trapezium ABCD, what is the length of CP?

QUESTION ID:9

QUESTION ID:10

QUESTION ID:11

QUESTION ID:12

QUESTION ID:13

QUESTION ID:14

QUESTION ID:15

QUESTION ID:16

QUESTION ID:17

If a square is inscribed in the ellipse   with its sides parallel to the axes of the ellipse and its vertices lying on the ellipse, then the area of the square is approximately

QUESTION ID:18

QUESTION ID:19

 

QUESTION ID:20

QUESTION ID:21

QUESTION ID:22

QUESTION ID:23

QUESTION ID:24

Following are statements on enzyme kinetics. Choose the correct statement.

QUESTION ID:25

Which one of the following statements about M-phase cyclin is correct?

QUESTION ID:26

Which one of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:27

How many kinetochores are present in a human cell at mitosis?

QUESTION ID:28

Bacterial actin homologs contribute to the cell shape by serving as a scaffold to direct the synthesis of the peptidoglycan cell wall. Which of the following is/are actin homolog/sin bacteria?

QUESTION ID:29

Which one of the following proteins catalyzes branch migration activity in Holliday junction?

QUESTION ID:30

Presence of sigma factor (σ70) in Escherichia coli facilitates

QUESTION ID:31

Bacterial ribosomes consist of 30S and 50S ribosomal subunits. The translating monosome has a sedimentation value of 

QUESTION ID:32

Which one of the following statements about mRNA export from the nucleus is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:33

Which one of the following pathogens cannot survive and replicate within phagocytic cells?

QUESTION ID:34

The initiator caspase responsible for promoting cell death after specific activation of TRADD is

QUESTION ID:35

Which one of the following glycosaminoglycans is generally NOT covalently attached to protein as proteoglycans?

QUESTION ID:36

Which one of the following immunoglobulin isotypes plays a primary role in protecting against pathogens that invade through the gut or respiratory mucosa?

QUESTION ID:37

The table given below provides categories and names of genes involved in Drosophila development

Which one of the following options is a correct match between the categories and gene names?

QUESTION ID:38

Which one of the following is NOT a typical movement pattern observed during gastrulation?

QUESTION ID:39

Which one of the following options related to plant growth and development is matched correctly?

QUESTION ID:40

Which one of the following proteins regulates photo morphogenesis in plants by adding ubiquitin tags to a subset of nuclear proteins?

QUESTION ID:41

Which one of the following combinations of nodulation (nod) genes are found in all rhizobial strains?

QUESTION ID:42

First committed precursor in the biosynthesis of chlorophyll is:

QUESTION ID:43

Which one of the following amino acids is induced drastically in dark adapted plants?

QUESTION ID:44

Pulmonary surfactant is synthesized primarily by

QUESTION ID:45

Hypophysiotropic hormones are secreted into blood at

QUESTION ID:46

Heat shock protein binding region is located in which one of the following domains of glucocorticoid receptor protein?

QUESTION ID:47

Which one of the following functions is correct for the microglia cells in the brain?

QUESTION ID:48

QUESTION ID:49

A reciprocal translocation heterozygote at the end of meiosis I generate

QUESTION ID:50

In Drosophila males, where no recombination occurs, segregation of the two alleles of a gene occurs at which stage of cell division?

QUESTION ID:51

A new trait was found to be highly variable in a population. It showed a bell-shaped distribution and is shown to be influenced by environmental factors. The trait can be

QUESTION ID:52

The most common cause of blindness induced by microbial infection in humans is:

QUESTION ID:53

Distyly is A. presence of two styles in a flower B. presence of two lengths of styles in a species C. a form of dichogamy. D. a form of herkogamy. Which one of the following options represents all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:54

Which one of the following sets contains at least one primate species NOT found in India?

QUESTION ID:55

In a meta study, percentage of species affected by different ecological threats in different habitats was found to be as follows: 

Based on the above information, habitats A, B and C will be respectively:

QUESTION ID:56

Following table shows the number of individuals of different species in two communities, X and Y.

Based on the above data and the Simpson's Diversity Index which one of the following statements is true?

QUESTION ID:57

The diagram below shows the frequency distribution of three closely related bird species based on their beak sizes, across three different habitat patches A, B and C. All the three species co-exist in habitat A, whereas only species 1 occurs in habitat B and species 2occurs in habitat C.

Which one of the following phenomena most appropriately explains the change in frequency distributions of species 1 and 2 in the figure given above?

QUESTION ID:58

Three bird species with similar habitat and diet preferences co-exist in a habitat. For these species, which one of the following statements is most likely to be correct?

QUESTION ID:59

The mechanism by which ants find their way back to the nests after searching and finding food is:

QUESTION ID:60

A small-bodied hominid whose fossil was discovered very recently, ventured into the islands of South-East Asia from mainland Asia about 67,000 years ago. This species is believed to be closely related to another Homo species discovered previously from an island in Indonesia. The given scientific name of the newly discovered species is:

QUESTION ID:61

Reproductive success of individuals in a population is likely to be skewed under all the following conditions, EXCEPT when

QUESTION ID:62

Given below are a few factors that influence the sensitivity of immunoassays:

A. Affinity of the antibody used

B. Epitope density on the antigen

C. Epitope distribution on the antigen

Which one of the following options represents the correct factor(s)?

QUESTION ID:63

“In Agrobacterium-mediated transformation of a plant using a binary vector construct," Complete the above statement with the correct option.

QUESTION ID:64

Which one of the following options is an INCORRECT match?

QUESTION ID:65

Column A lists a set of nutrients and Column B lists some sources for these nutrients that are used in industrial fermentation.

QUESTION ID:66

Which one of the following microorganisms is used for the fermentation of coffee beans?

QUESTION ID:67

Which one of the following techniques/approaches CANNOT be used to analyse expression pattern of a gene?

QUESTION ID:68

A circular plasmid of 4 kb produces fragments on digestion with different enzymes as given below: Based on the above information, the enzymes that are present as unique cutters in the plasmid are:

QUESTION ID:69

Some of the radioisotopes commonly used in biology are listed in column A and their properties are listed in Column B

Choose the option that correctly matches the isotope with the property listed.

QUESTION ID:70

A 30-residue peptide containing Phe, Tyr and Trp is dissolved in D2O and the high field proton NMR is recorded after 24 hours. The resonances that are unlikely to be present are

QUESTION ID:71

Following are statement related to biophysical chemistry of molecules

A. When solute is dissolved in a solvent, the increase in boiling point is independent of the number of particles into which the solute dissociates and dependent only on the molarity of solute.

B. When two atoms are linked by a covalent bond, van der Waals interaction between then contributes substantially to the bond energy

C. If a plot of reactant concentration versus time is not linear, but a plot of 1/reactant concentration versus time is linear, the reaction is second order.

D. Glucose, tyrosine and tryptophan can be easily distinguished by analyzing their UV spectra at equimolar concentration. Choose the combination with correct statements

QUESTION ID:72

Following are statements related to peptide/protein conformation.

A. The circular dichroism spectra of collagen and a protein in α-helical conformation will be identical.

B. The allowed region for the dihedral angles φ, ψ in Gly, spans a large area in the Ramachandran map. This can be drastically reduced by substituting the two hydrogens with methyl groups.

C. Proline has high frequency of occurrence in β-turns.

D. In a β-hairpin structure, the dihedral angles φ, ψ of amino acids flanking the β-turn region will be ~-60°, - 30°, respectively. Choose the combination with both INCORRECT statements.

QUESTION ID:73

Following statements were made about the presence of various hydrogen bond acceptor/donor groups in the major groove of B form DNA.

i. 4 and 6 amino groups, of cytosine and adenine, respectively.

ii. 4 and 6 keto groups of thymine and guanine, respectively.

iii. 2 and 6 amino groups of guanine and adenine, respectively.

iv. 2 keto and 4 amino groups of thymine and cytosine, respectively. Which one of the following options consists of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:74

An allosteric enzyme has two heterotropic effectors, X and Y. The allosteric constant, L for the enzyme in the absence of effector molecules is 180. For the X saturated form, the value of L increases from 180 to 1200, while for Y-saturated form it decreases to 60. What kind of effector molecules are X and Y?

QUESTION ID:75

In the following transformations

the correct combination of X, Y, Z is:

QUESTION ID:76

An enzyme follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics. The activity of the enzyme was measured in the presence or absence of a molecule, “X”. Given below are the double reciprocal equations for the enzyme activity with or without 'X'.

What kind of molecule is 'X'? Select from the options given below.

QUESTION ID:77

Following statements were made while describing the characteristics of transposable elements:

A. Most transposons use a common mechanism in which DNA is nicked to generate blunt ends for its subsequent incorporation.

B. Homologous recombination between the repeats of a transposon may result in precise or imprecise excision.

C. P elements are transposons which show differential splicing pattern in germline and somatic cells.

D. In a transposon, cis-acting mutants that may prevent its transposition are generally located near the ends.

E. An insertion sequence (IS) is a transposon, which is always flanked by long (more than 30 bases) direct repeats known as Long Terminal Repeats (LTR).

 Which one of the following combinations of statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:78

During mitosis in a eukaryotic cell incorrect kinetochore attachments are corrected by a system of trials and errors. The tension-based mechanism acting at the kinetochore is linked with ensuring that sister chromatid pairs are properly oriented at the spindle. Which one of the following kinases is tethered to the inner kinetochore and phosphorylates the microtubule attachment site, including the Ndc 80 complex to regulate sister chromatids attachments in a bi-orientation manner?

QUESTION ID:79

Signal Recognition Particle (SRP) plays an essential role in protein import in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). In mammalian cells, SRP is a rod-like ribonucleoprotein complex containing six protein subunits and one RNA molecule. SRP stalls protein translation by blocking:

A. elongation of the polypeptide chain

B. mRNA loading onto the ribosomes.

C. assembly of 60S and 40S ribosome particles.

D. binding of the initiation factors. Which one of the following represents the correct statement/s?

QUESTION ID:80

Given below are cytoskeleton filaments (Column X) and their component/associated proteins (Column Y) 

Choose the option that matches cytoskeleton filament (Column X) with the most appropriate protein (Column Y)

QUESTION ID:81

In human cells, centrioles assemble centrosomes, and centrosomes are essential for microtubular nucleation. Centriole duplication is tightly coupled to the cell cycle progression. To discover which genes are crucial for centriole duplication, an investigator will conduct:

A. RNAi-based functional genomics screen in human cells to uncover novel genes involved in centriole duplication.

B. experiments to generate constitutive knockout human cell lines.

C. chemical based screen in human cell lines.

D. RNA sequencing followed by generating constitutive knockout human cell lines. Choose the combination with correct statements:

QUESTION ID:82

Following observations were made about tRNA.

A. tRNA encoding genes cluster at specific regions of the human genome

B. 5’ end of the mature tRNA is generated by RNAse P mediated cleavage

C. Modified bases may confer increased stability to tRNA

D. Modified bases of tRNA do not affect the pattern of wobble pairing

E. Suppressor tRNAs compete with the release factors to read the termination codons Which one of the following combinations of statements represents correct observations?

QUESTION ID:83

Following observations were made about mRNA degradation pathway in the eukaryotic organism:

A. A sequence independent endonuclease attack initiates degradation pathway for all mRNAs

B. Degradation of the majority of mRNAs is deadenylation dependent

C. Initially, the poly(A) tail is shortened by the PAN2/3 complex, followed by a rapid digestion by CCR4-NOT complex

D. mRNA decay occurs only by 3 to 5' exonuclease activity E. The 3' to 5' mRNA degradation step is catalyzed by the exosome complex Which one of the following options represents the combination of correct statements?

QUESTION ID:84

Chromatin remodelling leading to histone modifications is invariably required for regulation of transcriptional activity of eukaryotic genes. The residues in histone tails may be methylated or acetylated. The nature of these modifications

QUESTION ID:85

A guanine (G) base in DNA is susceptible to modification to 8-oxo-G because of oxidative damage. If the modified G residues are not removed by a DNA glycosylase (Mut M or Fpg) prior to replication, an adenine (A) may be incorporated against 8-oxo-G. To avoid mutations, the cells have another DNA glycosylase called Mut Y. However, when the gene coding for Mut Y is deleted in Escherichia coli, the strain survives. This observation suggests that in E. coli

QUESTION ID:86

Which one of the following statements about DNA replication is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:87

A mutant Trp repressor (TrpRm) that cannot bind tryptophan is isolated. In this mutant

A. Trp operon is constitutively expressed.

B. Trp operon is super-repressed.

C. Trp repressor does not bind to the operator.

D. only Trp leader sequence is transcribed

Which one of the following options represents all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:88

Given below are some of the major characteristics of inflammatory responses against bacterial infections in general: A. TGF β levels are elevated

B. Phagocytic capacity of macrophages is increased

C. Complement system may get activated

D. Self-reactive CD8+ T cells may get activated Which one of the following combinations of above characteristics is most appropriate for inflammatory response against extracellular bacterial infections?

QUESTION ID:89

Compaction during early embryonic development involves activation of actin filaments. Which one of the following inhibitors would prevent formation of the blastula from the morula?

QUESTION ID:90

A and B Two cell surface receptors, A and B with a single binding site specifically bind with their respective ligands, X and Y. In the table below are the values for the association constant, Ka of the respective ligand-receptor interactions. Ka is also called the affinity constant.

Based on these values, which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:91

Physical attachment of cells in a tissue or organ is mediated by different types of junctions, one of which is anchoring junctions. This includes both cell-cell adhesions and cell-extracellular matrix adhesions. The central role of anchoring junctions is played by transmembrane adhesion proteins of which the major ones are cadherin and integrin. Which one of the following statements regarding cadherin and integrin is NOT correct?

QUESTION ID:92

Given below are some properties that are applicable for T cell receptors:

A. It is associated with a multi-component signal transducing complex, CD3, on the membrane

B. It is divalent in nature

C. It contains domains which are similar to the immunoglobulin fold structure

D. It exhibits diversity generated by somatic mutation Which one of the following combinations represents correct statements?

QUESTION ID:93

Given below are factors/terms associated with various aspects of plant growth and development:

Which one of the following options represents the most appropriate match between all terms of Column A and Column B?

QUESTION ID:94

Which one of the following signalling pathways will best support the formation of the zone of polarizing activity (ZPA) during limb development in mice

QUESTION ID:95

In sea urchins, successful fertilization can be ensured only after specific interaction between sperm proteins and their receptors on the egg vitelline envelope. Which one of the following will ensure proper fertilization of sea urchin eggs?

QUESTION ID:96

The two cell types, Anchor cell and vulval precursor cells are involved in vulva formation in C. elegans. The following statements are given towards understanding the roles of these two cell types and their signalling activities:

A. Anchor cell is a germ cell from the gonad, which sends induction signal to vulva for maintaining differentiation states.

B. The six vulval precursor cells, influenced by anchor cell, form an equivalence group

C. The cell directly beneath the anchor cell divides to form the central vulval cells, while the two flanking cells divide to become the lateral vulval cells

D. The three cells further away from anchor cell generate hypodermal cells

E. Lin3 signal from anchor cell forms a gradient and activates vulva forming genes in central and lateral cells

F. The Notch-Delta mediated mechanism of restricting adjacent cell fates is called Lateral inhibition. Which combination of the above statements is correct towards vulva formation in C. elegans?

QUESTION ID:97

Following are some statements given for vertebrate eye lens induction:

A. Paired box6 (Pax6) is a transcription factor synthesized in specific region of head surface ectoderm.

B. Pax6 is secreted by optic vesicle.

 C. Optic vesicle serves as an inducer for competent head surface ectoderm.

D. Studies on amphibians suggest that the first inducers of lens may be the foregut endoderm and heart forming mesoderm.

E. The genes for lens proteins get induced in the surface ectoderm of optic vesicle. Which combination of the above statements is correct towards vertebrate eye lens induction?

QUESTION ID:98

Hippo pathway is responsible for the trophoblast and inner cell mass (ICM) differentiation during mammalian development. Which one of the following is true for ICM formation?

QUESTION ID:99

A plant cell with turgor pressure of 0.1 MPa and osmotic pressure of 0.7 MPa is placed in a salt solution of 0.6 MPa osmotic pressure. Considering that all   

other pressures and coefficients have no effect on water potential, the following statements were recorded:

A. Water potential of the salt solution will be higher as compared to that of plant cell.

B. Higher osmotic pressure will lower water potential, but higher turgor pressure will raise water potential. Therefore, both of these components are important to calculate water potential.

C. There will be no net movement of water in the cell.

D. Higher turgor pressure will force the water to move out of the cell. Which one of the following options represents a combination of correct statements?

QUESTION ID:100

The following statements were made regarding photosynthesis:

A. Conversion of 3-phosphoglycerate into glyceraldehyde 3- phosphate is a reduction process which utilizes ATP as well as NADH in Calvin cycle

B. Conversion of ribulose 5-phosphate to ribulose 1,5- bisphosphate utilizes one third of the total ATP requirements of carbon fixation in Calvin cycle.

C. Sucrose is synthesized outside the chloroplast and uses uridine triphosphate to activate glucose.

D. Starch is a glucose polymer which is synthesized in chloroplast stroma and uses ATP Which one of the following options represents a combination of correct statements?

QUESTION ID:101

The following statements are made regarding a plant cell:

A. Polysaccharides of various sugars with methyl esters of galacturonic acid aregenerically referred as chitin.

B. Suberin and cutin are polymers and are mixtures of polyesters of hydroxy fatty acids and glycerol

C. Cellulose is a polymer of glucose and fructose which can be stained by light green and haematoxylin

D. Plasmodesmata maintain continuity between the cytoplasm of adjacent cells and allow large molecules to pass between them without crossing membrane. Which one of the following options represents a combination of correct statements?

QUESTION ID:102

Plants expressing bacterial NahG (Salicylate hydroxylase) are known to be defective in inducing systemic acquired resistance (SAR). A researcher applied the following synthetic chemicals on the NahG expressing plants. A. 2,6-dichloroisonicotinic acid (INA) B. Benzo (1,2,3) thiodiazole-7-carbothionic acid S methyl ester (BTH) Which one of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:103

The names of some genes in Column X and their involvement in photosystem I (PSI) or photosystem II (PS II) is provided in Column Y.

Which one of the following combinations represents correct matches between columns X and Y?

QUESTION ID:104

The first few steps of the tryptophan biosynthetic pathway in plants along with the available mutants is provided below

Column X represents genotypes and Column Y summarizes the anthranilate fluorescence phenotype in UV light.

Which of the following combinations represent the correct match between column X and column Y?

QUESTION ID:105

A football player injured in the heat of play did not feel pain until the game was over. This stress-induced analgesia was explained by the following proposed statements:

A. The release of norepinephrine from brain stem catecholaminergic neurons in the amygdala reduced during stress

B. The reduced release of 2-arachidonoglycerol (2AG) in brain contributed to stress-induced analgesia

C. The inhibition of CB, receptors in many brain regions accounted for reduced analgesia in stress

D. The activation of CB2 receptors on microglia in stress caused analgesic effect Which one of the following options represents both correct statements?

QUESTION ID:106

Humans exposed to cold climate are able to maintain their body temperature. The physiological mechanisms operating in the condition were suggested in the following statements:

A. The increased thermogenesis in brown adipose tissue occurred in cold

B. Uncoupling protein 1 in brown adipose tissue participated in the increased heat production

C. The decreased secretion of catecholamine in cold elevated heat production

D. The reflex responses activated by cold were controlled from the anterior hypothalamus E. The counter-current exchanges of temperature between warm arterial blood flowing towards limbs and the cold venous blood coming from extremities conserved body heat. Which one of the following options represents a combination of INCORRECT statements?

QUESTION ID:107

The blood forced into aorta during systole sets up a pressure wave that travels along arteries (arterial pulse wave). The following figure depicts the pressure wave recorded from an artery during a cardiac cycle and the table below represents points in the graph (column A) and associated features (column B).

Which one of the following options represents a correct match between all terms of columns A and B?

QUESTION ID:108

A patient with primary hyper-aldosteronism develops diabetic glucose tolerance. Following statements are proposed on the patho-physiological condition of the patient:

A. the increase of serum potassium inhibits insulin secretion

B. the depletion of serum potassium decreases insulin secretion

C. the depletion of sodium decreases insulin secretion

D. thiazide diuretics worsen the condition of this patient Which one of the following options represents a combination of correct statements?

QUESTION ID:109

Certain statements made on the mechanisms of action of a neuro-hormone, vasopressin(VP) are given below:

A. VP acts on collecting ducts of kidney to concentrate urine by binding to V2 receptors and activating CAMP cascade

B. VP acts on collecting ducts of kidney to concentrate urine by binding to V2 receptors and activating CAMP cascade

C. VP acts on blood vessels to produce constriction by binding to V2 receptors and activating CAMP cascade

D. VP acts on blood vessels to produce constriction by binding to V2 receptors and activating phosphatidylinositol cascade Which one of the following options represents a combination of correct statements?

QUESTION ID:110

Given below are some statements made on the buffering capacity of hemoglobin (Hb) in contributing to acid-base balance in the body.

A. Hb buffering capacity is due to large number of histidine residues

B. Imidazole groups of Hb dissociate less than those of oxyhemoglobin (HbO2)

C. Hb buffering capacity is due to large number of threonine residues

D. Hb is a strong acid Which one of the following options represents a combination of correct statements?

QUESTION ID:111

Two petite yeasts, Mat-a and Mat-α are crossed. The diploid is grande. After a few mitotic divisions, the grande diploid is sporulated. The analysis of a large number of tetrads yielded a 2:2 ratio of petite: grande. A few potential scenarios describing the reason for this segregation pattern are stated below:

 A. The parental strains had two different mitochondrial rho- mutations

 B. One of the parents had a recessive nuclear petite mutation

 C. Only one of the mitochondrial petite mutation is inherited in the tetrads

 D. The mitochondria inherited are wild type. Which one of the following options represents a combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:112

The following derivations are made from the pedigree chart:

 A. The trait can be Y-linked because I-parent produced II-4 child

B. The trait cannot be X-linked recessive because II-4 parent produced III-1 and III -3children

C. The trait can be X-linked dominant because I-1 parent produced II-5 child

D. The trait is unlikely to be autosomal recessive because II-6 and II-7 parents producedIII-4 child.

E. The trait may be autosomal dominant

The given pedigree shows the inheritance of a trait

Which one of the following options represents a combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:113

DNA from a bacterial strain with genotype at b+c +d+e +f + was isolated and used to transform a strain of bacteria with genotype a-b-c -d-e - f - . The transformed cells were tested for the presence of co-transformed genes and the following types of co-transformants were observed: a + and c+ e+ and d+ d+ and b+ b+ and f+ c+ and e+ The correct order of genes will be:

QUESTION ID:114

In a plant, male sterility is caused by the presence of a dominant allele for a nuclear gene (Ms). There are also lines which carry a gene whose dominant allele (F) restores male fertility. These are called restorer lines. A cross is made between a male sterile line and a homozygous restorer line which does not contain the Ms allele. Of the F1 progeny, only those that carry the Ms allele are allowed to self-pollinate. What is the probability of obtaining a male sterile line in the resulting F2 progeny? (The Ms and F genes assort independently).

QUESTION ID:115

A protein has Gly at position 28 (wild type). On mutagenesis, a point mutation leads to conversion of Gly to Arg at position 28 (mutant 1). When mutant 1 is further rmutagenized, four different point mutants (mutants 2 to 5) were isolated where the Arg atposition 28 was mutated to Ile, Thr, Ser or Gly as represented below:

Based on the codons given in the table above, which one of the following codons codesfor Gly at position 28 of the wild type protein?

QUESTION ID:116

In a flower species, light pink locus is hypostatic to pigment development locus. R is for pigment development and W for light pink. The recessive allele (w) in light pink locus gives red colour and recessive allele in pigment locus (r) gives white colour. What will be the phenotype of W/-, r/r and w/w, r/r?

QUESTION ID:117

In most angiosperms, flowers have a perianth that consists of whorls of organs. Select the statement that is INCORRECT about the floral organs in angiosperms.

QUESTION ID:118

Given below are some statements related to bacterial toxins.

A. Exotoxins are usually heat stable proteins secreted by bacteria.

B. Exotoxins are usually heat labile proteins secreted by bacteria.

C. Endotoxins are heat stable lipopoly-saccharideprotein complexes of the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria.

D. Endotoxins are heat labile lipoproteins of the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria. Which one of the following options represents combination of correct statements?

QUESTION ID:119

The names of some specialized organs/structures are given in Column A and their location in organisms are given in Column B.

Select the correct matches:

QUESTION ID:120

Following diagram shows phylogeny of plants, fungi, and animals:

In the above diagram A, B, C and D represent; respectively;

QUESTION ID:121

Which of the following events/examples represent observation of evolutionary changes on a human time scale? Here human time scale is defined by an average human age of approximately 70-80 years.

QUESTION ID:122

Below is a table showing the number of species and actual food web links observed in three different ecosystems.

By calculating connectance as a measure of relative complexity of food webs, infer which of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:123

Suppose a population has three age classes. Females in the second and third age classes produce four and three off springs, respectively. While 50% female in the first age class survive into the second age class, only 30% females survive into the third age class. The 

If there are 10 individuals in each of the three age classes, the number of individuals in the next iteration would be:

QUESTION ID:124

Which among the following sets of conditions are best suited for a mimic species to coexist with its model?

QUESTION ID:125

A small number (approx. 10) of mice are introduced into an uninhabited island. Their population grows exponentially initially and after 4 years, reaches a population size of 520 after which the population stays stable. At what point would you expect the population to attain its highest growth rate?

QUESTION ID:126

Two islands (A and B) located approximately 180 km and 100 km respectively from the mainland. Island A is 160 sq. km, while Island B is 220 sq. km in area. Which one of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:127

Predator-prey interactions in a community are represented in the figure below. 

Given below are some statements related to the above figure:

(i) Predators and prey are generalists

(ii) Predators have expanded their prey base over time

(iii) Predators and prey have co-evolved

(iv) There is speciation in prey while predators are prone to extinction Which one of the following options represents statement/s that can be correctly inferred from the figure?

QUESTION ID:128

Given below are some examples of biological rhythms in humans: (a) REM and non-REM sleep cycle (b) Menstrual cycle (c) Sleep-wake cycle Which one of the following is a correct representation of the type of biological rhythms given above?

QUESTION ID:129

Given below are examples of animals and their behaviours.

A. Elephant :Innate and learnt behaviour

B. Ant: Innate behaviour only

C. Whale: Learnt behaviours only

D. Bee: Innate and learnt behaviours

Which one of the following options represents a correct combination of true and false?

QUESTION ID:130

Male fiddler crabs with larger claws are preferred by females over males with smaller claws. If the selection pressure exerted on claw size is strong, which one of the following options is true with respect to male claw size over generations?

QUESTION ID:131

Match the geological time period with the diversification events associated with them:

QUESTION ID:132

The table below shows the number of unrooted and rooted trees generated when the number of taxa are

three and four, respectively. Number of taxa Number of unrooted trees Number of rooted trees?

The number of rooted trees generated when there are five taxa is:

QUESTION ID:133

In a large, healthy, polygynous population of an ungulate species with distinct, short seasonal mating, the operational sex ratio (Male: Female) is likely to resemble which one of the following conditions:

QUESTION ID:134

Given below are four statements regarding the use of marker assisted selection (MAS) in plant breeding.

A. Markers that are not linked to target traits cannot be used to test accumulation of the desired recurrent parent's genetic background in a

backcross breeding program.

B. Co-dominant markers are more effective for marker assisted backcrossing since they facilitate selection of heterozygous progeny.

C. MAS can be used to facilitate backcrossing of recessive genes that influence traits of interest.

D. Use of tightly linked flanking makers for a trait of interest increases linkage drag in a breeding program.

Which one of the following options represents a combination of all INCORRECT statements?

QUESTION ID:135

Duschenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is caused by a defective dystrophin gene and can be cured by removing a specific faulty exon. If a CRISPR/Cas9

based genome editing approach is to be designed to remove the faulty exon, some of the following conditions have to be met.

A. Two guide RNA molecules to match the flanking regions of the faulty exon

B. An efficient non-homologous end joining system in the host

C. Two separate, specific Cas9 endonucleases to target both ends of the exon

D. A single guide RNA that targets the intron preceding the exo

Choose the option that includes all the correct conditions.

QUESTION ID:136

In a gene stacking experiment, a transgenic plant generated using bar as a selection marker was crossed with another transgenic line containing hpt as the selection marker. Analysis of the Fı progeny of this cross showed that 50% of the progeny was resistant to both selection agents (Basta and hygromycin) while the remaining 50% of the progenywas resistant to only hygromycin. Which one of the following statements is a possible explanation of the above results?

QUESTION ID:137

Column A lists names of microorganisms and column B lists the pollutants that are degraded by the microbes.

Which one of the following options correctly matches the organism to the pollutant it most commonly degrades?

QUESTION ID:138

The table given below lists animals and primary regions of domestication

Which one of the following options represents the best match for animals and the primary region of their domestication?

QUESTION ID:139

For ELISPOT measurements of interferon g [IFN-g] secretion by mouse NKT cells, the following steps were performed in an ELISA plate:

A. Addition of purified spleenocytes

B. Stimulation of spleenocytes by peptide pulsed antigen presenting cells (APCs)

C. Addition of biotin-conjugated anti IFN-g antibody

D. Addition of capture antibody specific to IFN-g

E. Addition of avidin-conjugated colour changing substrate.

Which one of the following options lists the correct sequence of steps performed?

QUESTION ID:140

Given below are four statements on various methods used in molecular biology and recombinant DNA studies:

A. Orientation of a cloned DNA fragment in a plasmid vector can be determined by using primers specific to the cloned fragment.

B. Transcriptome sequencing cannot be used to identify differential expression profiles of mRNA in an organism.

C. A DNA fragment with 5' overhangs can be converted into a blunt-ended fragment by using a nuclease but not by a DNA polymerase

D. Oligonucleotide probes can be labelled at their 5 and 3' ends by using T4polynucleotide kinase and terminal transferase, respectively

Which one of the following options consists of only correct statement/s?

QUESTION ID:141

A student hypothesized that protein Yfg100 interacted with protein Yfr70 in a tissue-specific manner. To test this, an immune precipitation experiment was performed using antibodies to Yfg 100 and the samples were subjected to western blot using antibodies to both Yfg100 and Yfr70. The results obtained are shown below

Based on the results shown, identify the INCORRECT statement

QUESTION ID:142

To spatiotemporally detect the localization of two proteins A and B using a confocal microscope, an investigator plans to utilize a few fluorescent proteins

(X, Y, Z and T).The excitation and emission spectra of these fluorescent proteins are shown below.

Which one of the following options comprises of a fluorescent pair that is best suited to conduct such an experiment?

QUESTION ID:143

Following are statements related to spectroscopic investigation of proteins.

A. Tryptophan fluorescence in a protein is not sensitive to its environment.

B. Observation of a large number of N; - Ni+1 connectivity’s in the NOESY spectrum of a protein suggests the presence of helical conformation.

C. Only proteins with masses less than 5000 daltons can be identified by MALDI mass spectrometry.

D. Protein conformation can be investigated by ESI mass spectrometry.

Which one of the following options consists of both correct statements?

QUESTION ID:144

Following are statements related to statistical methods:

 A. An outlier can be defined as a value in a data set that lies more than three standard deviations from the mean.

 B. Measures of central tendency and dispersion are independent of the presence of outliers in a data set.

 C. Standard deviation is a measure of dispersion.

 D. Mean, median and mode are not measure of central tendency.

 Which one of the following options is a combination with both INCORRECT statements?

QUESTION ID:145

Given below are sampling techniques and their features.

Which one of the following options correctly matches sampling techniques with their features?