Previous Year Questions

QUESTION ID:2

QUESTION ID:3

QUESTION ID:4

QUESTION ID:5

QUESTION ID:6

QUESTION ID:7

QUESTION ID:8

QUESTION ID:9

QUESTION ID:10

QUESTION ID:11

QUESTION ID:12

QUESTION ID:13

QUESTION ID:14

QUESTION ID:15

QUESTION ID:16

QUESTION ID:17

QUESTION ID:18

QUESTION ID:19

QUESTION ID:20

QUESTION ID:21

The energy-rich fuel molecules produced in the TCA cycle are

QUESTION ID:22

Denaturation of a highly helical protein having disulfide bridges and two phenylalanines can be monitored as a function of temperature by which one of the following techniques?

QUESTION ID:23

Glycerol is added to protein solutions to stabilize the preparations by

QUESTION ID:24

Protein stability is represented as Folded  K' eq ....         Unfolded Prior to development of sensitive calorimeters, thermodynamic parameters of processes were determined by following - equation

∆H0 and ∆ S0 are standard changes in enthalpy and entropy, respectively.

Which one of the following statements is correct for estimating ∆ G,  ∆H and ∆S?

QUESTION ID:25

Rotenone is an inhibitor of the electron transport chain. The addition of rotenone to cells results in which of the following?

QUESTION ID:26

Metachromatic kmkodystrophy (MLD) is caused by a deficiency of arylsulfatase A and affects the CNS. MLD is

QUESTION ID:27

Which one of the following statements is NOT true?

QUESTION ID:28

Which one of the following pairs is NOT matched correctly?

QUESTION ID:29

In eukaryotes, precursors of micro RNAs (miRNAs) and small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) are usually synthesized by

QUESTION ID:30

Aminoacyl tRNAs are escorted to the ribosome by the elongation factor

QUESTION ID:31

Scientists usually find difficulty in identifying the exact transcription termination site in eukaryotes because

QUESTION ID:32

In eukaryotic replication, priming of DNA synthesis and removal of RNA primer is catalyzed by

QUESTION ID:33

Which one of the following is NOT a bacterial disease?

QUESTION ID:34

The second messenger, which opens calcium ion pores in endoplasmic reticulum and plasma membrane is

QUESTION ID:35

Following are list of some proteins

A. BCL-2                  B. BCL-XL

C. A1                         D. BAX

Which of the protein(s) is/are NOT antiapoptotic?

QUESTION ID:36

Which one of the following cells generally does NOT secrete IFN-y?

QUESTION ID:37

Inward movement of an expanding outer layer spreading over the internal surface during gastrulation is termed as

QUESTION ID:38

The ability of cells to achieve their respective fates by interacting with other cells is known as

QUESTION ID:39

The dorsal-most vegetal cells of the amphibian embryo that is capable of inducing the organizer is called as Nieuwkoop centre and is marked by the presence of

QUESTION ID:40

Which kind of cleavage is shown in mammals?

QUESTION ID:41

During embryo germination in a grass family an absorptive organ that forms interface between the embryo and the starchy endosperm tissue is called

QUESTION ID:42

The following statements are made regarding secondary metabolites of plants:

A. All secondary metabolites are constitutively produced in all cells of a plant during its entire life

B. They serve as signals to help the plant survive adverse conditions

C. They may be volatile compounds

D. They contribute to flower colour

Which one of the following options represents a combination of correct statements?

QUESTION ID:43

For which one of the plant hormone biosynthetic pathways, 1- aminocyclopropane-l -carboxylic acid is an intermediate?

QUESTION ID:44

ln a study, it was found that K+ ion concentration in root cells of a pea plant was -75 times greater than that of the nutrient medium in which the plant was grown. This indicated that K+ ions were absorbed from the medium

QUESTION ID:45

Filtration slits are formed by

QUESTION ID:46

Which one of the following vitamins is NOT absorbed in the small intestine by Na+ co- transporters?

QUESTION ID:47

Which one of the following is NOT formed after post-translational processing of preproglucagon?

QUESTION ID:48

Which one of the following is the most powerful buffer system of blood?

QUESTION ID:49

ln Drosophila melanogaster males, homologous chromosomes pair and segregate during meiosis but crossing over does not occur. At which stage of meiosis does segregation of  2 alleles of a gene take place in these individuals?

QUESTION ID:50

A recessive inherited disease is expressed only in individuals of blood group O and not expressed in blood groups A, B or AB. Alleles controlling the disease and blood group are independently inherited. A normal woman with blood group A and her normal husband with blood group B already had one child with the disease. The woman is pregnant for second time. What is the probability that the second child will also have the disease?

QUESTION ID:51

A lac- culture of E. coli was mutagenised . On what media would one spread the mutagenised cells to select for lac+ cells?

QUESTION ID:52

As per the cladistic taxonomy, Archosaurs are a group of diapsid amniotes which include extinct dinosaurs. The living representatives of the group consist of

QUESTION ID:53

If you want to divide a human body into - dorsal and ventral sections, what plane will you use?

QUESTION ID:54

Which one of the following bryophyte has multicellular rhizoids and its cells mostly contain numerous chloroplasts?

QUESTION ID:55

Which of the following is NOT true for the Anammox bacteria?

QUESTION ID:56

To understand prey-predator relationship, Didinium (predator) and Paramecium (prey) were used. Paramecium population was grown with sand sediment as hiding place or refuge. To this population, Dialinium was introduced only once. What would happen to the prey population in the course of time?

QUESTION ID:57

Which one of the following is NOT correct?

QUESTION ID:58

Which one of the following is in the correct decreasing order for the major reservoirs of carbon on Earth?

QUESTION ID:59

ln an experiment to determine the number of rats in a field, 80 rats were initially captured, marked and released. After one month, 100 rats were captured in the same field, of which 20 were previously marked ones. Based on the above observation, estimated population size of the rats in the field will be:

QUESTION ID:60

A species of grass grows around a mine area having patches of heavy metal contaminated soil. Some of the populations of the species grew selectively on the soil that was contaminated with heavy metals. Over a period of time, though the tolerant and non tolerant grass populations were continuously distributed and not separated by geographical barriers, they eventually evolved different flowering time and became different species. What kind of speciation would you call this?

QUESTION ID:61

What do mayflies, Pacific salmon (Oncorhynchus spp.) and annual grain crops have in common? They are all

QUESTION ID:62

The correct order of periods from Palaeozoic to Mesozoic era is

QUESTION ID:63

Fluff tails in mainland As ia show high variation in tail colour. However, in the far Out Pacific island, the flufftails show very little variation in tail colour. This variation in tail colour can be explained by all of the following EXCEPT

QUESTION ID:64

A To transgenic plant containing a transgene for herbicide resistance shows two bands on Southern blot analysis using a probe that is internal to the restriction sites used for genomic DNA digestion. However, it segregates in a 3: I ratio for 'herbicide resistance: sensitivity in the T1 progeny obtained by self pollination. Which one of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:65

QUESTION ID:66

Membrane potential in mitochondria is critical for oxidative phosphorylation and is monitored by patch clamping

QUESTION ID:67

The pH of a solution is 7.4 ± 0.02 where 0.02 is standard deviation obtained from eight measurements. If more measurements were carried out, the % of samples whose pH would fall between pH 7.38 and 7.42 is

QUESTION ID:68

ln order to separate red and white blood cells, which of the following methods can be used?

QUESTION ID:69

Which one of following modification of proteins is co-translational?

QUESTION ID:70

In order to check whether a protein has been phosphorylated during treatment with a drug, you would perform

QUESTION ID:71

From the following statements:

A. In proteins the amino acids that can undergo oxidation are Cys and Met.

B. A tetrasaccharide composed of alternate L and D isomers will not be optically active.

C. The AG(KcaVmol) values for Keq of O. 1, 0.01 and 0.001 are 1.36, 2.72 and 4.09, respectively. It can be concluded that the relationship between ∆G and K is parabolic. eq

D. The oxidation states of Fe in haemoglobin is +2. In cytochrome C, the oxidation states of Fe can be +2 or +3.

E. In DNA, the sugar and bases are planar.

F. High-energy bonds hydrolyze with large negative AG.

Choose the combination with ONLY ONE WRONG statement.

QUESTION ID:72

Given below are statements related to protein structures

A. The dihedral angles of an amino acid X in Acetyl-X-NMethyl amide in the Ramachandran plot, occur in very small but equal areas in the left and right quadrants. It can be concluded that X is not one of the 20-coded amino acids.

B. The dihedral angles of a 20-residue peptide are represented in the Ramachandran plot. It is possible to conclude that the peptide does not have a proline.

C. Two proteins can have a similar fold even if they do not share significant similarity in their primary structure.

D. On denaturation of a protein by urea, the interactions that would be disrupted are ionic bonds and van der Waal's interaction but not disulfide bonds.

Choose the combination with ALL CORRECT answers:

QUESTION ID:73

Various modifications of nucleotides occur in nucleic acids. Which of the following combinations contains at least one modification that does NOT occur in nucleic acids?

QUESTION ID:74

Given below are statements that may or may not be correct.

A. Fructose 2,6- biphosphate is an allosteric inhibitor of phosphofructokinase 1.

B. The TCA cycle intermediates, succinate and oxaloacetate can both be derived from amino acids.

C. A diet rich in cysteine can compensate for a methionine deficient diet in humans.

D. dTTP for DNA synthesis can be obtained from UTP.

E. In the fatty acid biosynthetic pathway, the carbon atom from HC0 3- in the synthesis of malonyl CoA is not incorporated into palmitic acid.

Choose the option that represents the combination of all the CORRECT statements

QUESTION ID:75

Three electron acceptors 'X ', 'Y' and 'Z' have redox potential (Eo') of +0.15V, +0.05V and -0.1 V, respectively. For a reaction

B +2H + 2e        BH2                 Eo'= +0.05V

Which of these three electron acceptors are appropriate? [useful equation: ∆Go'= -nFEo') ∆ G0'= free energy change; n= number of electrons; F= Faraday constant]

QUESTION ID:76

A serine protease was tested for its activity on the following peptide substrates of different lengths and sequences. The obtained kinetic parameters of the protease are shown along with the peptide.

Arrow denotes site of cleavage. Based on the above data, the following statements are made:

A. Catalytic efficiency (Kc./Km) increases with the size of the peptide.

B. Amino acid at the hydrolytic cleavage position of the peptide is critical for binding of the peptide with the protease.

C. Catalytic efficiency decreases from three amino acid peptide to four amino acid peptide.

Which of the following combinations of the above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:77

A membrane associated protein is composed of seven "αC-helices", with each helix containing 19 hydrophobic residues. While treating the membrane with all kinds of proteases, a major portion of this protein remains intact. Treatment with high salt (till 1.5M NaCI) and buffer with pH 5.0 failed to dissociate this protein from the membrane. Predict the most appropriate nature and orientation of this protein in the membrane.

QUESTION ID:78

When the cholera toxin (protein of Mr 90,000Da) gains access to the human intestinal tract, it binds tightly to specific receptors in the plasma membrane of the epithelial cells lining the small intestine, causing membrane bound adenylyl cyclase to undergo prolonged activation resulting in extensive loss of H20 and Na +. Pretreatment of the epithelial cells with various phospholipases and proteases failed to inhibit the binding of cholera toxin to its receptor and the fluid loss but treatment with exoglycosidase,, prior to binding, significantly reduces these effects. Which of the following molecule could be the receptor for this toxin?

QUESTION ID:79

α-bungarotoxin binds to acetylcholine receptor (AChR) protein with high specificity and prevents the ion-channel opening. This interaction can be exploited to purify AChR from membrane using

QUESTION ID:80

In Schizosaccharomyces pombe, the recessive (cdc2r)and dominant (cdc2D) mutants have opposing phenotypes. While cdc2D produces abnormally small cells, cdc2r produces abnormally long cells. Some possible explanations are given below.

A. cdc2D may lack interaction with WEE1

B cdc2r may not interact with CDC13 kinase

C. cdc2D may not interact with CDC25 phosphatase

D. cdc2r cells may be deficient in interaction with either CDC25 or WEE 1

Which combination of the above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:81

The table given below lists organisms (column A) and characteristic features (column B). Choose the option that correctly matches organisms with their characteristic features.

QUESTION ID:82

In Tay-Sachs disease, accumulation of glycolipids occurs especially in nerve cells. These cells are greatly enlarged with swollen lipid-filled endosomes and the children with this disease die at a very early stage. Such condition occurs due to a specific defect in

QUESTION ID:83

The lambda (A.) and P22 phages are two related lambdoid bacteriophages.  A recombinant lambda phage (λMut) was derived from the wild type lambda phage(λwt) by replacing its CI repressor gene and the CJ binding sites with those from the P22 phage. Both the λ wt and the λMut were used independently to infect Escherichia coli strain over-producing  λWT Cl repressor. Following outcomes were summarised

QUESTION ID:84

Chloramphenicol is a "broad-spectrum"antibiotic which inhibits protein synthesis in prokaryotes. Given below are a few statements regarding the mode of action of chloramphenicol.

A. Chloramphenicol inhibits the peptidyltransferase activity of ribosomes.

B. Chloramphenicol can be used to treat moderate to severe: infections, because mitochondrial ribosomes are not sensitive to chloramphenicol.

C. Chloramphenicol binds to one of the domains of 23S rRNA

D. Chloramphenicol competes for binding with the E-site tRNA

Which of the following options describes correctly the mechanism of action of chloramphenicol?

QUESTION ID:85

QUESTION ID:86

Two experiment were performed. In the: first one, Okazaki fragments were prepared from a replicating cell of E. coli grown in the presence of 32P. ln the other, the two strands of E. coli chromosome were separated into a H

strand and L strand, immobilized onto a nitrocellulose membrane and hybridized with the Okazaki fragments prepared in the first experiment. Which one of the following options correctly describes the observation?

QUESTION ID:87

Eukaryotic mRNAs have an enzymatic appended cap structure consisting of a 7- methyl guanosine residue joined to the initial 5' nucleotide of the transcripts. Given below

are a few statements regarding capping.

A. Capping protects the mRNA from degradation by 5 '-exoribonucleases.

B. During capping, the a-phosphate is released from the 5'-end of the nascent mRNA.

C. Phosphorylation mediated conformational change in carboxyl terminal domain (CTD) of RNA Pol II enables its binding with capping enzymes.

D. During capping, a 5'-5' triphosphate bond is formed between the p -phosphate of the nascent mRNA and a-phosphate of GTP.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:88

In E. coli grown under nutrient rich conditions, replication of entire genome takes about 40 min., yet it can divide every 20 min. This is so because

QUESTION ID:89

Toll-like receptors (TLR) present in mammalian macrophages are recognized by types of macromolecules that are not present in vertebrates but are present in certain groups

of microbial pathogens. When these pathogens infect macrophages, TLR signalling is stimulated. Following are the list of macromolecules in column A and types of TLR in column B. Which of the following is the best possible match of the pathogenic ligand with their corresponding TLR?

QUESTION ID:90

Preventing the blocking action of Patched protein leads to activation of Cos-2, which dissociates itself from microtuhules, activates Ci/Gli which binds to CBP (CREB - binding protein) and promotes transcription of target genes. Which one of the following treatment of cells will mostly prevent Ci/Gii activated transcription in the cells?

QUESTION ID:91

The second messenger cAMP, synthesised by adenylyl cyclase transduces a wide variety of physiological signals in various cell types in mammalian cells. Most of the diverse effects of cAMP are mediated through activation of protein kinase A (PKA), also called cAMP dependent protein kinase. Which of the following statements regarding PKA is NOT correct?

QUESTION ID:92

Given below is a list of some proteins known to be associated with apoptosis, their subcellular if localization (but not in correct order) and possible role in apoptosis. Choose the right combination which matches the proteins with their correct localization and role in apoptosis.

QUESTION ID:93

Given below are a list of some extracellular matrix (ECM) proteins in column A and their characteristics in column B, but not in correct order Which one of the following is the most appropriate match?

QUESTION ID:94

The major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is referred to as the human leukocyte antigen (HLA) complex in humans and as the H-2 complex in mice. In an experiment, H-2^k mice were primed with the lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV) to induce cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) specific for the virus. Spleen cdls from this LCMV primed mouse were then added to target cells Of the same (H-2^k) or different H-2 haplotypes (H-2b) that were intracellularly  radiolabelled with 51Cr and either infected or not infected with LCMV. CTL mediated killing of target cells were then measured by the release of51Cr into the culture supernatant (Cr release assay). In which of the following cells, 51Cr will be released into the culture supernatant?

QUESTION ID:95

The following are certain statements regarding stem cells:

A. All types of stem cells have the ability to give rise to a complete embryo.

B. Multi potent stem cells are those whose commitment is limited to a relatively small subset of all possible cell types.

C. Stem cell niches allow controlled self renewal and also survival of the cells that leave the niche.

D. The pluripotency of the stem cells in an embryo is essentially maintained by Fgf8, Nanog and TGFβ.

E. Adult cells may be reprogrammed to gain pluripotency by modifying the following genes: Oct 3/4, Sox2, c-myc, Klf-4.

Which one of the following combinations of statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:96

When the 4 blastomere pairs of the 8-cell stage tunicate embryo are dissociated, each forms most of the structures it would have formed had it remained in the embryo. However, the notochord and nervous system get specified only if different blastomeres get the chance to interact. Given below are certain interpretations formulated from the above results:

A. Each pair of blastomeres forming respective structures indicate autonomous specification

B. Each pair of blastomeres forming respective structures indicate conditional specification

C. The notochord and nervous system development indicate autonomous specification

D. The notochord and nervous system development indicate conditional specification

which combination of interpretations is most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:97

The presence of β-catenin in the nuclei of blastomeres in the dorsal portion of the amphibian embryo is one of the determinants for laying down the dorso-ventral axis. what will be the outcome of expressing a dominant negative form of GSK3 in the ventral cells of early embryo?

QUESTION ID:98

Extensive molecular genetic studies on miRI56, miRl72, SPL genes and AP2-like genes have yielded the following functional model on the juvenile →adult → reproductive transition in Arabidopsis: Based on these results, the following schematic diagram has been proposed to predict the expression kinetics of these genetic factors: Which of the following combinations is most likely to be correct?

QUESTION ID:99

Injection of Noggin mRNA in cells that will become the future ventral side of a fro embryo mimics the effect of an organizer graft to the ventral side. This experiment demonstrates that

A. Noggin is a transcription factor

B. Noggin induces ventral fates

C. Noggin is involved in organizer fate

D. Noggin is required to induce a secondary axis

Which one of the following options represents correct combination of statement/s?

QUESTION ID:100

Antennapedia complex in Drosophila contains five genes, lab, pb, dfd, scr and Antp and they express in parasegments I to 5, respectively in a non-overlapping manner. In the larva or in later stages of development, the region of Antp (Antennapedia) expression corresponds to a part of second thoracic segment. A mutation in Antp is known to cause transformation of antenna to leg-like structures. Below are certain statements made in respect

to the functions of Antennapedia:

A. ln the above described Antp mutation, the gene ectopically expresses in the head region

B One of the functions of Antp is to repress genes that induce antenna development

C. Antp expresses in thorax and forms a concentration gradient in the posterioanterior

direction, thus affecting head development

D. A homozygous recessive mutation of Antp is expected to transform the leg to antenna in the second thoracic segment

Which combination of the above statements correctly describes the function of Antennapedia?

QUESTION ID:101

A researcher wanted to study light reaction during photosynthesis by blocking photosynthetic electron flow using the herbicide, dichlorophenyldimethylurea (DCMU) and paraquat. The researcher listed the following observations:

A. Both DCMU and paraquat block the electron flow in Photosystem II

B. Both DCMU and paraquat block the electron flow in Photosystem I

C. DCMU blocks electron flow in Photosystem I while paraquat blocks in Photosystem II

D. DCMU blocks electron flow in Photosystem II while paraquat blocks in Photosystem I

Which of the following combinations of the above statements is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:102

Following are a few statements regarding water potential in plants:

A. Solute concentration and pressure potential contribute to water potential of a plant cell in a given state.

B. When a flaccid cell is placed in a solution that has a water potential less negative than the intracellular water potential, water will move from solution into the cell.

C. When a flaccid cell is placed in a solution that has a water potential less negative than the intracellular water potential, water will move out from cell into the solution.

D. Water potential of a plant cell under severe water stress is always less negative as compared to that of unstressed cells.

Which combination of the above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:103

The following scheme shows the flowering status of a plant species and the photoperiod regimes in which it is grown (L denotes light period; D denotes dark period). Which of the following conclusions is most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:104

In a photoresponse experiment, imbibed seeds were kept under the following light regimes and their gem1ination status was noted as follows: In an independent biochemical experiment, it was demonstrated that the red light photoreceptor phytochrome is interconverted between two forms, P and P', by red or far-red light. Keeping these information in mind, which of the following combination of conclusions is correct?

QUESTION ID:105

Following are a few statements regarding the structure of terpenes:

A. lsopentenyl diphosphate and farnesyl diphosphate are monoterpene and sesquiterpene, respectively.

B. Squalene and geranyl diphosphate are triterpene and monoterpene, respectively.

C. Dimethylallyl diphosphate and geranylgeranyl diphosphate have 10 and :20 carbons, respectively.

D. Diterpenes have 20 carbons, whereas sesquiterpenes have 15 carbons.

Which combination of the above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:106

Consider the following facts regarding the control of shoot apical meristem (SAM) size in Arabidopsis

(a) Loss ofthe CLAVATAJ (CLV!) gene leads to bigger SAM

(b) Loss of the CLA VATA3 (CLV3) gene leads to bigger SAM

(c) Loss of the WUSCHEL (WUS) gene leads to smaller SAM

(d) Loss of both CLVI and WUS leads to smaller SAM

(e) Loss of both CLV3 and WUS leads to smaller SAM

(f) Loss of both CLVJ and CLV3 leads to bigger SAM

(g) Over expression of CLV3 leads to smaller SAM

(h) Over expression ofCLV3 in the loss of function mutant of CLV I leads to bigger SAM Based on the above information, which of the following genetic pathways describes the relationship among CLVJ , CLV3 and WUS most appropriately?

QUESTION ID:107

In kidney, Na is reabsorbed across the second half of proximal tubule due to positive transepithelial voltage (i.e., tubular fluid becomes positive relative to blood) and by other mechanisms. The following proposed statements could explain the development of this positive transepithelial voltage.

A. Cl- concentration gradient·, the second half of the proximal tubule favours diffusion of cl- from tubular lumen to intracellular space via paracellular route which generates the positive transepithelial voltage

B. The Na+ - H+ antiporters in the second half of proximal tubules create the positive transepithelial voltage.

C. the Na+- glucose symporters operating in the proximal part of renal tubules are responsible for this positive transepithelial voltage.

D The positive transepithelial voltage is created by the operation of 1 Na+- 1 K+- 2CI symporter in the proximal tubules.

Select the option with correct statement(s).

QUESTION ID:108

An action potential of a nerve fibre is described by different components including after-hyperpolarization. The mechanism of generation of this afte hyperpolarization has been proposed in the following statements:

A. The increased conductance of Na+ has returned to the base line level but the conductance of K+ remains elevated

during after hyperpolartzation phase

B. The membrane potential is pulled even closer to the K+ equilibrium potential at the after- hyperpolarization phase

C. The conductance of Na+ is increased before any change of K+ conductance during after- hyperpolarization phase

D. At the after-hyperpolarization phase, the membrane potential is driven closer to Na2+ equilibrium Potential

Choose the option with both correct statements:

QUESTION ID:109

 In an experiment on healthy young men, the muscarinic receptor antagonist, atropine was administered to one group (Group A) while the β-adrenergic receptor antagonist, propranolol was administered to another group (Group B) in four increasing doses of equal concentration for both the drugs. The effects of these two drugs on the heart rate are shown below On the basis of these observations, an investigator proposed the following statements:

A. Atropine and propranolol block sympathetic and parasympathetic effects on the heart, respectively

B. As the change of heart rate is more in Group A than in Group B, the sympathetic tone usually predominates in healthy resting individuals

C. Atropine and propranolol block parasympathetic and sympathetic effects on the heart, respectively

D. As substantial changes occur in the heart rate with atropine, the parasympathetic tone is predominant in healthy resting individuals.

Select the option with INCORRECT statement(s}

QUESTION ID:110

The P50 value of haemoglobin for oxygen is increased during exercise. The mechanism of this change is described in the following proposed statements.

A. Increased C02 production by muscles elevated pC02 of blood which affects P50 value

B. The affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen increases as 2,3 –bisphosphoglycerate (2, 3 - BPG) level is elevated

c. Increased body temperature shifts the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve to the left

D. The decreased pH of blood reduces the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen.

Which of the above statement(s) is (are) INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:111

There is evidence that following pyrogenic stimuli. cytokines produced by the CNS cause fever, possibly by local release of prostaglandins. Accordingly, the following statements have been !Proposed:

A. Cytokines act independently and directly on thermoregulatory centres

B. Intrahypothalamic: injection of prostaglandin receptor agonists will prevent fever

C. Antipyretic effect of aspirin is exerted on the hypothalamus to prevent prostaglandin synthesis

D. Aspirin blocks infections and eventually prevents fever

Which one of the following combination of above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:112

Following are some statements about the mechanism of stimulation of receptors for touch, pain, vision and warmth that may or may not be correct.

A. The touch receptor does not require any voltage gated cation channel for its activation

B. Light causes closing of Na+ channels in the outer segments of rods and cones

C. Pain sensation is caused by opening of Na+ or Na '/Ca,.. channels in free sensory nerve endings.

D. The warmth receptor is activated by nonselective anion channels.

Choose the option with both statements as Correct.

QUESTION ID:113

The following is a schematic representation of a hypothetical pathway involved in formation of eye color in an insect species Genes A and B are linked and have a map distance of 10 cM. Females with genotypes a+ab+b are test crossed. Further, in these females, the two genes are linked in cis. a+ and b+ represent wild type alleles, while a and b are null alleles. The progeny of the test cross have individuals with four different eye colours. What is the expected ratio of individuals with eye color Red: Vermillion: Brown: White in the progeny?

QUESTION ID:114

In the following diagram, segments A and C are copies of 10 base pair repeat DNA  sequences, flanking a unique stretch shown as

B. A and C are in inverted orientation as indicated by arrows. Intramolecular recombination between A and C leads to which event:

QUESTION ID:115

Somatic cell hybridization is used to assign a gene to a particular chromosome. When two cell lines from two different species are fused, they form a heterokaryon which tends to lose chromosomes as they divide, preferentially from one species. A panel of cell lines was created Tom mouse-monkey somatic cell fusions. Each line was examined for the presence of monkey chromosomes and for the production of a given enzyme. The following results were obtained: On the basis of these results, which chromosome has the gene that codes for the given enzyme?

QUESTION ID:116

A phenotypically normal fruit fly was crossed to another fly whose phenotype was not recorded. Of the progeny, 3/8 were wild type, 3/8 had ebony body color, 1/8 had vestigeal wings and 1/8 had ebony body color and vestigeal wings. Ebony body color and vestigeal wings are recessive characters and their genes are located on two different autosomes. Based on this information which one of the following is the likely genotype of the parents?

QUESTION ID:117

In normal individuals, there are three Mstll restriction sites, two flanking the β·globin gene and one within the gene. In individuals affected by a disease, a single nucleotide polymorphism in the β-globin gene abolishes the internal Mstll recognition site. The RFLP pattern for this locus, obtained by hybridization using a probe internal to the

flanking Mstll sites, from three siblings of a family is shown below Based on the above profile, what is the nature of the genetic disorder?

QUESTION ID:118

Ln a transduction experiment using a+ b+ c+ genotype as a donor and a^_b^_c^_ as the recipient, a+ transductants were selected and screened for b and c. The data obtained are shown below.

The cotransduction frequencies for a+ b+ and b + c+, respectively, are:

QUESTION ID:119

In the following columns, certain terms and their descriptions are given in random order.

Which of the following combination gives correct match for the tenns in column I from column II

QUESTION ID:120

Given below are some statements on vertebrates. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:121

A comparsion of Bacteria, Archaea and Eukarya with respect to a few characteristics is given below Which of the following combinations present a correct comparison of characteristics in the table above

QUESTION ID:122

The table given below provides a list of diseases and causal organisms Which of the following options represent the correct match between disease and the causal organism?

QUESTION ID:123

The table given below lists species and conservation status. Which one of the following is the correct pairing between Indian animal species and their conservation status?

QUESTION ID:124

The following is a list of reproductive structures found in vascular and non-vascular plants.

A. Archegonia

C. Capsule

E. Pollen

B. Megaspore

D. Fern frond

F. Corolla

Which of the following combinations represents structures primarily associated with the gametophytic life cycle of these plants?

QUESTION ID:125

The net reproductive rate (R,) is 1.5 for a given population. If N, the population of females at generation t, is 500, then what will be the. population of females after four generations (N1,4)?

QUESTION ID:126

Two species, M and N, occupy the same habitat. Given below is a 'state-space' graph in which the abundance of species M is plotted on the X-axis and abundance of species N is plotted on the Y -axis. For each species, the zero-growth isocline is plotted.

Based on the above plot some deductions are made. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?

----* zero-growth isocline for species M zero-growth isocline for species N 

K_M = carrying capacity of the habitat for species M in absence of species N

K_N = carrying capacity of the habitat for species N in absence of species M

a = per capita effect of species N on M

beta = per capita effect of species M on N 

QUESTION ID:127

Which one of the following statement is NOT correct?

QUESTION ID:128

Following are the descriptions used by conservation biologists for characterizing species I groups in a community:

A. Species with a disproportionally large (effect on its environment relative to its abundance

B. Species defining a trait or characteristics of the environment

C. Species whose conservation leads to direct protection of other species

D. Species which is instantly recognizable and used as the focus of a broader conservation Effort

Which of the following combination correctly identifies these species I groups?

QUESTION ID:129

As per national air quality standard for India, which one of the 10 following options gives correct concentration limits (pg m-3 , annual) of various gaseous air pollutants for a residential area?

QUESTION ID:130

A plant is visited by bats during the night and sunbirds during the day. Given this information, which of the following characters best match this plant?

QUESTION ID:131

The Western honey bee (Apis mellifera) collects nectar and pollen rrom flowers. The following are few hypotheses proposed to explain this behaviour in A. mel/ifera:

A. ln the past, those individuals that fed on nectar and pollen loeft more descendants than those who preferred only nectar or only pollen

B. The sensory stimulus from taste receptors in the honey bees lead to a positive reinforcement to look for more of the same food

C. The honey bee's nervous system is predisposed to like th(: sweet taste

D. The ancestor of honey bee was dependant on some sugar and protein rich diet and the honey bees have irherited the same taste Perception

Which of the following combination of ultimate hypotheses best explains the bee's feeding behaviour?

QUESTION ID:132

Column A lists names of evolutionary biologists and column B lists descriptions of evolutionary mechanisms proposed by them in random order

QUESTION ID:133

Following diagrams represent various ways in which a character may evolve: Which of the following is the correct definition for the character evolution patterns shown above?

QUESTION ID:134

In circadian rhythm studies, following may be possible generalizations for the effectiveness of light entrainment to the day/ night cycle:

A. Shorter exposures have a greater effect than longer exposures

B. Bright light exposures have a greater effect than dim light

C. Intermittent light exposures have a greater effect than consistent exposures

D. Dim light can affect entrainment relative to darkness

Which combination of the above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:135

Which one of the following statements regarding 'Endosymbiotic hypothesis of origin of eukaryotes' is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:136

To understand the singing behaviour in songbirds, the following three characters were measured as shown in the graph:

A. Territoriality rate

B. Female fertility rat

C. Song rate

Which one of the following conclusions is most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:137

Several fusion constructs were developed to purify heterologous protein in E. coli. The table below lists fusion partners and ligands. Which one of the following is the correct match of the fusion partner with the ligand?

QUESTION ID:138

Given below are four statements regarding genetic transformation of plants in the laboratory:

A. Plants incapable of sexual reproduction cannot be transformed by Agrobacterium tumefaciens

B. Integration oftransgene in organcllar (chloroplast) genome occurs primarily by homologous recombination

C. An enhancer trap construct used in Agrobacterium-mediated transformationn would contain a functional coding sequence of a reporter gene and a minimal promoter

D. A To transgenic plant containing two unlinked copies of a selection marker gene (hpt) and one copy of the passenger gene (gfp) would segregate in a 1:1 ratio for hygromycin resistance: sensitivity in the backcrossed progeny grown on selection media

Which one of the combinations of above statements are correct?

QUESTION ID:139

Agrobacterium mediated transfonnation was used to generate transgenic plants using a construct with a selection marker gene "X“ and a passenger gene "Y". Expression levels of "Y'' protein in eight independent transgenic plants are given below:

The following could represent probable reasons for the observed variability in transgene expression levels

A. Position effects on passenger gene

B. Transgene silencing of the marker gene

C. Variation in copy number of passenger gene

D. mRNA instability of marker gene

 Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:140

In a breeding experiment, two homozygous parental lines (PI and P2) were crossed to produce F1 hybrids. Due to an experimental error, seeds of these hybrids got mixed up with the seeds of two other gennplasm lines (P3 and P4) and hybrid seeds derived from them. A marker-based fingerprinting exercise was perfonned using six randomly selected seeds (F 1-F6) from the mixed material and the four parental lines. Results of this analysis are shown below

Based on the above data, which one of the following options represents the correct set of parents and their F 1 progeny?

QUESTION ID:141

The Nuclear Magnetic Resonance ( I D andl 20) spectrum of a 30-residue peptide were: recorded at 25°C. The following observations were made.

A. The NH and caH resonances were welll resolved

B. The NOESY spectra showed extensive: N;- Ni+1 connectivities

C The NH resonances showed slow exchange with deuterium

The spectra indicates that the peptide adopts

QUESTION ID:142

Given below are a set of statistical methods/parameters (Column A) and their potential applications/utility in biological research (column B), in a random manner. Which of the following options is a correct match of entries in Column A and B?

QUESTION ID:143

In an experiment designed to clone a PeRamplified fragment in a cloning vector digested with Xhol (CrrCGAG) and Smal (CCC/GGG), whic:h one of the following combinations of restriction enzymes can be used in the PCR primer to generate compatible ends for cloning? (' /' indicates the site of cleavage within the recognition sequence)

QUESTION ID:144

A researcher was working with three proteins, A, B and C which may have potential roles in gene expression. In order to validate the hypothesis, EMSA (electrophoretic mobility shift assay) was perform The purified proteins were allowed to bind with a labelled DNA and the results obtained after autoradiography are shown below

The following interpretations were made
(i) Protein A possesses the DNA binding motif

(ii) Protein B possesses the DNA binding motif

(iii) Protein 8 binds to DNA ··protein A complex

(iv) Protein C binds to DNA only when protein A is bound

Choose the correct combination of interpret· tations.

QUESTION ID:145

Point group symmetry operations such as inversion and mirror plane are not applicable to protein crystals. This is because