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Previous Year Questions

TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

Two fair dice are thrown. The number of cases where the number appearing on the upper face of the first die is not less than that on the lower face of the second die is

QUESTION ID:2

Suppose A=1, B=2, C=3, D=4,...,X=24, Y=25, Z=26. 

has a value of 

QUESTION ID:3

A family of mother, father, daughter, son and his wife pose for a photograph occupying sequential positions A, B, C, D and E in a line. Spouses are next to each other and the daughter is next to her mother.

If E is occupied by the son, which of the following is necessarily true? 

QUESTION ID:4

How many revolutions approximately will a wheel of 56 cm diameter make in traveling 22 km?

QUESTION ID:5

Among A, B, C and D, there is a lawyer, a doctor, a teacher and a journalist. They drink exactly one each of tea, coffee, lemonade and milk. If neither the lawyer nor the teacher drinks milk, B drinks coffee, A is the teacher and C is the doctor and drinks tea, then
which of the following is FALSE?

QUESTION ID:6

M and N are the midpoints of AB and CD, respectively, of a square ABCD whose side is 12 cm. Take a point P on MN and let AP = r cm and PC = s cm. The area of the triangle whose sides are r, s, 12 cm is

QUESTION ID:7

The number of rectangles in the given figure is


QUESTION ID:8

Which of the quadrilaterals would have the largest area when plotted in the X-Y plane? 

QUESTION ID:9

Angle θ in the following parallelogram is 


QUESTION ID:10

An aircraft is approaching the airport from a line of sight distance of 10 km to the landing point and is currently at a height of 5 km. What is the angle of elevation?

QUESTION ID:11

5 apples, 6 oranges and 7 bananas cost ₹ 250, while 6 apples, 4 oranges and 2 bananas cost ₹180. The cost (in ₹) of 4 oranges and 8 bananas is

QUESTION ID:12

In a coded language 'A LBER T' is written as BNEIWZ' and 'Z E B R A' is written as 'A GEVE. Then how will the word 'M I C H E L' be written? 

QUESTION ID:13

A deposit in a bank, which pays interest on its deposits compounded daily, grows to Rs. 80,000 for 500 days and to 88,000 for 1000 days. What would be its value (in Rs.) for 1500 days?

QUESTION ID:14

How many real roots does the continuous function f of a variable x shown below have in the interval 0.5 < x < 4.5 ?

QUESTION ID:15

Chart 1 shows the centre-wise breakup of 8000 students who appeared for an exam at centres A to F. Chart 2 shows the breakup of the 4800 students who passed. What percentage of students who appeared at the center C passed?

QUESTION ID:16

A cake in the shape of a right circular cone of height h and base radius r is to be cut parallel to the base. At what distance from the top should the cake be cut to get two parts of equal volumes?
Select the CORRECT option

QUESTION ID:17

Train A leaves station X at 09:Hours and reaches station Y at 13:00 hours . train B leaves station Y at 11:30 hours and reaches station X at 15:00 hours. Assuming that the two trains travel at constant speeds, at what time do the two trains cross each other?

QUESTION ID:18

A rectangular swimming pool of dimension 20 m x 10 m x 2 m (length x width x depth) has an inlet with a flowrate of 1 m3/min. If the empty pool takes 10 hrs time to get completely filled with a leakage rate of 0.13 m3/min, what is the approximate evaporation rate (in m3/min)?

QUESTION ID:19

A trim costs two-thirds as much as a haircut, but twice as much as shaving. If a man gets a trim 4 times and a shave once every month, the frequency of his haircuts for the cost of the haircut to be equal to that for shaving and trimming combined is,

QUESTION ID:20

If there was 10 cm of rain over one-hectare field, what is the total volume (in cubic meters) of rain over the field?

QUESTION ID:21

Mullerian-inhibiting substance (MIS), a homodimer that causes regression of the Mullerian duct by apoptosis, is secreted by which one of the following cells?

QUESTION ID:22

The amino acid arginine is encoded by six codons: CGU, CGC, CGA, CGG, AGA and AGG. Assuming inosine is not an option in the tRNA anticodon, what is the minimum number of tRNAs (from the options given below) that would be sufficient to read these codons?

QUESTION ID:23

Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) from diabetic mellitus individuals has a glucose molecule attached to which one of the terminal amino acid residues of globin chain?

QUESTION ID:24

What is the nature of the successful anti-cancer Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) vaccine?

QUESTION ID:25

Which of the following domains is present in symbiosis receptor-like kinase (SYMRK) proteins?

QUESTION ID:26

Which one of these statements is NOT CORRECT with respect to ecotones?

QUESTION ID:27

CENP-A containing nucleosomes are found at the centromeric region of the chromosomes. CENP-A is a variant of which one of the following histones?

QUESTION ID:28

To study the cell cycle progression for cultured mammalian cells, one would typically NOT utilize?

QUESTION ID:29

Which one of the following mRNAs is a BMP inhibitor and can rescue the dorsal structures of ventralized Xenopus embryo when injected into it?

QUESTION ID:30

Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:31

Identify the correct site of action of DBMIB (2,5-dibromo-3-methyl-6-isopropyl-p- benzoquinone), an inhibitor of the chloroplast electron transport chain.

QUESTION ID:32

Diclofenac toxicity has been suggested to be the cause for population decline in which one of the following animals?

QUESTION ID:33

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

QUESTION ID:34

Which one of the following is NOT CORRECT in the context of protein structure and folding?

QUESTION ID:35

An ecologist studying molluscs concluded that there is a correlation between the thickness of the shell and weight of the mollusc. Based on this information, one can conclude that

QUESTION ID:36

How many complementation groups do the following mutants m1 to m6 come under?


QUESTION ID:37

Pick the statement that includes both a proximate and an ultimate explanation for the evolution of a given behaviour.

QUESTION ID:38

Which of the following methods can be used to selectively lyse newly dividing cells?

QUESTION ID:39

Savannas are biomes where tree and grass vegetation coexist over large areas. Which one of the following statements does NOT explain the occurrence of savannas in the Indian subcontinent?

QUESTION ID:40

The reabsorption of water and NaCl in kidneys is inhibited by the increased secretion of the following substances EXCEPT one:

QUESTION ID:41

What will be the percentage transmission when absorbance is 1, 2 and 3, respectively?

QUESTION ID:42

In which one of the following human disorders, parents or grandparents are said to carry premutations?

QUESTION ID:43

Catabolic end product of purines is

QUESTION ID:44

Which of the following represents the most oxidized form of carbon?

QUESTION ID:45

The B-form double stranded DNA was invaded by a complementary RNA sequence to form an R-loop structure. During this process

QUESTION ID:46

An Indian bird species known to defend flowers is the

QUESTION ID:47

Which one of the following survivorship curves is typical of invasive insect pest species?

QUESTION ID:48

Which one of the following best describes the ability of the cells to respond to a specific inducing signal?

QUESTION ID:49

Which one of the following proteins is NOT related to extracellular matrix?

QUESTION ID:50

Which one of the following countries has contributed the maximum towards CO2 emissions over the last decade?

QUESTION ID:51

The AFLP technique generates polymorphic DNA fragments that are generally scored as dominant markers. However, a pair of DNA fragments (say ‘a’ and ‘b’) generated by AFLP can be termed as co-dominant, if on analysis of a large progeny of doubled haploids (DH) derived from an F1 (resulting from a cross between two parents one with fragment ‘a’ and the other with ‘b’), it is observed that:

QUESTION ID:52

Which one of the following statements about DNA replication is INCORRECT? 

QUESTION ID:53

The information obtained by comparing a new diagnostic test with the gold standard is summarized in a two-by-two table given below

What is the sensitivity and specificity of the new test?

QUESTION ID:54

the long DNA strand depicted below is serving as a template for lagging strand DNA synthesis. The short lines represent the nev.ly synthesized Okazaki fragments 

At which positions among A. B C and D would DNA primase act next? 

QUESTION ID:55

The distribution of heights of college students aged between 18 to 20 was found approximately normally distributed with an average (mean) of 54 inches and a standard deviation of 2.5 inches. What will be the z-score for a student who is five feet tall?

QUESTION ID:56

Which one of the following is abundant in the plasma membranes of mammalian cells but is absent from most prokaryotic and plant cell membranes?

QUESTION ID:57

The black buck (Antilope cervicapra) has been traditionally protected by which one of the following communities?

QUESTION ID:58

In Saccharomyces cerevisiae, DNA replication is tightly controlled, and DNA should replicate once per cell cycle. Choose the INCORRECT statement regarding why the cells do not re-replicate their DNA in the S-phase.

QUESTION ID:59

Which of the following life history traits is most likely in a rodent species when snakes prefer to prey upon large, older individuals of the rodent species that grow continuously over their lifespan?

QUESTION ID:60

A type of regeneration in which the differentiated cells divide, maintaining their differentiated function without dedifferentiation and production of undifferentiated mass, is known as

QUESTION ID:61

The pericytes are found in

QUESTION ID:62

If a gamete produced following non disjunction of a chromosome at second meiotic division was fertilized by a normal gamete, what is the expected frequency of trisomic progeny?

QUESTION ID:63

Emission maximum of a fluorophore is shifted to longer wavelength when compared to the wavelength of excitation. What is the reason?

QUESTION ID:64

An anti-idiotypic antibody with fluorescent tag was used for detection of immune cells in tissue sections from a healthy individual specifically by cell surface labeling. Which of the following will have the highest chances of getting detected?

QUESTION ID:65

Bioaugmentation refers to:

QUESTION ID:66

The plant hormone gibberellins (GA) are a group of

QUESTION ID:67

Which one of the following statements about cancers is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:68

What can you infer if the correlation coefficient, [Pearson correlation (r)], is close to -1 (minus 1) for two set of variables?

QUESTION ID:69

The post-translational modifications in one or more core histones that are known to be associated with DNA repair pathways are:

QUESTION ID:70

The programmed cell death that separates the digits during a tetrapod limb development is dependent on which one of the following signaling pathways?

QUESTION ID:71

During development, many gene products are provided by the females to the eggs which are needed for normal development of the zygote. Such genes are called as maternal- effect genes. The following are a set of crosses between parents carrying a recessive mutant allele (m) and the offspring obtained:
Which of the above cross(es) is/are indicative that the mutation is in a maternal-effect gene?

QUESTION ID:72

The graph below shows the accumulation of species in two sites A and B as more plots are sampled 
Based on this graph. following statements were made 
A In both sites. sampling more plots will not add any more species.
B Sampling more plots will add more species in Site B but not Site A.
C Sites A and B are likely to have similar species nchness
D Site B is likely to have higher species richness than Site A
Which one of the following options contains both statements that are INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:73

The following statements explain various evolutionary outcomes:
A. Within a lineage, organisms show a constant rate of extinction.
B. Even in the absence of changing interactions, organisms are constantly evolving.
C. Organisms with novel genotypes are at a selective disadvantage.
D. Coevolution between two interacting species act to maintain genetic variation through time.
Which of the following combinations of the above statements are supported by the ‘Red Queen hypothesis’?

QUESTION ID:74

Insulin is a polypeptide hormone that reduces blood glucose levels in human. Following statements are made for insulin synthesis and structure:
A. It is synthesized in rough endoplasmic reticulum of the B cells of islets of Langerhans.
B. It is synthesized in cytosol on free ribosomes of the B cells of islets of Langerhans.
C. Insulin has an AB heterodimer structure with one intrachain (A8-A13) and two interchain disulfide bridges (A6-B10 and A21-B18)
D. Insulin has an AB heterodimer structure with one intrachain (A6-A11) and two interchain disulfide bridges (A7-B7 and A20-B19).
E. The gene for insulin is located on the long arm of chromosome 11 and has two introns and three exons.
F. The gene for insulin is located on the short arm of chromosome 11 that has two introns and three exons.
Which one of the following combination of statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:75

The following statements are made vain respect to merodiploid of the Operon where 'I' the lac repressor. "Y' is the ta C operator t is the faCZ gene encoding beta_ galactosidase and "Y" the lac Y gene encoding permease
Which of the following options represents the combination of all correct statements? 

QUESTION ID:76

Given below are a few steps in clathrin-coated vesicle formation in the secretory pathway.

(A) Receptor-ligand recognition and binding

(B) Recruitment of adapter protein and clathrin

(C) Vesicle formation

(D) Uncoating of clathrin coats

Choose the option that correctly identifies the sequence of events in making a clathrin- coated vesicle.

QUESTION ID:77

Plasma proteins have vital roles in the body ranging from maintaining osmolarity to transport of hormones. Certain statements are given below for the functions of selected plasma proteins:
A. Von Willebrand factor is normally synthesized in the liver.
B. Ceruloplasmin is a copper carrier protein.
C. Genetic deficiency of α1-antiproteinase causes emphysema.
D. Most plasma proteins including albumin are covalently glycosylated.
E. α1-acid glycoprotein (AGP) level increases during body’s response to inflammation.
Which one of the following represents all correct combination of statements?

QUESTION ID:78

Tbx4 and Tbx5 are critical in the specification of hindlimbs and forelimbs, respectively. The following statements were made regarding experiments involving expression of Tbx4 or Tbx5 genes and their probable outcomes:
A. When chick embryo was made to express Tbx4 throughout the flank tissue, limbs induced in the anterior region often become legs instead of wings.
B. Loss of TbX4 function in the hindlimb field completely inhibits leg initiation and growth.
C. Loss of Tbx5 gene in chick results in complete failure of forelimb formation which includes even the most proximal shoulder/girdle structure.
Which one of the following options represents all correct statements as made above?

QUESTION ID:79

The Western Ghats (WG) is a 1600 km mountain chain along the west coast of peninsular India, which intercepts the south-west monsoon winds. Monsoon starts in the southern WG and moves progressively north and retreats in the reverse direction. The southern WG also receives some rainfall from the north-east monsoon. Based on this information, which one of the following statements is most likely to be INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:80

The first common enzyme in the biosynthesis of the branched-chain amino acids (Leu, Ile and Val) is acetohydroxy acid synthase (AHAS). Following statements are made about the enzyme:
A. AHAS requires thiamine diphosphate as cofactor.
B. The plant AHAS comprises a large catalytic subunit and a smaller regulatory subunit.
C. The large subunit alone is sensitive to inhibition by Leu, Ile and Val in plants.
D. Most of the bacterial and fungal AHAS enzymes are sensitive to inhibition by Val only.
Select the option with all correct statements.

QUESTION ID:81

The Montreal Protocol and its subsequent amendments have resulted in reduced ozone depletion. It is also observed that ozone depletion over the South Pole is much more severe than over the North Pole. In this regard, consider the following statements.
A. A polar vortex is formed around the North Pole.
B. Stratospheric temperatures over the South Pole are much lower compared to the North Pole.
C. Emissions of ozone depleting substances are higher in the southern hemisphere compared to northern hemisphere.
D. More extensive formation of polar stratospheric clouds over the South Pole compared to the North Pole.
Select the option which includes the correct combination of statements that explain the difference in the ozone depletion between the poles.

QUESTION ID:82

Some of the steps in the process of eukaryotic DNA replication mentioned below require hydrolysis of ATP.
A. Phosphodiostor bond formation
B. DNA strand separation by helicase
C. Clamp-loader association with clamp and DNA
D. Joining of Okazaki fragments
Choose the following option that correctly identifies all the steps utilizing ATP hydrolysis 

QUESTION ID:83

Physical attachment between cells and extracellular matrix is critical in both animals and plants because it imparts rigidity and strength to tissues and organs. However, junctions between cell-cell or between cell-matrix are diverse in structure and play roles beyond providing physical support. Column “X” lists some of the cell junctions and column “Y” lists their characteristic functions
Select the option with all correct matches.

QUESTION ID:84

The F1 subunit of F0F1 ATP synthase synthesizes ATP from ADP in the mitochondrial inner membrane. Purified F1 subunit hydrolyses ATP to ADP. Which one of the following reasons explains the difference between the activities of the F1 subunit in soluble and membrane bound form?

QUESTION ID:85

Plant nodulation genes encode proteins with receptor-like-features. Following are the list of some nodulation proteins (Column X) and their possible domain characteristics (Column Y):
Which of the following is the correct match?

QUESTION ID:86

A plant species with unisexual flowers has the following traits: floral longevity = 12 hours, pollen: ovule = 10:1, male and female flowers with synchronized anthesis. Given
these, which of the following mutations would be most detrimental to seed set in this plant species?

QUESTION ID:87

Given below are terms related to Genome-editing tools in Column A and their feature in Column B.

Which one of the following options is the most appropriate match between terms of Column A and Column B?

QUESTION ID:88

Four different Hfr strains of E. coli were mated with F-recipients, and the time of entry ofvarious donor markers were found to be as below:
Hfr 1: met [15 min] thr [30 min] phe [42 min] mal [57 min]
Hfr 2: bio [50 min] thy [51 min] his [60 min] mal [77 min]
Hfr 3: cys [10 min] phe [26 min] his [58 min]
Hfr4: his [12 min] bio [22 min] azi [27 min] thi [44min]
Based upon the above observations, the following statements were made assuming met to
be at 0 min and thr at 15 min:
A. his is located at 59 min
B. azi is located at 74 min
C. cys is located at 11 min
D. mal is located at 76 min

QUESTION ID:89

The 5' UTR of ferritin mRNA forms a stem-loop structure called the iron regulatory element [IRE]. The Iron Regulatory Binding Protein [IRBP] binds this IRE. The following statements were made with reference to IRBP- IRE interaction:
A. IRBP-IRE interaction prevents eIF4A from resolving the stem-loop structure, thus preventing initiation of translation of ferritin genes.
B. IRBP-IRE interaction recruits eIF4A to the 5' UTR, thus promoting translation initiation.
C. In presence of ferrous ions IRBP is unable to bind the IRE.
D. eIF4A binds directly at the 5' UTR and disrupts the stem-loop structure, thus promoting translation initiation.
Which one of the options below represents the combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:90

Pyruvate Mast the enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of PEP to pyruvate transfers the Pi from PEP to ADP to generate ATP The standard free energies of the half-reactions are given below. 
ADP + Pi = ATP AG° = +30 5kJmorl 
Flow is the free energy for generation of ATP from ADP derived in the reaction catalyzed by pyruvate kinase7

QUESTION ID:91

Following statements were made about mitochondria:
A. The D loop of the mitochondrial genome is required for replication, but not for the regulation of transcription.
B. The L strand of mitochondrial genome possesses more cytosine.
C. In plants, most mitochondrial tRNAs are encoded by the nuclear genome and then imported into the mitochondrion.
D. Cycloheximide inhibits protein synthesis by mitochondrial ribosomes, but does not affect eukaryotic cytosolic ribosomes.
E. Some organisms have been found to carry linear mitochondrial DNA.
Which one of the following options represents a combination of the correct statements?

QUESTION ID:92

Sexually reproducing organisms employ signals to attract mates. If such signals honestly reflect an individual’s quality, then which of the following is expected?

QUESTION ID:93

Interacting plant (A-J) and insect herbivore (P-Y) species in a community are depicted In the network below 

Consider the following statements about the networic drawn above. 

A. insects are more specialised man plants

B. There are no obligate interactions in this network.

C. The community Is modular

D. Missing links-always represent me absence of an interaction Given this network,

which one of the options below is correct? 

QUESTION ID:94

Following statements were made regarding gibberellins (GA) biosynthesis in plants andfungi.
A. Two separate enzymes are involved in synthesis of ent -kaurene from GGDP in plants
B. Only a single bifunctional enzyme catalyses the synthesis of ent - kaurene from GGDP in fungi
C. GA-biosynthesis genes are mostly clustered on a single chromosome in fungi.
D. GA-biosynthesis genes are randomly located on chromosomes in fungi.
Which one of the following combination of statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:95

The functions of some components used for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) techniqueare proposed in the following statements:
(A) The static magnetic field used by MRI causes all the magnetically sensitive particlesto align themselves in same direction.
(B) The pulse sequence used by MRI is an oscillating magnetic field which causesperturbation of static magnetic field.
(C) The receiver coil placed near a portion of subject’s body is a radiofrequency coil thatrecords the relaxation time of protons.
(D) Various parameters of pulse sequence cannot be adjusted to maximize the ability toimage certain substances.
(E) The signal intensity received by the receiver coil can provide the location of brainfrom which it is coming
Choose the option with all INCORRECT statements.

QUESTION ID:96

The sequence below represents part of the coding strand of the bacterial gene Z The arrow indicates the transcription start site 


The following statements were made with reference to transcription & translation of me strand: 

A. Insertion of an 'A nucleotide after position +8 increases the length of the transcript by 1 nucleotide and changes the amino acid sequence of the protein being translated. 

B. Substitution of the T at position 22 changes the primary structure of the protein without altering transcript length 

C. Insertion of an -A after position 26 changes the primary structure of the protein and results In synthesis of a truncated protein. 

0. Deletion of 'A at position 9 creates me 'STOP' colon trial prevents translation or me protein. 

Which one of the options below represents the combination of all correct statements? 

QUESTION ID:97

Table below shows the protected areas, their description and the protected area types 

Select the option that is NOT CORRECT based on the information provided in the Table

QUESTION ID:98

From a newly fertilized mouse egg, maternal pronucleus was removed and replaced with asecond paternal pronucleus. Following observations/ statements were made:
A. This will result in formation of an androgenetic embryo.
B. This will result in formation of a gynogenetic embryo.
C. The embryo will not survive beyond mid-gestation since parental genomes servedistinct complementary functions due to variable imprinting pattern.
D. The adult originating from the embryo will be a clone of the father.
E. The embryo will develop as adult but will die early due to rapid shortening of thetelomeres.
Which one of the following represents correct combination of above statements?

QUESTION ID:99

Given below are a list of statistical terms in Column A and associated properties /features/descriptors in Column B. 

Which one of the options given below is the most appropriate match between entries of Column A with those of Column B?

QUESTION ID:100

An in vitro translation system capable of incorporating ~8 amino acids s-1 wasprogrammed to translate a single mRNA that codes for an alanine-rich (~35% alaninewith uniform distribution of alanine) protein of 275 amino acids (~30kDa) including ahexa-histidine tag at the C-terminal end of the protein. The protein possesses threemethionine residues at amino acid positions 1, 135 and 230 and generates polypeptides of~15 kDa, ~10 kDa and ~5 kDa upon degradation with cyanogen bromide. The translationreaction was initiated and the ongoing reaction was supplemented with 14C Ala after 5min. Soon after addition of 14C Ala, aliquots were drawn at 2, 20, and 200 s, andreactions in the aliquots were instantaneously stopped. The translated proteins werepurified on Ni-NTA columns, processed for degradation by CNBr, resolved on SDS-PAGE,and visualized by nonquantitative autoradiography. Which of the followingautoradiograms represents the expected pattern of the bands?

QUESTION ID:101

In mammals, autophagy is involved in specific cytosolic rearrangements needed for proliferation and differentiation during embryogenesis and postnatal development. Embryos have the ability to activate general protective strategy against many stress-inducing conditions. Which one of the following statements DOES NOT conform to the role of autophagy during early development?

QUESTION ID:102

Inbred mouse strains with different MHC haplotypes (homozygous H-2m MHC haplotype and homozygous for the H-2n haplotype) were mated resulting in F1 progeny (H-2m/n ).Skin transplantation experiments were performed between these mouse strains (parents with H-2m and H-2n MHC haplotypes and progeny with H-2m/n MHC haplotype). Which one of the following statements with respect to acceptance and rejection of the skin graft is correct?

QUESTION ID:103

The intensity of competition can be inferred from knowing the carrying capacity (K) and the population size (N) in the equation below:
Assume that populations have the same intrinsic growth rates(r) and carrying capacities (K). Then, at which one of the following values of the second term (K-N)/K in the equation, is the intraspecific competition likely to be the highest?

QUESTION ID:104

In a modified version of ELISA, a student first incubated antibody against the Pseudomonas aeruginosa exotoxin A (Pa-exotoxin A) with culture samples in a 0.5mLtube to check for Pseudomonas contamination. Each antibody-culture mixture was then added to a microtiter plate whose wells were coated with Pa-exotoxin A. This was followed by removing the antibody-culture mix from the wells, washing the wells, adding enzyme-conjugated secondary antibody specific for the isotype of the primary antibody, and then detection with enzyme- specific substrate reaction absorbance at 450 nm. The values of absorbance at 450 nm for each of four samples A-D is given below:
Select the option that arranges the samples from having highest to least contamination

QUESTION ID:105

Cervical cancer cells were untreated (-), or treated (+) with compound X, a putative anti-cancer drug. The cell extracts were analyzed by Immtmoblotting for the levels of specific markers as indicated by the band thickness. Ten following results were obtained: 
Which one of the following options best describes the action of compound X? 

QUESTION ID:106

Which of the four molecules shown above are optically active? 

QUESTION ID:107

A researcher observed ants in contact with plant hoppers that were feeding on tree sap. Which of the following conclusions made by her would be correct?

QUESTION ID:108

Select the option that correctly identifies all organisms that are included in the International Code of Nomenclature (Shenzhen Code, 2017) along with plants:

QUESTION ID:109

The table below summarizes the key signaling pathways that orchestrate development, their receptors, transcription effectors and output.

Which of the above pathways is correctly depicted in one of the options given below?

QUESTION ID:110

In a particular population A, individuals are under stress and they produce smaller offspring. Based on this, one may conclude that

QUESTION ID:111

Given below are plots of the linear derivation of Michaelis-menten kinetic equation and statements related to the variables (initial velocity - Vo and substrate concentration - [S] used, 
A. In plot (i). both x and y axes have dependent variables
B. In plot (ii) neither x nor y axis has independent variables
C. In plot (I), only y-axis has a dependent variable
D In both the plots, x axis has an Independent variable
Select the option that has all the correct statements.

QUESTION ID:112

The group of 6 cells (P3.p to P8.P) called vulval precursor cells (VPCs) of C. elegans for man equivalence group. The following statements were made as evidence that VPCs form anequivalence group:
A. If the anchor cell is destroyed the VPCs contribute to the formation of hypodermal tissues.
B. If the 3 central cells (P5.p to P7.p) are destroyed the remaining cells can generate vulval cells.
C. If expression of lin-3 is increased VPCs contributing to the secondary lineage can form cells of primary lineage.
D. Ectopic expression of let-23 in P5.p and P7.p VPCs converts them to primary cell lineage.
Which one of the following options is a combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:113

Members of the WUSCHEL RELATED HOMEOBOX (WOX) transcription factor family play an important role during zygote elongation and division in Arabidopsis. Following are certain statements regarding the expression of different members of WOX gene family during zygote elongation.
A. WOX2 and WOX8 are present in both the egg cell and the zygote.
B. WOX2 is present in the apical and basal cell.
C. WOX8 along with WOX9 regulates the development of basal lineage.
D. WOX8 and WOX9 are directly activated in the zygote by the transcription factorWRKY2.
Which one of the following options represents combination of all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:114

A student listed following combinations of enzymes and their involvement in different phases of Calvin-Benson cycle:
A. Phosphoglycerate kinase – Reduction phase
B. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase – Regeneration phase
C. Triose-phosphate isomerase – Reduction phase
D. Phosphoribulokinase – Regeneration phase
Which one of the following combinations is correct?

QUESTION ID:115

In a plant r+ and a+ genes encode for a regulatory and a structural protein, respectively. These genes are responsible for blue color of flower. Mutation in either of the genes leads to white flowers, which is a recessive character. The two genes assort independently When two homozygous white flowered plants are crossed, the F1
plants have blue colored flowers. If the F1 plant is backcrossed, the progeny will have plants with blue and white flowers in the ratio of

QUESTION ID:116

Sound waves are transmitted from the external environment to the cochlea through the middle ear during hearing. The functions of the middle ear in hearing are suggested below:
(A) During the transmission of sound waves through the middle ear, the movement of the head of stapes induces a piston like movement on the oval window.
(B) The tympanic membrane functions as a resonator that reproduces the vibration of sound source.
(C) The sound pressure on the tympanic membrane is increased 1.3 times on the oval window by the lever system of malleus and incus.
(D) The area of tympanic membrane is greater than that of the footplate of stapes, and hence sound pressure on tympanic membrane is increased on oval window.
(E) The contraction of tensor tympani muscle causes the manubrium of the malleus to be pulled outward.
(F) The footplate of the stapes is pulled inward by the contraction of stapedius muscle.
Choose the option with all CORRECT statements

QUESTION ID:117

The cladogram given below shows the distribution of derived characters (A to 0) that define each of the groups shown at the Up. 
select me correct arrangement of characters that are being clescribed by A to D. 

QUESTION ID:118

An enzyme has a Km of 5 x 10-5M and a Vmax of 100 μmoles.lit-1.min-1(Km is the Michaelis constant and Vmax is the maximal velocity).

What is the velocity in the presence of 1 x 10-4M substrate and 2 x 10-4 M competitive inhibitor, given that the Ki for the inhibitor is 2 x 10-4 M?

QUESTION ID:119

Consider the cancer types in Column P and the cancer related descriptions (Column Q)

Select the option that represent all the correct matches

QUESTION ID:120

The actin-binding proteins regulate microfilament turnover in a eukaryotic system. Match the actin-binding protein (in column I) with their functions (in column II).
Choose the CORRECT combination from below:

QUESTION ID:121

The pedigree below is in reference to Angelman Syndrome (AS), which is caused by a mutation in the UBE3A gene on chromosome 15. The gene Is also paternally Imprinted. Individuals showing AS. have not been indicated in the given pedigree. Individual I-1 does not have AS. Individuals marked with dots are carriers for UBE3A mutation. 
Which one of the following options lists individuals all of whom are likely to show AS? 

QUESTION ID:122

The following statements were made regarding the patterning of anterior-posterior bodyplan of Drosophila:
A. Microinjection of bicoid mRNA in the middle of a bicoid -deficient embryo leads toformation of ‘head’ in the middle and telson at the two ends.
B. Nanos protein inhibits the translation of caudal mRNA at the posterior half of theembryo.
C. The Bicoid protein activates the zygotic expression of the hunchback gene.
D. The segment polarity genes are expressed in segments of the embryo.
Which one of the following options represents all correct statements as made above?

QUESTION ID:123

Study the global ecosystem data provided in the following table.

Based on the data provided in the table, choose the correct option that represents Eco systems with the highest global, primary production and the highest relative NPP, respectively.

QUESTION ID:124

Given below are radio-imaging technologies with the type of radiation/ radioisotope thatis used for the same.
A. Computed tomography scanner uses UV-rays
B. Magnetic resonance imaging [MRI] uses non-ionization radiation
C. Thyroid scintigraphy uses Iodine-123 (I123)
D. Phase-contrast radiography uses X-rays
E. Fluoroscopy uses X-rays
Which of the options represents all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:125

Iron deficiency is a common problem in humans worldwide. The homeostasis of iron in the body is maintained using various proteins (column- X) and their function (column- Y):

 

QUESTION ID:126

The table lists information about different classes of retroelements:

Which one of the following options has all correct matches between column X and Y?

QUESTION ID:127

Fertilization between two mating types (P1 and P2) of Neurospora. led to a diploid ascus which gave rise to ascus containing 8 haploid ascospores. A set of DNA markers representing two linked loci was analyzed in P1. P2 and the °clads labeled 01 to 08 arranged from the tip to the base of the ascus. The observed profile is represented below

Which one of the following Is a correct conclusion of the above observation? 


QUESTION ID:128

The table below lists terms used in bioremediation (column X) and explanations for the terms (column Y).

Which one of the following options is a correct match between terms in column X and explanations in column Y?

QUESTION ID:129

Three reactions were performed to detect a 150 bp DNA fragment rich in GC content, using PCR amplification method and the following radiolabeled material (i) 5 ’
32 P-labelled primers (ii) α- 32 P-labelled dCTP and, (iii) γ - 32 P-labelled dATP. All the reactions had theremaining components for a successful PCR amplification. After PCR amplification thesamples were run on a 2% Agarose gel. The gel was then exposed to radiographic film.From the radiographs given below, which is the correct representation of the reactions (i),(ii) and (iii) in lanes A, B and C respectively.

QUESTION ID:130

Match the Indian Biosphere reserves (Column P) with the key fauna (Column Q) they are intended to protect.

Which one of the following options has all correct matches between column P and Q?

QUESTION ID:131

A potential difference of about -70 mV between inside and outside of a single axonal membrane in resting condition may be recorded by suitable electrodes and amplifier. The physico-chemical and biological basis of the origin of this resting membrane potential(RMP) are suggested below:
(A) The RMP is close to the equilibrium of Na+ion.
(B) There must be an unequal distribution of diffusible ions across the axonal membrane for the RMP.
(C) The axonal membrane must be permeable to one or more species of ions for the RMP.
(D) The concentration gradient of Na+ and K+ ions across the axonal membrane required for the RMP, is dependent on the activity of Na+, K+-ATPase.
(E) Impermeable proteins in the axoplasm do not affect the distribution of diffusible ions across the axonal membrane which is required for the RMP.
(F) Na+, K+-ATPase pump in the axonal membrane which is essential for the RMP, is not electrogenic.
Choose all correct statements from the following options:

QUESTION ID:132

Fragmentation breaks up contiguous tracts of natural habitats into smaller patches. In afragmented landscape where a previously large forest has become a mosaic of patches ofdifferent sizes, the following statements can be made about the fragment size and itsspecies diversity.
A. Smaller fragments will always have lower species richness than larger fragments.
B. Species richness will depend on fragment size.
C. Species richness will depend on physical connectivity between fragments.
D. Species richness cannot be compared between large and small fragments.
Select the option where both the statements are correct

QUESTION ID:133

In fever caused by bacterial infection, the set-point of the thermoregulatory mechanism is changed to a new point above 37 0C. The following statements were proposed by a researcher to explain the pathogenesis of this fever:
(A) The infection induced cytokines inhibit PGE 2 in the hypothalamus, and that increases the body temperature.
(B) The increased levels of circulating TNFα and IL 1β after infection are not able to induce fever.
(C) The endotoxins of bacteria act on the macrophages and monocytes of the infected person to initiate the processthat results in the rise of body temperature.
(D) The cytokines produced from the macrophages by endotoxins act as endogenous pyrogens in the infectedperson.
(E) The infection induced circulating cytokines act on the organum vasculosum of lamina terminalis (OVLT) whichactivates pre-optic area of hypothalamus resulting in the increase of body temperature.
(F) The inhibition of COX2 gene expression by the increased level of circulating cytokines causes the rise of bodytemperature in the infected person.
Choose the option with all correct statements:

QUESTION ID:134

The regions of phi, psi space occupied by well characterized protein secondary structures are marked on a Ramachandran plot as shown above. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?


QUESTION ID:135

PBMCs from the blood collected from a tuberculosis (1B) patient were given to four lab technicians to perform ELISPOT assay for interferon y (IFNy). While all steps recommended for ELISPOT were followed, the first step was performed differently by the four lab technicians, as detailed below
A Lab technician 1 coated each well with 250,000 formaldehyde- treated cells and stimulated the cells with TB-specific antigen. 
B Lab technician 2 coated each well with 250,000 cells and did not stimulate the cells with TS-specific antigen 
C. Lab technician 3 depleted T cells from PBMCs completely, coated the wells with monocyte-enriched PBMCs, and stimulated them with TB-specific antigen 
D. Lab technician 4 coated each well with 250,000 cells and stimulated the cells with TB-specific antigens. 
Which of the lab technicians' assays will yield a correct ELISPOT result for interferon y? 

QUESTION ID:136

The mammalian genital ridge is bipotential. Which one of the following statements regarding determination of the fate of genital ridge is
INCORRECT

QUESTION ID:137

Which one of the following statements about corals is NOT CORRECT ?

QUESTION ID:138

For an experiment, the hapten DNP was conjugated with the carrier protein BSA or with the carrier protein OVA. A set of mice were primed with either DNP-BSA conjugate or with OVA which was not conjugated to DNP. The following experiments were then performed.
A. X-ray irradiated syngeneic mice were injected with spleen cells from both DNP-BSA–primed mice and OVA-primed mice and then challenged with DNP-OVA conjugate.
B. X-ray irradiated syngeneic mice were injected with T-cell depleted spleen cells from DNP-BSA–primed mice and spleen cells from OVA-primed mice and then challenged with DNP-OVA conjugate.
C. X-ray irradiated syngeneic mice were injected with spleen cells from DNP-BSA–primed mice and T-cell depleted spleen cells from OVA-primed-mice and then challenged with DNP-OVA conjugate.
Which one of the following options of mice will generate secondary anti-hapten responseto DNP?

QUESTION ID:139

To ensure proper segregation of chromosomes during mitosis, the sister chromatid pairs must be stably bi-oriented on the mitotic spindle. In animal cells, after nuclear envelope break down (NEBD), chromosomes glide along the microtubules' length with the help oft he motor proteins. When the chromosomes reach the plus-end of microtubules, thekinetochores attach to the microtubules. Which one of the following is the correct option for the kinetochore-microtubules attachment configuration that ensures preprohormone some segregation?

QUESTION ID:140

The following statements refer to the E.coli repticative DNA polymerase: 
A. DNA Pol I displays very limited processivity and possesses 3'--) 5' exonuctease activity. allowing fidelity of DNA replication. 
B. DNA Poi III Is suitable for leading strand DNA synthesis due to Its high processivity and 5'—) 3' exonuclease activity that removes incorrect nucleotides incorporated during DNA synthesis. 
C. DNA Pol I possesses 5'--* 3' exonuclease activity which allows removal of the RNA primer while as 5'-' 3' polymerase activity allows it to fill the gap created by removal of the RNA primer 
D. DNA Pol III is suitable for lagging strand DNA synthesis due to its low processivity and 5'-' exonuctease activity. 
Which one of the options below represents the combination of all correct statements? 

QUESTION ID:141

The following statements were made regarding submergence tolerance in plants.
A. Wetland plants have structural barrier to prevent O2 diffusion into soil.
B. Dryland plants have structural barrier to prevent O2 diffusion into soil.
C. Lowering of cytosolic Ca 2+ prevents aerenchyma formation.
D. Activation of ethylene signal transduction pathway prevents aerenchyma formation.
Which one of the following options has all correct statements?

QUESTION ID:142

In the cladograms given below each nucleotide change is indicated by a black bar 

Which one of the following options represents two equally most parsimonious trees? 

QUESTION ID:143

Consider the defects in human macrophage cell lines (antigen presenting cells, Column A)and their possible consequence on T cell activation (Column B).

Select the option that represents all the correct matches

QUESTION ID:144

Which one of the following statements relating to the mechanism of color development IN response to LacZ expression in Escherichia coli is INCORRECT ?

QUESTION ID:145

Phytochrome photoreceptors exist in two isoforms, PR and PFR . Following are certain statements regarding the function of PFR :
A. PFR form induces phosphorylation and ubiquitin linked degradation of PIFs transcription factor.
B. PFR mediated degradation of PIFs inhibits photomorphogenesis.
C. P FR inhibits the activity of COPI.
D. PFR increases the stability of transcription factors HFR 1, HY5 and LAF1.
Which one of the following combinations is correct?