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Previous Year Questions

TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

Choose the appropriate one word substitute for:

A person who shows selfless concern for the well-being and happiness of others

QUESTION ID:2

My great uncle's gift of several lakh rupees was enough to AMELIORATE my financial condition. Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters

QUESTION ID:3

Choose the grammatically correct sentence:

QUESTION ID:4

choose the correctly spelt word from the given options

QUESTION ID:5

If a:b=3:5, then (-a²+b²):(a²+b²) is:

QUESTION ID:6


QUESTION ID:7

Instead of walking along two adjacent sides of a rectangular field, a boy took a short-cut along the diagonal of the field and saved a distance equal to half of the longer side. Find the ratio of the length of the shorter side to that of the longer side of the field.

QUESTION ID:8

By selling an electric iron for ₹700. a shopkeeper incurred a loss of 30%. At what price should he have sold the electric iron to gain 40%?

QUESTION ID:9

A water tank can be filled by two pipes P and Q in 60 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the empty tank if pipes P and Q are opened for first half of the time. after which only pipe Q is opened for next half of the time?

QUESTION ID:10

If AMAN equals 79, then HAPPY=?

QUESTION ID:11

Answer the question by using the below mentioned statement and conclusions.

Statement: All teachers are student
Some students are girls

Conclusions:- I. All teachers are girls.
II. Some girls are teachers.
III. Some girls are student.

QUESTION ID:12

Choose the correct alternative that will complete the pattern 0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13, ?

QUESTION ID:13

Manoj is taller than Sam but shorter than Rakesh. Rakesh is taller than Rohit but shorter than Govind. If Sam is taller than Rohit, then who is the shortest among all?

QUESTION ID:14

Introducing a man to her husband, a woman said. "His sister's father is the only son of my grandfather". How is the woman related to this man?

QUESTION ID:15

'Chor Minar' in the Hauzkhas of Delhi was constructed by

QUESTION ID:16

Match List I with List II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:17

'Jhuming' is a type of

QUESTION ID:18

A. The speed of sound is maximum in gases and minimum in solids.
B. The speed of sound remains unchanged by increase or decrease of pressure.
C. The speed of sound increases with increase of temperature of the medium.
D. The speed of sound is less in humid air than in dry air.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:19

Which music composer of India has won the prestigious Grammy Awards 2023?

QUESTION ID:20

Which of the following enzymes introduce negative supercoiling in prokaryotic DNA?

QUESTION ID:21

To detect infection of SARS-CoV2 in humans, RT-PCR technique is used to quantify:

QUESTION ID:22

Which cell organelle is involved in the synthesis of glycosphingolipids and glycoproteins inside the cell?

QUESTION ID:23

Actinomycin D inhibits:

QUESTION ID:24

Which of the following event occurs during the Diplonema Diplotene stage of meiosis?

QUESTION ID:25

The anti-parallel nature of double standard DNA is due to:

QUESTION ID:26

All human antibody types possess a proline-rich flexible 'hinge region' except:

QUESTION ID:27

The drug Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of:

QUESTION ID:28

Neuroglia found in peripheral nervous system (PNS) contains the following cells:

QUESTION ID:29

Hyaluronic acid is composed of:

QUESTION ID:30

Separation of two different alleles from each other during gamete formation in a heterozygote follows:

QUESTION ID:31

A lizard like reptile which is considered as a "Living fossil" is:

QUESTION ID:32

The world's only floating national park is situated in:

QUESTION ID:33

Calculate the value of median from the given data:

2.90, 3.57, 3.73, 2.98, 3.64, 3.75
3.30, 3.62, 3.76, 3.38, 3.66, 3.76

QUESTION ID:34

In the course of evolution. first horses appeared in which period?

QUESTION ID:35

Teak is a dominant tree species of which of the following types of forests in India?

QUESTION ID:36

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Food chains are short.
Reason R: There is a loss of 10% of energy at each trophic level

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:37

Which is the correct sequence of events in urine formation?

QUESTION ID:38

All of the following are amniotes except:

QUESTION ID:39

The first definitive evidence for the chromosomal theory of inheritance was provided by:

QUESTION ID:40

Carina is:

QUESTION ID:41

The egg of birds and fishes have only one small area which is free of yolk and where division takes place. Such an egg is known as:

QUESTION ID:42

Which of the hominins first migrated out of Africa?

QUESTION ID:43

The ribozyme that catalyses peptide bond formation during prokaryotic protein synthesis is:

QUESTION ID:44

Cosmid vector is made up of:

QUESTION ID:45

A population has 600 individuals. 150 of genotype AA. 300 of genotype Aa and 150 of genotype aa. What is the frequency of allele A?

QUESTION ID:46

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:47

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scurvy is a disease due to deficiency of Vitamin C.
Reason R: Scurvy is characterised by long digits and extensibility of joints.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:48

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The wing of a bird, forelimb of human and forelimb of lizard are homologous.
Reason R: Organ's underlying similarity arises due to their derivation from common ancestors.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:49

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scaffolding proteins are non-histone chromosomal proteins.
Reason R: Scaffolding proteins are abundant in lysine and Arginine.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:50

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Treatment of immunoglobulin IgG with ẞ-mercaptoethanol gives rise to two heavy chains and two light chains peptides on SDS-PAGE.
Reason R: ẞ-mercaptoethanol breaks peptide bond at the site of disulphide linkage.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:51

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Monkeys and chimpanzees cannot mate in present day conditions.
Reason R: Reproductive isolation is reversible.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:52

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with antibiotic resistance.
Reason R: Plasmodium is dependent on Hexose monophosphate shunt and reduced glutathione for their optimum growth in RBCs.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:53

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Salamanders belong to order Apoda of class Amphibia.
Reason R: The order Apoda of class Amphibia includes elongated, limbless and burrowing creatures.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:54

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Sponges are the only major phylum that lack nerves.
Statement II: The simplest nervous system occurs in platyhelminthes.

In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:55

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Messenger RNA capping. polyadenylation and splicing are coupled to transcription in eukaryotes.
Statement II: Transcription and translation are compartmentalized in prokaryotes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:56

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Transduction is virus-mediated bacterial DNA-recombination.
Statement II: Transduction is also used for bacterial gene linkage and gene mapping studies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:57

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter the citric acid cycle or combine with each other to form ketone bodies.
Statement II: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter glycolysis or combine to form glucose.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:58

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:59

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Spleen participates in the immune response against blood-borne pathogens.
Statement II: The lymph node is a highly specialized primary lymphoid organ.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:60

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Parthenogenesis plays an important role in social organization in colonies of certain bees, wasps. and ants.
Statement II: In bees, large number of males (drones) are produced parthenogenetically, whereas sterile female workers and reproductive females (queens) are produced sexually.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:61

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A circadian rhythm cannot be entrained.
Statement II: Hormone melatonin regulates circadian rhythums.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:62

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:63

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:64

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:65

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:66

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:67

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:68

Match List I with List II      (DROP)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:69

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:70

Arrange the steps involved in cloning of gene into plasmid:
A. Selection of confirmation of recombinant clones
B. Ligation of the gene of interest and plasmid
C. Amplification of the gene of interest using template DNA
D. Transformation of bacterium using the recombinant plasmid
E. Restriction endonuclease treatment of the suitable plasmid and gene of interest.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:71

The flow of water in syconoid type of water canal system in sponges follows the course of:
A. Osculum
B. Spongocoel
C. Radial canals
D. Incurrent canals
E. Dermal Ostia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:72

Choose the correct sequence involved in transcription and translation process in eukaryotes:
A. mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribosome in cytosol
B. RNA processing
C. Transcription
D. Peptic bond formation between amino acids
E. Ribosome assembly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:73

Identify the sequence in the mechanism of local inflanımatory response:
A. Presence of pathogen at the site of injury
B. Capillaries widen and become more permeable
C. Most cells release histamines
D. Entry of anti-microbial peptides at the site of injury
E. Signals released by immune cells, attract neutrophills which digest the pathogen and heals the tissue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:74

Arrange the following toxonomic categories from lower to higher level:
A. Family
B. Class
C. Kingdom
D. Order
E. Species

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:75

There are both excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. The inhibitory neurotransmitters from the following are:
A. Glycine
B. γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C. Norepinephrine
D. Taurine
E. Glutamate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:76

Following are the characteristics of Mollusc's:
A. Mollusc's are protostomes, have coelom reduced to cavities surrounding heart. nephridia and gonads.
B. Mollusc's members possess a head-foot, visceral mass. mantle and mantle cavity.
C. The rasping organ consists of muscular belt with rows of posteriorly curved teeth.
D. The molluscan body form in the cephalopoda undergoes a 180° anti-clockwise twisting of visceral mass.
E. Protostome characteristics for molluscs also include trocophore larvae spiral cleavage and schizococelous coelom formation.

Choose the set with correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:77

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:78

Teratogens are:
A. Environmental compounds that can alter development. B. Act at specific times when certain organs are farming.
C. The teratogen class includes drugs, chemicals, viruses and radiations.
D. Heavy metals such as zinc are teratogens but lead and mercury are not considered as teratogens.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:79

Proteins can be separated according to size by following techniques except:
A. Isoelectric focusing
B. SDS-PAGE
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Molecular exclusion chromatography

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:80

The following statements are associated with human female reproductive physiology.
A. The uterine cycle during menstruation includes follicular phase, ovulation and luteal phase.
B. The degeneration of corpus luteum is called luteolysis.
C. An increase in plasma progesterone level synchronises with the luteal phase.
D. After oocyte maturation, ovulation takes place.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:81

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: During gel electrophoresis. DNA moves from anode to cathode.
Reason R: DNA is negatively charged.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:82

Identify the correct statements:
A. Tumor cells differ from normal cells by changes in the regulation of growth. B. Proto-oncogenes encode defective proteins.
C. Tumor cells can display tumor-specific antigens/novel antigens.
D. Several cytokines including IFN and TNF help to mediate tumor-cell killing.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:83

Arrange the primates in order from oldest to recent in terms of evolution:
A. Old world monkeys
B. Orangutons
C. Gibbons
D. Gorillas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:84

Arrange the major thematic events of xenopus gastrulation from early to late stage.
A. Epiboly of the ectoderm around the entire embryo.
B. Extension of the body along anterior-posterior axis.
C. Formation of bottle cells and internalisation of the endoderm and mesoderm.
D. Cortical rotation and formation of grey crescent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:85

In TCA cycle, succinyl CoA synthetase is involved in the conversion of:

QUESTION ID:86

The following statements are related to sensory tissues of animals.
A. Proprioceptors are commonly called 'stretch receptors' that respond to mechanically-induced changes.
B. Certain flagellated protozoa like Euglena that contains chlorophyll possess a mass of bright red protoreceptor granules called stigma.
C. 'Neuromasts' are the primary photoreceptors in sharks, some fishes and aquatic amphibians.
D. Meissner's corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles primarily help to detect chemical stimulus in animals. E. Most reptiles possess Jacobson's (Vomeronasal) organs for olfactory reception.

Choose the set of correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:87

Autoclaving is used as a sterilisation technique. The conditions used for autoclaving are:

QUESTION ID:88

The gradient used in ultracentrifugation for fractionation of DNA is:

QUESTION ID:89

In normal cells. progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Event that occurs at G1/S checkpoint is:

QUESTION ID:90

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the GIS. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints. the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Continuously dividing cells do not exit the cell cycle but they proceed through G1, S. G2 and M phase.
Statement II: Cancer cells are unable to enter GO phase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:91

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Choose the correct statement:

QUESTION ID:92

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talır and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Western Ghats of India is one of the biodiversity hotspots.
Reason R: The criteria for categorisation as a biodiversity hotspot is high number of endemic species (at least 1500 species of vascular plants), the region must have lost 30% of its natural vegetation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:93

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Nilgiri Tahr is an:

QUESTION ID:94

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talu and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Some frogs such as poison dart frog exhibit bright coloration which serves as a warning signal for its predators. It is known as:

QUESTION ID:95

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life? 

QUESTION ID:96

Animal species should be preserved mainly because 

QUESTION ID:97

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate? 

QUESTION ID:98

Which of the following types of animals does man chiefly protect? 

QUESTION ID:99

The wild life is about to become extinct mainly because: 

QUESTION ID:100

Synonym of the word 'CELESTIAL' is: 

QUESTION ID:101

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the following options: 

India is one of the richest countries _________ the world in terms of biodiversity. Due __________ anthropogenic activities, many species have lost their habitat and even become extent. International Union _________  conservation _________ nature and natural resources has categorized with flora and fauna into eight categories. 

QUESTION ID:102

Fill in the blank with suitable word from the options given below: 

Light _________ in a straight line. 

QUESTION ID:103

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:104

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:105

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:106

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:107

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:108

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:109

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:110

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:111

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:112

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:113

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:114

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:115

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:116

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:117

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:118

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:119

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:120

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:121

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:122

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:123

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:124

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:125

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:126

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:127

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:128

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:129

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:130

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:131

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:132

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:133

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:134

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:135

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:136

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:137

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:138

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:139

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:140

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:141

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:142

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:143

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:144

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:145

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:146

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:147

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:148

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:149

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:150

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:151

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:152

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:153

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:154

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:155

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:156

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:157

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:158

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:159

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:160

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:161

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:162

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:163

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:164

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:165

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:166

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:167

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:168

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:169

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:170

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:171

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:172

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:173

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:174

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:175

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:176

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:177

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:178

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:179

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:180

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:181

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:182

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:183

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:184

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:185

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:186

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:187

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:188

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:189

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:190

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:191

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:192

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:193

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:194

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:195

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:196

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:197

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:198

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:199

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:200

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:201

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:202

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:203

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:204

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:205

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:206

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:207

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:208

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:209

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:210

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:211

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:212

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:213

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:214

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:215

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:216

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:217

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:218

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:219

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:220

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:221

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:222

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:223

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:224

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:225

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:226

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:227

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:228

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:229

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:230

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:231

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:232

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:233

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:234

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:235

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:236

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:237

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:238

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:239

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:240

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:241

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:242

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:243

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:244

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:245

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:246

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:247

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:248

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:249

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:250

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:251

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:252

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:253

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:254

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:255

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:256

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:257

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:258

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:259

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:260

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:261

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:262

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:263

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:264

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:265

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:266

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:267

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:268

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:269

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:270

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:271

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:272

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:273

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:274

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:275

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:276

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:277

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:278

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:279

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:280

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:281

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:282

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:283

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:284

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:285

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:286

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:287

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:288

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:289

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:290

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:291

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:292

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:293

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:294

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:295

Choose the appropriate one word substitute for:

A person who shows selfless concern for the well-being and happiness of others

QUESTION ID:296

My great uncle's gift of several lakh rupees was enough to AMELIORATE my financial condition. Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters

QUESTION ID:297

Choose the grammatically correct sentence:

QUESTION ID:298

choose the correctly spelt word from the given options

QUESTION ID:299

If a:b=3:5, then (-a²+b²):(a²+b²) is:

QUESTION ID:300


QUESTION ID:301

Instead of walking along two adjacent sides of a rectangular field, a boy took a short-cut along the diagonal of the field and saved a distance equal to half of the longer side. Find the ratio of the length of the shorter side to that of the longer side of the field.

QUESTION ID:302

By selling an electric iron for ₹700. a shopkeeper incurred a loss of 30%. At what price should he have sold the electric iron to gain 40%?

QUESTION ID:303

A water tank can be filled by two pipes P and Q in 60 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the empty tank if pipes P and Q are opened for first half of the time. after which only pipe Q is opened for next half of the time?

QUESTION ID:304

If AMAN equals 79, then HAPPY=?

QUESTION ID:305

Answer the question by using the below mentioned statement and conclusions.

Statement: All teachers are student
Some students are girls

Conclusions:- I. All teachers are girls.
II. Some girls are teachers.
III. Some girls are student.

QUESTION ID:306

Choose the correct alternative that will complete the pattern 0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13, ?

QUESTION ID:307

Manoj is taller than Sam but shorter than Rakesh. Rakesh is taller than Rohit but shorter than Govind. If Sam is taller than Rohit, then who is the shortest among all?

QUESTION ID:308

Introducing a man to her husband, a woman said. "His sister's father is the only son of my grandfather". How is the woman related to this man?

QUESTION ID:309

'Chor Minar' in the Hauzkhas of Delhi was constructed by

QUESTION ID:310

Match List I with List II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:311

'Jhuming' is a type of

QUESTION ID:312

A. The speed of sound is maximum in gases and minimum in solids.
B. The speed of sound remains unchanged by increase or decrease of pressure.
C. The speed of sound increases with increase of temperature of the medium.
D. The speed of sound is less in humid air than in dry air.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:313

Which music composer of India has won the prestigious Grammy Awards 2023?

QUESTION ID:314

Which of the following enzymes introduce negative supercoiling in prokaryotic DNA?

QUESTION ID:315

To detect infection of SARS-CoV2 in humans, RT-PCR technique is used to quantify:

QUESTION ID:316

Which cell organelle is involved in the synthesis of glycosphingolipids and glycoproteins inside the cell?

QUESTION ID:317

Actinomycin D inhibits:

QUESTION ID:318

Which of the following event occurs during the Diplonema Diplotene stage of meiosis?

QUESTION ID:319

The anti-parallel nature of double standard DNA is due to:

QUESTION ID:320

All human antibody types possess a proline-rich flexible 'hinge region' except:

QUESTION ID:321

The drug Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of:

QUESTION ID:322

Neuroglia found in peripheral nervous system (PNS) contains the following cells:

QUESTION ID:323

Hyaluronic acid is composed of:

QUESTION ID:324

Separation of two different alleles from each other during gamete formation in a heterozygote follows:

QUESTION ID:325

A lizard like reptile which is considered as a "Living fossil" is:

QUESTION ID:326

The world's only floating national park is situated in:

QUESTION ID:327

Calculate the value of median from the given data:

2.90, 3.57, 3.73, 2.98, 3.64, 3.75
3.30, 3.62, 3.76, 3.38, 3.66, 3.76

QUESTION ID:328

In the course of evolution. first horses appeared in which period?

QUESTION ID:329

Teak is a dominant tree species of which of the following types of forests in India?

QUESTION ID:330

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Food chains are short.
Reason R: There is a loss of 10% of energy at each trophic level

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:331

Which is the correct sequence of events in urine formation?

QUESTION ID:332

All of the following are amniotes except:

QUESTION ID:333

The first definitive evidence for the chromosomal theory of inheritance was provided by:

QUESTION ID:334

Carina is:

QUESTION ID:335

The egg of birds and fishes have only one small area which is free of yolk and where division takes place. Such an egg is known as:

QUESTION ID:336

Which of the hominins first migrated out of Africa?

QUESTION ID:337

The ribozyme that catalyses peptide bond formation during prokaryotic protein synthesis is:

QUESTION ID:338

Cosmid vector is made up of:

QUESTION ID:339

A population has 600 individuals. 150 of genotype AA. 300 of genotype Aa and 150 of genotype aa. What is the frequency of allele A?

QUESTION ID:340

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:341

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scurvy is a disease due to deficiency of Vitamin C.
Reason R: Scurvy is characterised by long digits and extensibility of joints.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:342

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The wing of a bird, forelimb of human and forelimb of lizard are homologous.
Reason R: Organ's underlying similarity arises due to their derivation from common ancestors.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:343

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scaffolding proteins are non-histone chromosomal proteins.
Reason R: Scaffolding proteins are abundant in lysine and Arginine.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:344

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Treatment of immunoglobulin IgG with ẞ-mercaptoethanol gives rise to two heavy chains and two light chains peptides on SDS-PAGE.
Reason R: ẞ-mercaptoethanol breaks peptide bond at the site of disulphide linkage.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:345

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Monkeys and chimpanzees cannot mate in present day conditions.
Reason R: Reproductive isolation is reversible.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:346

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with antibiotic resistance.
Reason R: Plasmodium is dependent on Hexose monophosphate shunt and reduced glutathione for their optimum growth in RBCs.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:347

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Salamanders belong to order Apoda of class Amphibia.
Reason R: The order Apoda of class Amphibia includes elongated, limbless and burrowing creatures.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:348

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Sponges are the only major phylum that lack nerves.
Statement II: The simplest nervous system occurs in platyhelminthes.

In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:349

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Messenger RNA capping. polyadenylation and splicing are coupled to transcription in eukaryotes.
Statement II: Transcription and translation are compartmentalized in prokaryotes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:350

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Transduction is virus-mediated bacterial DNA-recombination.
Statement II: Transduction is also used for bacterial gene linkage and gene mapping studies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:351

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter the citric acid cycle or combine with each other to form ketone bodies.
Statement II: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter glycolysis or combine to form glucose.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:352

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:353

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Spleen participates in the immune response against blood-borne pathogens.
Statement II: The lymph node is a highly specialized primary lymphoid organ.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:354

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Parthenogenesis plays an important role in social organization in colonies of certain bees, wasps. and ants.
Statement II: In bees, large number of males (drones) are produced parthenogenetically, whereas sterile female workers and reproductive females (queens) are produced sexually.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:355

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A circadian rhythm cannot be entrained.
Statement II: Hormone melatonin regulates circadian rhythums.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:356

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:357

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:358

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:359

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:360

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:361

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:362

Match List I with List II      (DROP)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:363

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:364

Arrange the steps involved in cloning of gene into plasmid:
A. Selection of confirmation of recombinant clones
B. Ligation of the gene of interest and plasmid
C. Amplification of the gene of interest using template DNA
D. Transformation of bacterium using the recombinant plasmid
E. Restriction endonuclease treatment of the suitable plasmid and gene of interest.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:365

The flow of water in syconoid type of water canal system in sponges follows the course of:
A. Osculum
B. Spongocoel
C. Radial canals
D. Incurrent canals
E. Dermal Ostia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:366

Choose the correct sequence involved in transcription and translation process in eukaryotes:
A. mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribosome in cytosol
B. RNA processing
C. Transcription
D. Peptic bond formation between amino acids
E. Ribosome assembly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:367

Identify the sequence in the mechanism of local inflanımatory response:
A. Presence of pathogen at the site of injury
B. Capillaries widen and become more permeable
C. Most cells release histamines
D. Entry of anti-microbial peptides at the site of injury
E. Signals released by immune cells, attract neutrophills which digest the pathogen and heals the tissue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:368

Arrange the following toxonomic categories from lower to higher level:
A. Family
B. Class
C. Kingdom
D. Order
E. Species

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:369

There are both excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. The inhibitory neurotransmitters from the following are:
A. Glycine
B. γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C. Norepinephrine
D. Taurine
E. Glutamate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:370

Following are the characteristics of Mollusc's:
A. Mollusc's are protostomes, have coelom reduced to cavities surrounding heart. nephridia and gonads.
B. Mollusc's members possess a head-foot, visceral mass. mantle and mantle cavity.
C. The rasping organ consists of muscular belt with rows of posteriorly curved teeth.
D. The molluscan body form in the cephalopoda undergoes a 180° anti-clockwise twisting of visceral mass.
E. Protostome characteristics for molluscs also include trocophore larvae spiral cleavage and schizococelous coelom formation.

Choose the set with correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:371

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:372

Teratogens are:
A. Environmental compounds that can alter development. B. Act at specific times when certain organs are farming.
C. The teratogen class includes drugs, chemicals, viruses and radiations.
D. Heavy metals such as zinc are teratogens but lead and mercury are not considered as teratogens.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:373

Proteins can be separated according to size by following techniques except:
A. Isoelectric focusing
B. SDS-PAGE
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Molecular exclusion chromatography

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:374

The following statements are associated with human female reproductive physiology.
A. The uterine cycle during menstruation includes follicular phase, ovulation and luteal phase.
B. The degeneration of corpus luteum is called luteolysis.
C. An increase in plasma progesterone level synchronises with the luteal phase.
D. After oocyte maturation, ovulation takes place.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:375

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: During gel electrophoresis. DNA moves from anode to cathode.
Reason R: DNA is negatively charged.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:376

Identify the correct statements:
A. Tumor cells differ from normal cells by changes in the regulation of growth. B. Proto-oncogenes encode defective proteins.
C. Tumor cells can display tumor-specific antigens/novel antigens.
D. Several cytokines including IFN and TNF help to mediate tumor-cell killing.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:377

Arrange the primates in order from oldest to recent in terms of evolution:
A. Old world monkeys
B. Orangutons
C. Gibbons
D. Gorillas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:378

Arrange the major thematic events of xenopus gastrulation from early to late stage.
A. Epiboly of the ectoderm around the entire embryo.
B. Extension of the body along anterior-posterior axis.
C. Formation of bottle cells and internalisation of the endoderm and mesoderm.
D. Cortical rotation and formation of grey crescent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:379

In TCA cycle, succinyl CoA synthetase is involved in the conversion of:

QUESTION ID:380

The following statements are related to sensory tissues of animals.
A. Proprioceptors are commonly called 'stretch receptors' that respond to mechanically-induced changes.
B. Certain flagellated protozoa like Euglena that contains chlorophyll possess a mass of bright red protoreceptor granules called stigma.
C. 'Neuromasts' are the primary photoreceptors in sharks, some fishes and aquatic amphibians.
D. Meissner's corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles primarily help to detect chemical stimulus in animals. E. Most reptiles possess Jacobson's (Vomeronasal) organs for olfactory reception.

Choose the set of correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:381

Autoclaving is used as a sterilisation technique. The conditions used for autoclaving are:

QUESTION ID:382

The gradient used in ultracentrifugation for fractionation of DNA is:

QUESTION ID:383

In normal cells. progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Event that occurs at G1/S checkpoint is:

QUESTION ID:384

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the GIS. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints. the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Continuously dividing cells do not exit the cell cycle but they proceed through G1, S. G2 and M phase.
Statement II: Cancer cells are unable to enter GO phase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:385

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Choose the correct statement:

QUESTION ID:386

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talır and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Western Ghats of India is one of the biodiversity hotspots.
Reason R: The criteria for categorisation as a biodiversity hotspot is high number of endemic species (at least 1500 species of vascular plants), the region must have lost 30% of its natural vegetation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:387

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Nilgiri Tahr is an:

QUESTION ID:388

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talu and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Some frogs such as poison dart frog exhibit bright coloration which serves as a warning signal for its predators. It is known as:

QUESTION ID:389

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life? 

QUESTION ID:390

Animal species should be preserved mainly because 

QUESTION ID:391

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate? 

QUESTION ID:392

Which of the following types of animals does man chiefly protect? 

QUESTION ID:393

The wild life is about to become extinct mainly because: 

QUESTION ID:394

Synonym of the word 'CELESTIAL' is: 

QUESTION ID:395

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the following options: 

India is one of the richest countries _________ the world in terms of biodiversity. Due __________ anthropogenic activities, many species have lost their habitat and even become extent. International Union _________  conservation _________ nature and natural resources has categorized with flora and fauna into eight categories. 

QUESTION ID:396

Fill in the blank with suitable word from the options given below: 

Light _________ in a straight line. 

QUESTION ID:397

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:398

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:399

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:400

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:401

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:402

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:403

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:404

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:405

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:406

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:407

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:408

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:409

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:410

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:411

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:412

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:413

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:414

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:415

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:416

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:417

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:418

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:419

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:420

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:421

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:422

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:423

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:424

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:425

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:426

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:427

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:428

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:429

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:430

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:431

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:432

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:433

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:434

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:435

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:436

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:437

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:438

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:439

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:440

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:441

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:442

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:443

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:444

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:445

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:446

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:447

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:448

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:449

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:450

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:451

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:452

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:453

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:454

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:455

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:456

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:457

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:458

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:459

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:460

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:461

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:462

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:463

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:464

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:465

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:466

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:467

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:468

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:469

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:470

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:471

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:472

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:473

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:474

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:475

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:476

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:477

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:478

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:479

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:480

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:481

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:482

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:483

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:484

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:485

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:486

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:487

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:488

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:489

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:490

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:491

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:492

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:493

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:494

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:495

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:496

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:497

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:498

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:499

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:500

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:501

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:502

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:503

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:504

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:505

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:506

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:507

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:508

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:509

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:510

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:511

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:512

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:513

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:514

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:515

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:516

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:517

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:518

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:519

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:520

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:521

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:522

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:523

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:524

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:525

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:526

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:527

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:528

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:529

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:530

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:531

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:532

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:533

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:534

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:535

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:536

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:537

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:538

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:539

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:540

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:541

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:542

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:543

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:544

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:545

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:546

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:547

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:548

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:549

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:550

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:551

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:552

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:553

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:554

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:555

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:556

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:557

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:558

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:559

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:560

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:561

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:562

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:563

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:564

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:565

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:566

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:567

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:568

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:569

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:570

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:571

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:572

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:573

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:574

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:575

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:576

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:577

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:578

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:579

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:580

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:581

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:582

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:583

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:584

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:585

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:586

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:587

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:588

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:589

Choose the appropriate one word substitute for:

A person who shows selfless concern for the well-being and happiness of others

QUESTION ID:590

My great uncle's gift of several lakh rupees was enough to AMELIORATE my financial condition. Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters

QUESTION ID:591

Choose the grammatically correct sentence:

QUESTION ID:592

choose the correctly spelt word from the given options

QUESTION ID:593

If a:b=3:5, then (-a²+b²):(a²+b²) is:

QUESTION ID:594


QUESTION ID:595

Instead of walking along two adjacent sides of a rectangular field, a boy took a short-cut along the diagonal of the field and saved a distance equal to half of the longer side. Find the ratio of the length of the shorter side to that of the longer side of the field.

QUESTION ID:596

By selling an electric iron for ₹700. a shopkeeper incurred a loss of 30%. At what price should he have sold the electric iron to gain 40%?

QUESTION ID:597

A water tank can be filled by two pipes P and Q in 60 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the empty tank if pipes P and Q are opened for first half of the time. after which only pipe Q is opened for next half of the time?

QUESTION ID:598

If AMAN equals 79, then HAPPY=?

QUESTION ID:599

Answer the question by using the below mentioned statement and conclusions.

Statement: All teachers are student
Some students are girls

Conclusions:- I. All teachers are girls.
II. Some girls are teachers.
III. Some girls are student.

QUESTION ID:600

Choose the correct alternative that will complete the pattern 0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13, ?

QUESTION ID:601

Manoj is taller than Sam but shorter than Rakesh. Rakesh is taller than Rohit but shorter than Govind. If Sam is taller than Rohit, then who is the shortest among all?

QUESTION ID:602

Introducing a man to her husband, a woman said. "His sister's father is the only son of my grandfather". How is the woman related to this man?

QUESTION ID:603

'Chor Minar' in the Hauzkhas of Delhi was constructed by

QUESTION ID:604

Match List I with List II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:605

'Jhuming' is a type of

QUESTION ID:606

A. The speed of sound is maximum in gases and minimum in solids.
B. The speed of sound remains unchanged by increase or decrease of pressure.
C. The speed of sound increases with increase of temperature of the medium.
D. The speed of sound is less in humid air than in dry air.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:607

Which music composer of India has won the prestigious Grammy Awards 2023?

QUESTION ID:608

Which of the following enzymes introduce negative supercoiling in prokaryotic DNA?

QUESTION ID:609

To detect infection of SARS-CoV2 in humans, RT-PCR technique is used to quantify:

QUESTION ID:610

Which cell organelle is involved in the synthesis of glycosphingolipids and glycoproteins inside the cell?

QUESTION ID:611

Actinomycin D inhibits:

QUESTION ID:612

Which of the following event occurs during the Diplonema Diplotene stage of meiosis?

QUESTION ID:613

The anti-parallel nature of double standard DNA is due to:

QUESTION ID:614

All human antibody types possess a proline-rich flexible 'hinge region' except:

QUESTION ID:615

The drug Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of:

QUESTION ID:616

Neuroglia found in peripheral nervous system (PNS) contains the following cells:

QUESTION ID:617

Hyaluronic acid is composed of:

QUESTION ID:618

Separation of two different alleles from each other during gamete formation in a heterozygote follows:

QUESTION ID:619

A lizard like reptile which is considered as a "Living fossil" is:

QUESTION ID:620

The world's only floating national park is situated in:

QUESTION ID:621

Calculate the value of median from the given data:

2.90, 3.57, 3.73, 2.98, 3.64, 3.75
3.30, 3.62, 3.76, 3.38, 3.66, 3.76

QUESTION ID:622

In the course of evolution. first horses appeared in which period?

QUESTION ID:623

Teak is a dominant tree species of which of the following types of forests in India?

QUESTION ID:624

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Food chains are short.
Reason R: There is a loss of 10% of energy at each trophic level

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:625

Which is the correct sequence of events in urine formation?

QUESTION ID:626

All of the following are amniotes except:

QUESTION ID:627

The first definitive evidence for the chromosomal theory of inheritance was provided by:

QUESTION ID:628

Carina is:

QUESTION ID:629

The egg of birds and fishes have only one small area which is free of yolk and where division takes place. Such an egg is known as:

QUESTION ID:630

Which of the hominins first migrated out of Africa?

QUESTION ID:631

The ribozyme that catalyses peptide bond formation during prokaryotic protein synthesis is:

QUESTION ID:632

Cosmid vector is made up of:

QUESTION ID:633

A population has 600 individuals. 150 of genotype AA. 300 of genotype Aa and 150 of genotype aa. What is the frequency of allele A?

QUESTION ID:634

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:635

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scurvy is a disease due to deficiency of Vitamin C.
Reason R: Scurvy is characterised by long digits and extensibility of joints.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:636

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The wing of a bird, forelimb of human and forelimb of lizard are homologous.
Reason R: Organ's underlying similarity arises due to their derivation from common ancestors.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:637

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scaffolding proteins are non-histone chromosomal proteins.
Reason R: Scaffolding proteins are abundant in lysine and Arginine.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:638

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Treatment of immunoglobulin IgG with ẞ-mercaptoethanol gives rise to two heavy chains and two light chains peptides on SDS-PAGE.
Reason R: ẞ-mercaptoethanol breaks peptide bond at the site of disulphide linkage.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:639

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Monkeys and chimpanzees cannot mate in present day conditions.
Reason R: Reproductive isolation is reversible.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:640

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with antibiotic resistance.
Reason R: Plasmodium is dependent on Hexose monophosphate shunt and reduced glutathione for their optimum growth in RBCs.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:641

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Salamanders belong to order Apoda of class Amphibia.
Reason R: The order Apoda of class Amphibia includes elongated, limbless and burrowing creatures.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:642

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Sponges are the only major phylum that lack nerves.
Statement II: The simplest nervous system occurs in platyhelminthes.

In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:643

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Messenger RNA capping. polyadenylation and splicing are coupled to transcription in eukaryotes.
Statement II: Transcription and translation are compartmentalized in prokaryotes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:644

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Transduction is virus-mediated bacterial DNA-recombination.
Statement II: Transduction is also used for bacterial gene linkage and gene mapping studies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:645

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter the citric acid cycle or combine with each other to form ketone bodies.
Statement II: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter glycolysis or combine to form glucose.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:646

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:647

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Spleen participates in the immune response against blood-borne pathogens.
Statement II: The lymph node is a highly specialized primary lymphoid organ.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:648

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Parthenogenesis plays an important role in social organization in colonies of certain bees, wasps. and ants.
Statement II: In bees, large number of males (drones) are produced parthenogenetically, whereas sterile female workers and reproductive females (queens) are produced sexually.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:649

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A circadian rhythm cannot be entrained.
Statement II: Hormone melatonin regulates circadian rhythums.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:650

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:651

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:652

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:653

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:654

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:655

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:656

Match List I with List II      (DROP)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:657

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:658

Arrange the steps involved in cloning of gene into plasmid:
A. Selection of confirmation of recombinant clones
B. Ligation of the gene of interest and plasmid
C. Amplification of the gene of interest using template DNA
D. Transformation of bacterium using the recombinant plasmid
E. Restriction endonuclease treatment of the suitable plasmid and gene of interest.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:659

The flow of water in syconoid type of water canal system in sponges follows the course of:
A. Osculum
B. Spongocoel
C. Radial canals
D. Incurrent canals
E. Dermal Ostia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:660

Choose the correct sequence involved in transcription and translation process in eukaryotes:
A. mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribosome in cytosol
B. RNA processing
C. Transcription
D. Peptic bond formation between amino acids
E. Ribosome assembly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:661

Identify the sequence in the mechanism of local inflanımatory response:
A. Presence of pathogen at the site of injury
B. Capillaries widen and become more permeable
C. Most cells release histamines
D. Entry of anti-microbial peptides at the site of injury
E. Signals released by immune cells, attract neutrophills which digest the pathogen and heals the tissue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:662

Arrange the following toxonomic categories from lower to higher level:
A. Family
B. Class
C. Kingdom
D. Order
E. Species

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:663

There are both excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. The inhibitory neurotransmitters from the following are:
A. Glycine
B. γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C. Norepinephrine
D. Taurine
E. Glutamate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:664

Following are the characteristics of Mollusc's:
A. Mollusc's are protostomes, have coelom reduced to cavities surrounding heart. nephridia and gonads.
B. Mollusc's members possess a head-foot, visceral mass. mantle and mantle cavity.
C. The rasping organ consists of muscular belt with rows of posteriorly curved teeth.
D. The molluscan body form in the cephalopoda undergoes a 180° anti-clockwise twisting of visceral mass.
E. Protostome characteristics for molluscs also include trocophore larvae spiral cleavage and schizococelous coelom formation.

Choose the set with correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:665

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:666

Teratogens are:
A. Environmental compounds that can alter development. B. Act at specific times when certain organs are farming.
C. The teratogen class includes drugs, chemicals, viruses and radiations.
D. Heavy metals such as zinc are teratogens but lead and mercury are not considered as teratogens.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:667

Proteins can be separated according to size by following techniques except:
A. Isoelectric focusing
B. SDS-PAGE
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Molecular exclusion chromatography

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:668

The following statements are associated with human female reproductive physiology.
A. The uterine cycle during menstruation includes follicular phase, ovulation and luteal phase.
B. The degeneration of corpus luteum is called luteolysis.
C. An increase in plasma progesterone level synchronises with the luteal phase.
D. After oocyte maturation, ovulation takes place.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:669

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: During gel electrophoresis. DNA moves from anode to cathode.
Reason R: DNA is negatively charged.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:670

Identify the correct statements:
A. Tumor cells differ from normal cells by changes in the regulation of growth. B. Proto-oncogenes encode defective proteins.
C. Tumor cells can display tumor-specific antigens/novel antigens.
D. Several cytokines including IFN and TNF help to mediate tumor-cell killing.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:671

Arrange the primates in order from oldest to recent in terms of evolution:
A. Old world monkeys
B. Orangutons
C. Gibbons
D. Gorillas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:672

Arrange the major thematic events of xenopus gastrulation from early to late stage.
A. Epiboly of the ectoderm around the entire embryo.
B. Extension of the body along anterior-posterior axis.
C. Formation of bottle cells and internalisation of the endoderm and mesoderm.
D. Cortical rotation and formation of grey crescent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:673

In TCA cycle, succinyl CoA synthetase is involved in the conversion of:

QUESTION ID:674

The following statements are related to sensory tissues of animals.
A. Proprioceptors are commonly called 'stretch receptors' that respond to mechanically-induced changes.
B. Certain flagellated protozoa like Euglena that contains chlorophyll possess a mass of bright red protoreceptor granules called stigma.
C. 'Neuromasts' are the primary photoreceptors in sharks, some fishes and aquatic amphibians.
D. Meissner's corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles primarily help to detect chemical stimulus in animals. E. Most reptiles possess Jacobson's (Vomeronasal) organs for olfactory reception.

Choose the set of correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:675

Autoclaving is used as a sterilisation technique. The conditions used for autoclaving are:

QUESTION ID:676

The gradient used in ultracentrifugation for fractionation of DNA is:

QUESTION ID:677

In normal cells. progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Event that occurs at G1/S checkpoint is:

QUESTION ID:678

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the GIS. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints. the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Continuously dividing cells do not exit the cell cycle but they proceed through G1, S. G2 and M phase.
Statement II: Cancer cells are unable to enter GO phase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:679

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Choose the correct statement:

QUESTION ID:680

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talır and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Western Ghats of India is one of the biodiversity hotspots.
Reason R: The criteria for categorisation as a biodiversity hotspot is high number of endemic species (at least 1500 species of vascular plants), the region must have lost 30% of its natural vegetation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:681

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Nilgiri Tahr is an:

QUESTION ID:682

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talu and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Some frogs such as poison dart frog exhibit bright coloration which serves as a warning signal for its predators. It is known as:

QUESTION ID:683

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life? 

QUESTION ID:684

Animal species should be preserved mainly because 

QUESTION ID:685

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate? 

QUESTION ID:686

Which of the following types of animals does man chiefly protect? 

QUESTION ID:687

The wild life is about to become extinct mainly because: 

QUESTION ID:688

Synonym of the word 'CELESTIAL' is: 

QUESTION ID:689

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the following options: 

India is one of the richest countries _________ the world in terms of biodiversity. Due __________ anthropogenic activities, many species have lost their habitat and even become extent. International Union _________  conservation _________ nature and natural resources has categorized with flora and fauna into eight categories. 

QUESTION ID:690

Fill in the blank with suitable word from the options given below: 

Light _________ in a straight line. 

QUESTION ID:691

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:692

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:693

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:694

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:695

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:696

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:697

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:698

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:699

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:700

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:701

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:702

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:703

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:704

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:705

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:706

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:707

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:708

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:709

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:710

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:711

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:712

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:713

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:714

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:715

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:716

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:717

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:718

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:719

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:720

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:721

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:722

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:723

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:724

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:725

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:726

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:727

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:728

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:729

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:730

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:731

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:732

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:733

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:734

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:735

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:736

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:737

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:738

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:739

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:740

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:741

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:742

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:743

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:744

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:745

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:746

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:747

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:748

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:749

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:750

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:751

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:752

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:753

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:754

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:755

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:756

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:757

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:758

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:759

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:760

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:761

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:762

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:763

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:764

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:765

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:766

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:767

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:768

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:769

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:770

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:771

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:772

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:773

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:774

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:775

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:776

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:777

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:778

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:779

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:780

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:781

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:782

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:783

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:784

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:785

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:786

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:787

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:788

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:789

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:790

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:791

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:792

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:793

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:794

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:795

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:796

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:797

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:798

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:799

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:800

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:801

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:802

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:803

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:804

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:805

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:806

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:807

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:808

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:809

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:810

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:811

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:812

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:813

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:814

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:815

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:816

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:817

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:818

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:819

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:820

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:821

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:822

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:823

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:824

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:825

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:826

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:827

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:828

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:829

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:830

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:831

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:832

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:833

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:834

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:835

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:836

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:837

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:838

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:839

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:840

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:841

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:842

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:843

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:844

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:845

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:846

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:847

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:848

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:849

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:850

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:851

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:852

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:853

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:854

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:855

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:856

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:857

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:858

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:859

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:860

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:861

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:862

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:863

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:864

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:865

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:866

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:867

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:868

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:869

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:870

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:871

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:872

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:873

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:874

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:875

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:876

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:877

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:878

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

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QUESTION ID:879

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

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QUESTION ID:880

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

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QUESTION ID:881

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

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QUESTION ID:882

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

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