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Previous Year Questions

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QUESTION ID:1

Match List I with List II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:2

'Jhuming' is a type of

QUESTION ID:3

A. The speed of sound is maximum in gases and minimum in solids.
B. The speed of sound remains unchanged by increase or decrease of pressure.
C. The speed of sound increases with increase of temperature of the medium.
D. The speed of sound is less in humid air than in dry air.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:4

Which music composer of India has won the prestigious Grammy Awards 2023?

QUESTION ID:5

Which of the following enzymes introduce negative supercoiling in prokaryotic DNA?

QUESTION ID:6

To detect infection of SARS-CoV2 in humans, RT-PCR technique is used to quantify:

QUESTION ID:7

Which cell organelle is involved in the synthesis of glycosphingolipids and glycoproteins inside the cell?

QUESTION ID:8

Actinomycin D inhibits:

QUESTION ID:9

Which of the following event occurs during the Diplonema Diplotene stage of meiosis?

QUESTION ID:10

The anti-parallel nature of double standard DNA is due to:

QUESTION ID:11

All human antibody types possess a proline-rich flexible 'hinge region' except:

QUESTION ID:12

The drug Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of:

QUESTION ID:13

Neuroglia found in peripheral nervous system (PNS) contains the following cells:

QUESTION ID:14

Hyaluronic acid is composed of:

QUESTION ID:15

Separation of two different alleles from each other during gamete formation in a heterozygote follows:

QUESTION ID:16

A lizard like reptile which is considered as a "Living fossil" is:

QUESTION ID:17

The world's only floating national park is situated in:

QUESTION ID:18

Calculate the value of median from the given data:

2.90, 3.57, 3.73, 2.98, 3.64, 3.75
3.30, 3.62, 3.76, 3.38, 3.66, 3.76

QUESTION ID:19

In the course of evolution. first horses appeared in which period?

QUESTION ID:20

Teak is a dominant tree species of which of the following types of forests in India?

QUESTION ID:21

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Food chains are short.
Reason R: There is a loss of 10% of energy at each trophic level

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:22

Which is the correct sequence of events in urine formation?

QUESTION ID:23

All of the following are amniotes except:

QUESTION ID:24

The first definitive evidence for the chromosomal theory of inheritance was provided by:

QUESTION ID:25

Carina is:

QUESTION ID:26

The egg of birds and fishes have only one small area which is free of yolk and where division takes place. Such an egg is known as:

QUESTION ID:27

Which of the hominins first migrated out of Africa?

QUESTION ID:28

The ribozyme that catalyses peptide bond formation during prokaryotic protein synthesis is:

QUESTION ID:29

Cosmid vector is made up of:

QUESTION ID:30

A population has 600 individuals. 150 of genotype AA. 300 of genotype Aa and 150 of genotype aa. What is the frequency of allele A?

QUESTION ID:31

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:32

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scurvy is a disease due to deficiency of Vitamin C.
Reason R: Scurvy is characterised by long digits and extensibility of joints.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:33

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The wing of a bird, forelimb of human and forelimb of lizard are homologous.
Reason R: Organ's underlying similarity arises due to their derivation from common ancestors.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:34

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scaffolding proteins are non-histone chromosomal proteins.
Reason R: Scaffolding proteins are abundant in lysine and Arginine.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:35

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Treatment of immunoglobulin IgG with ẞ-mercaptoethanol gives rise to two heavy chains and two light chains peptides on SDS-PAGE.
Reason R: ẞ-mercaptoethanol breaks peptide bond at the site of disulphide linkage.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:36

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Monkeys and chimpanzees cannot mate in present day conditions.
Reason R: Reproductive isolation is reversible.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:37

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with antibiotic resistance.
Reason R: Plasmodium is dependent on Hexose monophosphate shunt and reduced glutathione for their optimum growth in RBCs.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:38

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Salamanders belong to order Apoda of class Amphibia.
Reason R: The order Apoda of class Amphibia includes elongated, limbless and burrowing creatures.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:39

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Sponges are the only major phylum that lack nerves.
Statement II: The simplest nervous system occurs in platyhelminthes.

In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:40

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Messenger RNA capping. polyadenylation and splicing are coupled to transcription in eukaryotes.
Statement II: Transcription and translation are compartmentalized in prokaryotes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:41

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Transduction is virus-mediated bacterial DNA-recombination.
Statement II: Transduction is also used for bacterial gene linkage and gene mapping studies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:42

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter the citric acid cycle or combine with each other to form ketone bodies.
Statement II: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter glycolysis or combine to form glucose.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:43

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:44

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Spleen participates in the immune response against blood-borne pathogens.
Statement II: The lymph node is a highly specialized primary lymphoid organ.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:45

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Parthenogenesis plays an important role in social organization in colonies of certain bees, wasps. and ants.
Statement II: In bees, large number of males (drones) are produced parthenogenetically, whereas sterile female workers and reproductive females (queens) are produced sexually.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:46

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A circadian rhythm cannot be entrained.
Statement II: Hormone melatonin regulates circadian rhythums.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:47

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:48

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:49

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:50

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:51

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:52

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:53

Match List I with List II      (DROP)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:54

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:55

Arrange the steps involved in cloning of gene into plasmid:
A. Selection of confirmation of recombinant clones
B. Ligation of the gene of interest and plasmid
C. Amplification of the gene of interest using template DNA
D. Transformation of bacterium using the recombinant plasmid
E. Restriction endonuclease treatment of the suitable plasmid and gene of interest.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:56

The flow of water in syconoid type of water canal system in sponges follows the course of:
A. Osculum
B. Spongocoel
C. Radial canals
D. Incurrent canals
E. Dermal Ostia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:57

Choose the correct sequence involved in transcription and translation process in eukaryotes:
A. mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribosome in cytosol
B. RNA processing
C. Transcription
D. Peptic bond formation between amino acids
E. Ribosome assembly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:58

Identify the sequence in the mechanism of local inflanımatory response:
A. Presence of pathogen at the site of injury
B. Capillaries widen and become more permeable
C. Most cells release histamines
D. Entry of anti-microbial peptides at the site of injury
E. Signals released by immune cells, attract neutrophills which digest the pathogen and heals the tissue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:59

Arrange the following toxonomic categories from lower to higher level:
A. Family
B. Class
C. Kingdom
D. Order
E. Species

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:60

There are both excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. The inhibitory neurotransmitters from the following are:
A. Glycine
B. γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C. Norepinephrine
D. Taurine
E. Glutamate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:61

Following are the characteristics of Mollusc's:
A. Mollusc's are protostomes, have coelom reduced to cavities surrounding heart. nephridia and gonads.
B. Mollusc's members possess a head-foot, visceral mass. mantle and mantle cavity.
C. The rasping organ consists of muscular belt with rows of posteriorly curved teeth.
D. The molluscan body form in the cephalopoda undergoes a 180° anti-clockwise twisting of visceral mass.
E. Protostome characteristics for molluscs also include trocophore larvae spiral cleavage and schizococelous coelom formation.

Choose the set with correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:62

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:63

Teratogens are:
A. Environmental compounds that can alter development. B. Act at specific times when certain organs are farming.
C. The teratogen class includes drugs, chemicals, viruses and radiations.
D. Heavy metals such as zinc are teratogens but lead and mercury are not considered as teratogens.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:64

Proteins can be separated according to size by following techniques except:
A. Isoelectric focusing
B. SDS-PAGE
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Molecular exclusion chromatography

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:65

The following statements are associated with human female reproductive physiology.
A. The uterine cycle during menstruation includes follicular phase, ovulation and luteal phase.
B. The degeneration of corpus luteum is called luteolysis.
C. An increase in plasma progesterone level synchronises with the luteal phase.
D. After oocyte maturation, ovulation takes place.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:66

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: During gel electrophoresis. DNA moves from anode to cathode.
Reason R: DNA is negatively charged.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:67

Identify the correct statements:
A. Tumor cells differ from normal cells by changes in the regulation of growth. B. Proto-oncogenes encode defective proteins.
C. Tumor cells can display tumor-specific antigens/novel antigens.
D. Several cytokines including IFN and TNF help to mediate tumor-cell killing.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:68

Arrange the primates in order from oldest to recent in terms of evolution:
A. Old world monkeys
B. Orangutons
C. Gibbons
D. Gorillas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:69

Arrange the major thematic events of xenopus gastrulation from early to late stage.
A. Epiboly of the ectoderm around the entire embryo.
B. Extension of the body along anterior-posterior axis.
C. Formation of bottle cells and internalisation of the endoderm and mesoderm.
D. Cortical rotation and formation of grey crescent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:70

In TCA cycle, succinyl CoA synthetase is involved in the conversion of:

QUESTION ID:71

The following statements are related to sensory tissues of animals.
A. Proprioceptors are commonly called 'stretch receptors' that respond to mechanically-induced changes.
B. Certain flagellated protozoa like Euglena that contains chlorophyll possess a mass of bright red protoreceptor granules called stigma.
C. 'Neuromasts' are the primary photoreceptors in sharks, some fishes and aquatic amphibians.
D. Meissner's corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles primarily help to detect chemical stimulus in animals. E. Most reptiles possess Jacobson's (Vomeronasal) organs for olfactory reception.

Choose the set of correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:72

Autoclaving is used as a sterilisation technique. The conditions used for autoclaving are:

QUESTION ID:73

The gradient used in ultracentrifugation for fractionation of DNA is:

QUESTION ID:74

In normal cells. progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Event that occurs at G1/S checkpoint is:

QUESTION ID:75

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the GIS. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints. the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Continuously dividing cells do not exit the cell cycle but they proceed through G1, S. G2 and M phase.
Statement II: Cancer cells are unable to enter GO phase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:76

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Choose the correct statement:

QUESTION ID:77

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talır and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Western Ghats of India is one of the biodiversity hotspots.
Reason R: The criteria for categorisation as a biodiversity hotspot is high number of endemic species (at least 1500 species of vascular plants), the region must have lost 30% of its natural vegetation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:78

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Nilgiri Tahr is an:

QUESTION ID:79

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talu and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Some frogs such as poison dart frog exhibit bright coloration which serves as a warning signal for its predators. It is known as:

QUESTION ID:80

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life? 

QUESTION ID:81

Animal species should be preserved mainly because 

QUESTION ID:82

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate? 

QUESTION ID:83

Which of the following types of animals does man chiefly protect? 

QUESTION ID:84

The wild life is about to become extinct mainly because: 

QUESTION ID:85

Synonym of the word 'CELESTIAL' is: 

QUESTION ID:86

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the following options: 

India is one of the richest countries _________ the world in terms of biodiversity. Due __________ anthropogenic activities, many species have lost their habitat and even become extent. International Union _________  conservation _________ nature and natural resources has categorized with flora and fauna into eight categories. 

QUESTION ID:87

Fill in the blank with suitable word from the options given below: 

Light _________ in a straight line. 

QUESTION ID:88

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:89

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:90

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:91

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:92

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:93

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:94

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:95

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:96

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:97

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:98

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:99

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:100

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:101

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:102

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:103

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:104

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:105

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:106

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:107

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:108

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:109

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:110

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:111

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:112

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:113

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:114

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:115

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:116

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:117

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:118

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:119

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:120

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:121

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:122

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:123

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:124

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:125

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:126

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:127

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:128

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:129

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:130

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:131

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:132

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:133

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:134

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:135

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:136

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:137

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:138

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:139

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:140

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:141

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:142

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:143

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:144

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:145

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:146

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:147

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:148

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:149

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:150

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:151

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:152

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:153

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:154

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:155

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:156

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:157

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:158

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:159

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:160

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:161

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:162

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:163

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:164

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:165

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:166

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:167

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:168

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:169

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:170

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:171

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:172

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:173

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:174

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:175

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:176

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:177

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:178

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:179

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:180

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:181

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:182

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:183

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:184

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:185

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:186

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:187

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:188

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:189

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:190

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:191

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:192

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:193

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:194

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:195

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:196

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:197

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:198

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:199

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:200

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:201

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:202

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:203

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:204

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:205

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:206

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:207

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:208

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:209

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:210

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:211

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:212

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:213

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:214

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:215

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:216

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:217

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:218

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:219

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:220

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:221

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:222

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:223

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:224

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:225

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:226

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:227

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:228

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:229

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:230

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:231

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:232

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:233

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:234

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:235

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:236

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:237

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:238

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:239

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:240

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:241

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:242

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:243

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:244

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:245

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:246

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:247

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:248

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:249

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:250

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:251

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:252

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:253

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:254

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:255

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:256

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:257

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:258

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:259

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:260

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:261

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:262

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:263

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:264

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:265

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:266

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:267

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:268

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:269

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:270

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:271

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:272

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:273

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:274

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:275

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:276

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:277

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:278

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:279

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:280

All over the world the wild fauna has been whittled down steadily and remorselessly, and many lovely and interesting animals have been so reduced in numbers that, without protection and help, they can never re-establish themselves. If they cannot find sanctuary where they can live and breed undisturbed, their numbers will dwindle until they join the dodo, the quagga, and the great auk on the long list of extinct creatures.
Of course, in the last decade or so, much has been done for the protection of wild life: sanctuaries and reserves have been started, and the reintroduction of species into areas where it had become extinct is taking place. In Canada, for instance, beavers are now being reintroduced into certain areas by means of aeroplane.
But although much is being done, there is still a very great deal to do. Unfortunately, the majority of useful work in animal preservation has been done mainly for animals which are of some economic importance to man and there are many obscure species of no economic importance which, although they are protected on paper, are in actual fact being allowed to die out because nobody, except a few interested zoologists, considers them important enough to spend money on.
As mankind increases year by year, and as he spreads farther over the globe burning and destroying, it is some small comfort to know that there are certain private individuals and some institutions who consider that the work of trying to save and give sanctuary to these harried animals is of some importance. It is important for many reasons, but perhaps the best of them is this: man for all his genius, cannot create a species, nor can he recreate one he has destroyed. So until we consider animal life to be worthy of the consideration and reverence we bestow upon old books and pictures and historic monuments, there will always be the animal refugee living precarious life on the edge of extermination, dependent for existence on the charity of a few human beings.
Read the passage and answer the following questions:

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:281

Which of the following animal species has been saved from extinction?

QUESTION ID:282

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life?

QUESTION ID:283

Animals species should be preserved mainly because:

QUESTION ID:284

Certain species of wild life is about to become extinct mainly because:

QUESTION ID:285

Identify the correct proposition from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.

The boys equally divided the chocolates _________ themselves.

QUESTION ID:286

Identify the correct form from verb to make a meaningful sentence.

Neither of the contestants ________ to win.

QUESTION ID:287

Pick out the correctly spelt word: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:288

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given :-

Sunita is an apple of her father's eye

QUESTION ID:289

Identify the correct form of indirect speech of the following sentence.

He said, "I have been reading since morning."

QUESTION ID:290

A triangle can have:

QUESTION ID:291

If the mean of 18, 19, x, 25 and 26 is 21, then find the mean of 5, 11, 13, 19 and (3x-1):

QUESTION ID:292

Find a single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25%:

QUESTION ID:293

A man is walking at a speed of 6 km/h. After every km he takes rest for 6 minutes.
How much time will he take to cover a distance of 24 km.

QUESTION ID:294


QUESTION ID:295

Identify which of the given conclusions follows from the given statements:
Statement I : No perfume is a fragrance.
                       Some perfumes are deodorants.
                       All deodorants are cologne.
Statement II: I. At least some perfumes are colognes.
                       II. No fragrance is deodorant.

QUESTION ID:296

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A is the son of B, C, B's Sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?

QUESTION ID:297

Figure (x) is embedded in which one of the four alternatives:


QUESTION ID:298

Choose the group of letters which is different from others:

POCG, BUDX, ATRG, ZIKL, FQMV

QUESTION ID:299

Choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

Sand stone : Limestone : Coal

QUESTION ID:300

The international Court of Justice was established in the year: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:301


QUESTION ID:302

National Development Council was constituted on ________.

QUESTION ID:303

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal
Reasons (R): Maratha were the first to have a clear concept of United Nation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:304

Deepika Kumari is associated with which of the following sports?

QUESTION ID:305

False branching of thallus is observed in

QUESTION ID:306

Heterocyst a thick-walled, pale-yellow, barrel-shaped structure found in blue-green algae, helps in

QUESTION ID:307

The influenza virus carry functional surface projections called spike which contains unique enzyme known as

QUESTION ID:308

Transformation, a phenomenon responsible for recombination in microbes was discovered by

QUESTION ID:309

Rhodophyceae possesses the following unique characteristics
(A) The septa between the adjacent cells have 'pit connections'
(B) The flagellated motile stages are totally absent
(C) Red algae exhibit low degree of epiphytism and parasitism
(D) They contain water soluble phycocyanin pigment
(E) The accumulated photosynthetic product is floridean starch

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:310


QUESTION ID:311

DNA is synthesized in the cell by

QUESTION ID:312

Glycyrrhiza glabra is used in the treatment of

QUESTION ID:313

Which of the following is most acidic from the mentioned material?

QUESTION ID:314

The time interval between the formation of successive leaf primordia is termed as:

QUESTION ID:315

Glyphosate resembles phosphoenol pyruvate and inhibits the enzyme EPSP synthetase which synthesises ________.

QUESTION ID:316

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cotton and linen textiles have long durability due to cellulose's side-by-side aggregates which form molecular cables.
Reasons (R): Durability of cellulose is due to a-(1-6) glycosidic bonds.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:317

Ergotism, which is characterized by gangrene, nervous spasm, burning sensation, hallucinations and temporary 'insanity' is caused by

QUESTION ID:318

Morchella esculenta, often found growing under trees in orchards, with an edible ascocarp, belongs to the class __________.

QUESTION ID:319

Many fungi have no known sexual stages in their life-cycle. Mycologists have traditionally grouped such fungi into

QUESTION ID:320

'Covered smuts' disease in Barley is caused by

QUESTION ID:321

The advanced characters exhibited by the members of basidiomycotina include:
(A) No specialized sex organ are formed
(B) Several types of spore in the life-cycle
(C) Spores are endogenous in nature
(D) Formation of dikaryotic cells by clamp connection
(E) Presence of dolipore septa

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:322

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Gnetum is closer to angiosperms than gymonsperms.
Reasons (R): There is complete elimination of archegonia in the female gametophyte of Gnetum.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:323

Retort cells are present in

QUESTION ID:324

The cells of hydrom sheath in Polytrichum are rich in-

QUESTION ID:325

Among the following pteridophytes, the initial steps in evolutionary trend of seed development can be best seen in

QUESTION ID:326


QUESTION ID:327

Mycorrhizal fungi helps in delivery of which key ions to the plant sytem?

QUESTION ID:328

Companion cells which are located close to the sieve tube serve the same function as

QUESTION ID:329

P-proteins are associated with differentiation of

QUESTION ID:330


QUESTION ID:331

Match List I with List II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:332

'Jhuming' is a type of

QUESTION ID:333

A. The speed of sound is maximum in gases and minimum in solids.
B. The speed of sound remains unchanged by increase or decrease of pressure.
C. The speed of sound increases with increase of temperature of the medium.
D. The speed of sound is less in humid air than in dry air.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:334

Which music composer of India has won the prestigious Grammy Awards 2023?

QUESTION ID:335

Which of the following enzymes introduce negative supercoiling in prokaryotic DNA?

QUESTION ID:336

To detect infection of SARS-CoV2 in humans, RT-PCR technique is used to quantify:

QUESTION ID:337

Which cell organelle is involved in the synthesis of glycosphingolipids and glycoproteins inside the cell?

QUESTION ID:338

Actinomycin D inhibits:

QUESTION ID:339

Which of the following event occurs during the Diplonema Diplotene stage of meiosis?

QUESTION ID:340

The anti-parallel nature of double standard DNA is due to:

QUESTION ID:341

All human antibody types possess a proline-rich flexible 'hinge region' except:

QUESTION ID:342

The drug Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of:

QUESTION ID:343

Neuroglia found in peripheral nervous system (PNS) contains the following cells:

QUESTION ID:344

Hyaluronic acid is composed of:

QUESTION ID:345

Separation of two different alleles from each other during gamete formation in a heterozygote follows:

QUESTION ID:346

A lizard like reptile which is considered as a "Living fossil" is:

QUESTION ID:347

The world's only floating national park is situated in:

QUESTION ID:348

Calculate the value of median from the given data:

2.90, 3.57, 3.73, 2.98, 3.64, 3.75
3.30, 3.62, 3.76, 3.38, 3.66, 3.76

QUESTION ID:349

In the course of evolution. first horses appeared in which period?

QUESTION ID:350

Teak is a dominant tree species of which of the following types of forests in India?

QUESTION ID:351

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Food chains are short.
Reason R: There is a loss of 10% of energy at each trophic level

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:352

Which is the correct sequence of events in urine formation?

QUESTION ID:353

All of the following are amniotes except:

QUESTION ID:354

The first definitive evidence for the chromosomal theory of inheritance was provided by:

QUESTION ID:355

Carina is:

QUESTION ID:356

The egg of birds and fishes have only one small area which is free of yolk and where division takes place. Such an egg is known as:

QUESTION ID:357

Which of the hominins first migrated out of Africa?

QUESTION ID:358

The ribozyme that catalyses peptide bond formation during prokaryotic protein synthesis is:

QUESTION ID:359

Cosmid vector is made up of:

QUESTION ID:360

A population has 600 individuals. 150 of genotype AA. 300 of genotype Aa and 150 of genotype aa. What is the frequency of allele A?

QUESTION ID:361

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:362

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scurvy is a disease due to deficiency of Vitamin C.
Reason R: Scurvy is characterised by long digits and extensibility of joints.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:363

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The wing of a bird, forelimb of human and forelimb of lizard are homologous.
Reason R: Organ's underlying similarity arises due to their derivation from common ancestors.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:364

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scaffolding proteins are non-histone chromosomal proteins.
Reason R: Scaffolding proteins are abundant in lysine and Arginine.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:365

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Treatment of immunoglobulin IgG with ẞ-mercaptoethanol gives rise to two heavy chains and two light chains peptides on SDS-PAGE.
Reason R: ẞ-mercaptoethanol breaks peptide bond at the site of disulphide linkage.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:366

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Monkeys and chimpanzees cannot mate in present day conditions.
Reason R: Reproductive isolation is reversible.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:367

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with antibiotic resistance.
Reason R: Plasmodium is dependent on Hexose monophosphate shunt and reduced glutathione for their optimum growth in RBCs.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:368

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Salamanders belong to order Apoda of class Amphibia.
Reason R: The order Apoda of class Amphibia includes elongated, limbless and burrowing creatures.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:369

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Sponges are the only major phylum that lack nerves.
Statement II: The simplest nervous system occurs in platyhelminthes.

In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:370

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Messenger RNA capping. polyadenylation and splicing are coupled to transcription in eukaryotes.
Statement II: Transcription and translation are compartmentalized in prokaryotes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:371

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Transduction is virus-mediated bacterial DNA-recombination.
Statement II: Transduction is also used for bacterial gene linkage and gene mapping studies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:372

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter the citric acid cycle or combine with each other to form ketone bodies.
Statement II: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter glycolysis or combine to form glucose.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:373

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:374

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Spleen participates in the immune response against blood-borne pathogens.
Statement II: The lymph node is a highly specialized primary lymphoid organ.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:375

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Parthenogenesis plays an important role in social organization in colonies of certain bees, wasps. and ants.
Statement II: In bees, large number of males (drones) are produced parthenogenetically, whereas sterile female workers and reproductive females (queens) are produced sexually.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:376

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A circadian rhythm cannot be entrained.
Statement II: Hormone melatonin regulates circadian rhythums.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:377

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:378

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:379

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:380

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:381

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:382

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:383

Match List I with List II      (DROP)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:384

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:385

Arrange the steps involved in cloning of gene into plasmid:
A. Selection of confirmation of recombinant clones
B. Ligation of the gene of interest and plasmid
C. Amplification of the gene of interest using template DNA
D. Transformation of bacterium using the recombinant plasmid
E. Restriction endonuclease treatment of the suitable plasmid and gene of interest.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:386

The flow of water in syconoid type of water canal system in sponges follows the course of:
A. Osculum
B. Spongocoel
C. Radial canals
D. Incurrent canals
E. Dermal Ostia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:387

Choose the correct sequence involved in transcription and translation process in eukaryotes:
A. mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribosome in cytosol
B. RNA processing
C. Transcription
D. Peptic bond formation between amino acids
E. Ribosome assembly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:388

Identify the sequence in the mechanism of local inflanımatory response:
A. Presence of pathogen at the site of injury
B. Capillaries widen and become more permeable
C. Most cells release histamines
D. Entry of anti-microbial peptides at the site of injury
E. Signals released by immune cells, attract neutrophills which digest the pathogen and heals the tissue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:389

Arrange the following toxonomic categories from lower to higher level:
A. Family
B. Class
C. Kingdom
D. Order
E. Species

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:390

There are both excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. The inhibitory neurotransmitters from the following are:
A. Glycine
B. γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C. Norepinephrine
D. Taurine
E. Glutamate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:391

Following are the characteristics of Mollusc's:
A. Mollusc's are protostomes, have coelom reduced to cavities surrounding heart. nephridia and gonads.
B. Mollusc's members possess a head-foot, visceral mass. mantle and mantle cavity.
C. The rasping organ consists of muscular belt with rows of posteriorly curved teeth.
D. The molluscan body form in the cephalopoda undergoes a 180° anti-clockwise twisting of visceral mass.
E. Protostome characteristics for molluscs also include trocophore larvae spiral cleavage and schizococelous coelom formation.

Choose the set with correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:392

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:393

Teratogens are:
A. Environmental compounds that can alter development. B. Act at specific times when certain organs are farming.
C. The teratogen class includes drugs, chemicals, viruses and radiations.
D. Heavy metals such as zinc are teratogens but lead and mercury are not considered as teratogens.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:394

Proteins can be separated according to size by following techniques except:
A. Isoelectric focusing
B. SDS-PAGE
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Molecular exclusion chromatography

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:395

The following statements are associated with human female reproductive physiology.
A. The uterine cycle during menstruation includes follicular phase, ovulation and luteal phase.
B. The degeneration of corpus luteum is called luteolysis.
C. An increase in plasma progesterone level synchronises with the luteal phase.
D. After oocyte maturation, ovulation takes place.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:396

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: During gel electrophoresis. DNA moves from anode to cathode.
Reason R: DNA is negatively charged.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:397

Identify the correct statements:
A. Tumor cells differ from normal cells by changes in the regulation of growth. B. Proto-oncogenes encode defective proteins.
C. Tumor cells can display tumor-specific antigens/novel antigens.
D. Several cytokines including IFN and TNF help to mediate tumor-cell killing.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:398

Arrange the primates in order from oldest to recent in terms of evolution:
A. Old world monkeys
B. Orangutons
C. Gibbons
D. Gorillas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:399

Arrange the major thematic events of xenopus gastrulation from early to late stage.
A. Epiboly of the ectoderm around the entire embryo.
B. Extension of the body along anterior-posterior axis.
C. Formation of bottle cells and internalisation of the endoderm and mesoderm.
D. Cortical rotation and formation of grey crescent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:400

In TCA cycle, succinyl CoA synthetase is involved in the conversion of:

QUESTION ID:401

The following statements are related to sensory tissues of animals.
A. Proprioceptors are commonly called 'stretch receptors' that respond to mechanically-induced changes.
B. Certain flagellated protozoa like Euglena that contains chlorophyll possess a mass of bright red protoreceptor granules called stigma.
C. 'Neuromasts' are the primary photoreceptors in sharks, some fishes and aquatic amphibians.
D. Meissner's corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles primarily help to detect chemical stimulus in animals. E. Most reptiles possess Jacobson's (Vomeronasal) organs for olfactory reception.

Choose the set of correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:402

Autoclaving is used as a sterilisation technique. The conditions used for autoclaving are:

QUESTION ID:403

The gradient used in ultracentrifugation for fractionation of DNA is:

QUESTION ID:404

In normal cells. progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Event that occurs at G1/S checkpoint is:

QUESTION ID:405

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the GIS. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints. the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Continuously dividing cells do not exit the cell cycle but they proceed through G1, S. G2 and M phase.
Statement II: Cancer cells are unable to enter GO phase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:406

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Choose the correct statement:

QUESTION ID:407

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talır and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Western Ghats of India is one of the biodiversity hotspots.
Reason R: The criteria for categorisation as a biodiversity hotspot is high number of endemic species (at least 1500 species of vascular plants), the region must have lost 30% of its natural vegetation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:408

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Nilgiri Tahr is an:

QUESTION ID:409

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talu and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Some frogs such as poison dart frog exhibit bright coloration which serves as a warning signal for its predators. It is known as:

QUESTION ID:410

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life? 

QUESTION ID:411

Animal species should be preserved mainly because 

QUESTION ID:412

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate? 

QUESTION ID:413

Which of the following types of animals does man chiefly protect? 

QUESTION ID:414

The wild life is about to become extinct mainly because: 

QUESTION ID:415

Synonym of the word 'CELESTIAL' is: 

QUESTION ID:416

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the following options: 

India is one of the richest countries _________ the world in terms of biodiversity. Due __________ anthropogenic activities, many species have lost their habitat and even become extent. International Union _________  conservation _________ nature and natural resources has categorized with flora and fauna into eight categories. 

QUESTION ID:417

Fill in the blank with suitable word from the options given below: 

Light _________ in a straight line. 

QUESTION ID:418

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:419

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:420

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:421

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:422

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:423

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:424

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:425

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:426

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:427

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:428

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:429

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:430

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:431

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:432

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:433

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:434

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:435

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:436

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:437

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:438

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:439

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:440

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:441

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:442

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:443

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:444

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:445

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:446

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:447

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:448

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:449

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:450

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:451

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:452

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:453

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:454

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:455

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:456

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:457

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:458

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:459

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:460

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:461

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:462

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:463

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:464

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:465

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:466

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:467

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:468

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:469

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:470

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:471

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:472

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:473

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:474

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:475

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:476

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:477

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:478

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:479

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:480

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:481

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:482

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:483

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:484

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:485

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:486

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:487

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:488

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:489

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:490

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:491

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:492

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:493

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:494

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:495

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:496

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:497

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:498

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:499

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:500

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:501

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:502

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:503

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:504

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:505

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:506

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:507

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:508

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:509

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:510

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:511

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:512

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:513

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:514

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:515

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:516

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:517

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:518

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:519

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:520

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:521

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:522

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:523

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:524

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:525

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:526

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:527

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:528

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:529

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:530

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:531

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:532

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:533

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:534

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:535

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:536

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:537

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:538

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:539

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:540

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:541

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:542

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:543

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:544

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:545

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:546

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:547

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:548

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:549

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:550

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:551

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:552

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:553

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:554

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:555

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:556

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:557

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:558

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:559

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:560

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:561

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:562

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:563

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:564

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:565

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:566

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:567

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:568

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:569

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:570

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:571

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:572

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:573

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:574

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:575

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:576

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:577

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:578

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:579

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:580

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:581

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:582

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:583

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:584

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:585

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:586

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:587

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:588

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:589

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:590

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:591

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:592

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:593

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:594

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:595

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:596

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:597

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:598

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:599

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:600

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:601

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:602

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:603

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:604

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:605

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:606

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:607

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:608

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:609

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:610

All over the world the wild fauna has been whittled down steadily and remorselessly, and many lovely and interesting animals have been so reduced in numbers that, without protection and help, they can never re-establish themselves. If they cannot find sanctuary where they can live and breed undisturbed, their numbers will dwindle until they join the dodo, the quagga, and the great auk on the long list of extinct creatures.
Of course, in the last decade or so, much has been done for the protection of wild life: sanctuaries and reserves have been started, and the reintroduction of species into areas where it had become extinct is taking place. In Canada, for instance, beavers are now being reintroduced into certain areas by means of aeroplane.
But although much is being done, there is still a very great deal to do. Unfortunately, the majority of useful work in animal preservation has been done mainly for animals which are of some economic importance to man and there are many obscure species of no economic importance which, although they are protected on paper, are in actual fact being allowed to die out because nobody, except a few interested zoologists, considers them important enough to spend money on.
As mankind increases year by year, and as he spreads farther over the globe burning and destroying, it is some small comfort to know that there are certain private individuals and some institutions who consider that the work of trying to save and give sanctuary to these harried animals is of some importance. It is important for many reasons, but perhaps the best of them is this: man for all his genius, cannot create a species, nor can he recreate one he has destroyed. So until we consider animal life to be worthy of the consideration and reverence we bestow upon old books and pictures and historic monuments, there will always be the animal refugee living precarious life on the edge of extermination, dependent for existence on the charity of a few human beings.
Read the passage and answer the following questions:

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:611

Which of the following animal species has been saved from extinction?

QUESTION ID:612

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life?

QUESTION ID:613

Animals species should be preserved mainly because:

QUESTION ID:614

Certain species of wild life is about to become extinct mainly because:

QUESTION ID:615

Identify the correct proposition from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.

The boys equally divided the chocolates _________ themselves.

QUESTION ID:616

Identify the correct form from verb to make a meaningful sentence.

Neither of the contestants ________ to win.

QUESTION ID:617

Pick out the correctly spelt word: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:618

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given :-

Sunita is an apple of her father's eye

QUESTION ID:619

Identify the correct form of indirect speech of the following sentence.

He said, "I have been reading since morning."

QUESTION ID:620

A triangle can have:

QUESTION ID:621

If the mean of 18, 19, x, 25 and 26 is 21, then find the mean of 5, 11, 13, 19 and (3x-1):

QUESTION ID:622

Find a single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25%:

QUESTION ID:623

A man is walking at a speed of 6 km/h. After every km he takes rest for 6 minutes.
How much time will he take to cover a distance of 24 km.

QUESTION ID:624


QUESTION ID:625

Identify which of the given conclusions follows from the given statements:
Statement I : No perfume is a fragrance.
                       Some perfumes are deodorants.
                       All deodorants are cologne.
Statement II: I. At least some perfumes are colognes.
                       II. No fragrance is deodorant.

QUESTION ID:626

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A is the son of B, C, B's Sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?

QUESTION ID:627

Figure (x) is embedded in which one of the four alternatives:


QUESTION ID:628

Choose the group of letters which is different from others:

POCG, BUDX, ATRG, ZIKL, FQMV

QUESTION ID:629

Choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

Sand stone : Limestone : Coal

QUESTION ID:630

The international Court of Justice was established in the year: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:631


QUESTION ID:632

National Development Council was constituted on ________.

QUESTION ID:633

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal
Reasons (R): Maratha were the first to have a clear concept of United Nation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:634

Deepika Kumari is associated with which of the following sports?

QUESTION ID:635

False branching of thallus is observed in

QUESTION ID:636

Heterocyst a thick-walled, pale-yellow, barrel-shaped structure found in blue-green algae, helps in

QUESTION ID:637

The influenza virus carry functional surface projections called spike which contains unique enzyme known as

QUESTION ID:638

Transformation, a phenomenon responsible for recombination in microbes was discovered by

QUESTION ID:639

Rhodophyceae possesses the following unique characteristics
(A) The septa between the adjacent cells have 'pit connections'
(B) The flagellated motile stages are totally absent
(C) Red algae exhibit low degree of epiphytism and parasitism
(D) They contain water soluble phycocyanin pigment
(E) The accumulated photosynthetic product is floridean starch

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:640


QUESTION ID:641

DNA is synthesized in the cell by

QUESTION ID:642

Glycyrrhiza glabra is used in the treatment of

QUESTION ID:643

Which of the following is most acidic from the mentioned material?

QUESTION ID:644

The time interval between the formation of successive leaf primordia is termed as:

QUESTION ID:645

Glyphosate resembles phosphoenol pyruvate and inhibits the enzyme EPSP synthetase which synthesises ________.

QUESTION ID:646

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cotton and linen textiles have long durability due to cellulose's side-by-side aggregates which form molecular cables.
Reasons (R): Durability of cellulose is due to a-(1-6) glycosidic bonds.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:647

Ergotism, which is characterized by gangrene, nervous spasm, burning sensation, hallucinations and temporary 'insanity' is caused by

QUESTION ID:648

Morchella esculenta, often found growing under trees in orchards, with an edible ascocarp, belongs to the class __________.

QUESTION ID:649

Many fungi have no known sexual stages in their life-cycle. Mycologists have traditionally grouped such fungi into

QUESTION ID:650

'Covered smuts' disease in Barley is caused by

QUESTION ID:651

The advanced characters exhibited by the members of basidiomycotina include:
(A) No specialized sex organ are formed
(B) Several types of spore in the life-cycle
(C) Spores are endogenous in nature
(D) Formation of dikaryotic cells by clamp connection
(E) Presence of dolipore septa

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:652

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Gnetum is closer to angiosperms than gymonsperms.
Reasons (R): There is complete elimination of archegonia in the female gametophyte of Gnetum.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:653

Retort cells are present in

QUESTION ID:654

The cells of hydrom sheath in Polytrichum are rich in-

QUESTION ID:655

Among the following pteridophytes, the initial steps in evolutionary trend of seed development can be best seen in

QUESTION ID:656


QUESTION ID:657

Mycorrhizal fungi helps in delivery of which key ions to the plant sytem?

QUESTION ID:658

Companion cells which are located close to the sieve tube serve the same function as

QUESTION ID:659

P-proteins are associated with differentiation of

QUESTION ID:660


QUESTION ID:661

Match List I with List II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:662

'Jhuming' is a type of

QUESTION ID:663

A. The speed of sound is maximum in gases and minimum in solids.
B. The speed of sound remains unchanged by increase or decrease of pressure.
C. The speed of sound increases with increase of temperature of the medium.
D. The speed of sound is less in humid air than in dry air.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:664

Which music composer of India has won the prestigious Grammy Awards 2023?

QUESTION ID:665

Which of the following enzymes introduce negative supercoiling in prokaryotic DNA?

QUESTION ID:666

To detect infection of SARS-CoV2 in humans, RT-PCR technique is used to quantify:

QUESTION ID:667

Which cell organelle is involved in the synthesis of glycosphingolipids and glycoproteins inside the cell?

QUESTION ID:668

Actinomycin D inhibits:

QUESTION ID:669

Which of the following event occurs during the Diplonema Diplotene stage of meiosis?

QUESTION ID:670

The anti-parallel nature of double standard DNA is due to:

QUESTION ID:671

All human antibody types possess a proline-rich flexible 'hinge region' except:

QUESTION ID:672

The drug Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of:

QUESTION ID:673

Neuroglia found in peripheral nervous system (PNS) contains the following cells:

QUESTION ID:674

Hyaluronic acid is composed of:

QUESTION ID:675

Separation of two different alleles from each other during gamete formation in a heterozygote follows:

QUESTION ID:676

A lizard like reptile which is considered as a "Living fossil" is:

QUESTION ID:677

The world's only floating national park is situated in:

QUESTION ID:678

Calculate the value of median from the given data:

2.90, 3.57, 3.73, 2.98, 3.64, 3.75
3.30, 3.62, 3.76, 3.38, 3.66, 3.76

QUESTION ID:679

In the course of evolution. first horses appeared in which period?

QUESTION ID:680

Teak is a dominant tree species of which of the following types of forests in India?

QUESTION ID:681

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Food chains are short.
Reason R: There is a loss of 10% of energy at each trophic level

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:682

Which is the correct sequence of events in urine formation?

QUESTION ID:683

All of the following are amniotes except:

QUESTION ID:684

The first definitive evidence for the chromosomal theory of inheritance was provided by:

QUESTION ID:685

Carina is:

QUESTION ID:686

The egg of birds and fishes have only one small area which is free of yolk and where division takes place. Such an egg is known as:

QUESTION ID:687

Which of the hominins first migrated out of Africa?

QUESTION ID:688

The ribozyme that catalyses peptide bond formation during prokaryotic protein synthesis is:

QUESTION ID:689

Cosmid vector is made up of:

QUESTION ID:690

A population has 600 individuals. 150 of genotype AA. 300 of genotype Aa and 150 of genotype aa. What is the frequency of allele A?

QUESTION ID:691

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:692

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scurvy is a disease due to deficiency of Vitamin C.
Reason R: Scurvy is characterised by long digits and extensibility of joints.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:693

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The wing of a bird, forelimb of human and forelimb of lizard are homologous.
Reason R: Organ's underlying similarity arises due to their derivation from common ancestors.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:694

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scaffolding proteins are non-histone chromosomal proteins.
Reason R: Scaffolding proteins are abundant in lysine and Arginine.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:695

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Treatment of immunoglobulin IgG with ẞ-mercaptoethanol gives rise to two heavy chains and two light chains peptides on SDS-PAGE.
Reason R: ẞ-mercaptoethanol breaks peptide bond at the site of disulphide linkage.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:696

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Monkeys and chimpanzees cannot mate in present day conditions.
Reason R: Reproductive isolation is reversible.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:697

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with antibiotic resistance.
Reason R: Plasmodium is dependent on Hexose monophosphate shunt and reduced glutathione for their optimum growth in RBCs.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:698

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Salamanders belong to order Apoda of class Amphibia.
Reason R: The order Apoda of class Amphibia includes elongated, limbless and burrowing creatures.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:699

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Sponges are the only major phylum that lack nerves.
Statement II: The simplest nervous system occurs in platyhelminthes.

In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:700

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Messenger RNA capping. polyadenylation and splicing are coupled to transcription in eukaryotes.
Statement II: Transcription and translation are compartmentalized in prokaryotes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:701

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Transduction is virus-mediated bacterial DNA-recombination.
Statement II: Transduction is also used for bacterial gene linkage and gene mapping studies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:702

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter the citric acid cycle or combine with each other to form ketone bodies.
Statement II: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter glycolysis or combine to form glucose.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:703

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:704

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Spleen participates in the immune response against blood-borne pathogens.
Statement II: The lymph node is a highly specialized primary lymphoid organ.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:705

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Parthenogenesis plays an important role in social organization in colonies of certain bees, wasps. and ants.
Statement II: In bees, large number of males (drones) are produced parthenogenetically, whereas sterile female workers and reproductive females (queens) are produced sexually.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:706

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A circadian rhythm cannot be entrained.
Statement II: Hormone melatonin regulates circadian rhythums.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:707

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:708

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:709

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:710

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:711

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:712

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:713

Match List I with List II      (DROP)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:714

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:715

Arrange the steps involved in cloning of gene into plasmid:
A. Selection of confirmation of recombinant clones
B. Ligation of the gene of interest and plasmid
C. Amplification of the gene of interest using template DNA
D. Transformation of bacterium using the recombinant plasmid
E. Restriction endonuclease treatment of the suitable plasmid and gene of interest.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:716

The flow of water in syconoid type of water canal system in sponges follows the course of:
A. Osculum
B. Spongocoel
C. Radial canals
D. Incurrent canals
E. Dermal Ostia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:717

Choose the correct sequence involved in transcription and translation process in eukaryotes:
A. mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribosome in cytosol
B. RNA processing
C. Transcription
D. Peptic bond formation between amino acids
E. Ribosome assembly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:718

Identify the sequence in the mechanism of local inflanımatory response:
A. Presence of pathogen at the site of injury
B. Capillaries widen and become more permeable
C. Most cells release histamines
D. Entry of anti-microbial peptides at the site of injury
E. Signals released by immune cells, attract neutrophills which digest the pathogen and heals the tissue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:719

Arrange the following toxonomic categories from lower to higher level:
A. Family
B. Class
C. Kingdom
D. Order
E. Species

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:720

There are both excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. The inhibitory neurotransmitters from the following are:
A. Glycine
B. γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C. Norepinephrine
D. Taurine
E. Glutamate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:721

Following are the characteristics of Mollusc's:
A. Mollusc's are protostomes, have coelom reduced to cavities surrounding heart. nephridia and gonads.
B. Mollusc's members possess a head-foot, visceral mass. mantle and mantle cavity.
C. The rasping organ consists of muscular belt with rows of posteriorly curved teeth.
D. The molluscan body form in the cephalopoda undergoes a 180° anti-clockwise twisting of visceral mass.
E. Protostome characteristics for molluscs also include trocophore larvae spiral cleavage and schizococelous coelom formation.

Choose the set with correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:722

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:723

Teratogens are:
A. Environmental compounds that can alter development. B. Act at specific times when certain organs are farming.
C. The teratogen class includes drugs, chemicals, viruses and radiations.
D. Heavy metals such as zinc are teratogens but lead and mercury are not considered as teratogens.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:724

Proteins can be separated according to size by following techniques except:
A. Isoelectric focusing
B. SDS-PAGE
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Molecular exclusion chromatography

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:725

The following statements are associated with human female reproductive physiology.
A. The uterine cycle during menstruation includes follicular phase, ovulation and luteal phase.
B. The degeneration of corpus luteum is called luteolysis.
C. An increase in plasma progesterone level synchronises with the luteal phase.
D. After oocyte maturation, ovulation takes place.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:726

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: During gel electrophoresis. DNA moves from anode to cathode.
Reason R: DNA is negatively charged.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:727

Identify the correct statements:
A. Tumor cells differ from normal cells by changes in the regulation of growth. B. Proto-oncogenes encode defective proteins.
C. Tumor cells can display tumor-specific antigens/novel antigens.
D. Several cytokines including IFN and TNF help to mediate tumor-cell killing.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:728

Arrange the primates in order from oldest to recent in terms of evolution:
A. Old world monkeys
B. Orangutons
C. Gibbons
D. Gorillas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:729

Arrange the major thematic events of xenopus gastrulation from early to late stage.
A. Epiboly of the ectoderm around the entire embryo.
B. Extension of the body along anterior-posterior axis.
C. Formation of bottle cells and internalisation of the endoderm and mesoderm.
D. Cortical rotation and formation of grey crescent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:730

In TCA cycle, succinyl CoA synthetase is involved in the conversion of:

QUESTION ID:731

The following statements are related to sensory tissues of animals.
A. Proprioceptors are commonly called 'stretch receptors' that respond to mechanically-induced changes.
B. Certain flagellated protozoa like Euglena that contains chlorophyll possess a mass of bright red protoreceptor granules called stigma.
C. 'Neuromasts' are the primary photoreceptors in sharks, some fishes and aquatic amphibians.
D. Meissner's corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles primarily help to detect chemical stimulus in animals. E. Most reptiles possess Jacobson's (Vomeronasal) organs for olfactory reception.

Choose the set of correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:732

Autoclaving is used as a sterilisation technique. The conditions used for autoclaving are:

QUESTION ID:733

The gradient used in ultracentrifugation for fractionation of DNA is:

QUESTION ID:734

In normal cells. progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Event that occurs at G1/S checkpoint is:

QUESTION ID:735

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the GIS. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints. the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Continuously dividing cells do not exit the cell cycle but they proceed through G1, S. G2 and M phase.
Statement II: Cancer cells are unable to enter GO phase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:736

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Choose the correct statement:

QUESTION ID:737

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talır and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Western Ghats of India is one of the biodiversity hotspots.
Reason R: The criteria for categorisation as a biodiversity hotspot is high number of endemic species (at least 1500 species of vascular plants), the region must have lost 30% of its natural vegetation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:738

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Nilgiri Tahr is an:

QUESTION ID:739

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talu and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Some frogs such as poison dart frog exhibit bright coloration which serves as a warning signal for its predators. It is known as:

QUESTION ID:740

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life? 

QUESTION ID:741

Animal species should be preserved mainly because 

QUESTION ID:742

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate? 

QUESTION ID:743

Which of the following types of animals does man chiefly protect? 

QUESTION ID:744

The wild life is about to become extinct mainly because: 

QUESTION ID:745

Synonym of the word 'CELESTIAL' is: 

QUESTION ID:746

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the following options: 

India is one of the richest countries _________ the world in terms of biodiversity. Due __________ anthropogenic activities, many species have lost their habitat and even become extent. International Union _________  conservation _________ nature and natural resources has categorized with flora and fauna into eight categories. 

QUESTION ID:747

Fill in the blank with suitable word from the options given below: 

Light _________ in a straight line. 

QUESTION ID:748

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:749

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:750

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:751

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:752

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:753

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:754

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:755

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:756

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:757

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:758

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:759

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:760

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:761

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:762

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:763

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:764

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:765

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:766

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:767

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:768

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:769

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:770

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:771

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:772

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:773

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:774

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:775

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:776

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:777

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:778

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:779

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:780

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:781

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:782

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:783

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:784

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:785

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:786

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:787

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:788

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:789

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:790

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:791

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:792

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:793

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:794

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:795

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:796

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:797

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:798

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:799

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:800

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:801

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:802

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:803

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:804

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:805

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:806

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:807

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:808

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:809

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:810

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:811

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:812

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:813

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:814

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:815

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:816

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:817

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:818

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:819

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:820

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:821

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:822

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:823

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:824

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:825

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:826

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:827

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:828

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:829

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:830

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:831

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:832

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:833

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:834

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:835

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:836

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:837

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:838

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:839

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:840

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:841

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:842

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:843

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:844

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:845

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:846

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:847

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:848

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:849

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:850

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:851

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:852

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:853

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:854

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:855

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:856

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:857

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:858

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:859

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:860

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:861

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:862

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:863

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:864

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:865

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:866

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:867

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:868

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:869

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:870

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:871

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:872

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:873

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:874

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:875

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:876

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:877

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:878

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:879

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:880

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:881

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:882

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:883

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:884

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:885

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:886

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:887

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:888

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:889

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:890

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:891

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:892

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:893

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:894

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:895

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:896

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:897

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:898

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:899

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:900

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:901

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:902

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:903

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:904

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:905

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:906

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:907

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:908

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:909

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:910

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:911

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:912

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:913

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:914

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:915

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:916

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:917

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:918

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:919

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:920

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:921

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:922

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:923

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:924

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:925

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:926

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:927

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:928

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:929

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:930

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:931

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:932

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:933

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:934

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:935

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:936

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:937

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:938

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:939

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:940

All over the world the wild fauna has been whittled down steadily and remorselessly, and many lovely and interesting animals have been so reduced in numbers that, without protection and help, they can never re-establish themselves. If they cannot find sanctuary where they can live and breed undisturbed, their numbers will dwindle until they join the dodo, the quagga, and the great auk on the long list of extinct creatures.
Of course, in the last decade or so, much has been done for the protection of wild life: sanctuaries and reserves have been started, and the reintroduction of species into areas where it had become extinct is taking place. In Canada, for instance, beavers are now being reintroduced into certain areas by means of aeroplane.
But although much is being done, there is still a very great deal to do. Unfortunately, the majority of useful work in animal preservation has been done mainly for animals which are of some economic importance to man and there are many obscure species of no economic importance which, although they are protected on paper, are in actual fact being allowed to die out because nobody, except a few interested zoologists, considers them important enough to spend money on.
As mankind increases year by year, and as he spreads farther over the globe burning and destroying, it is some small comfort to know that there are certain private individuals and some institutions who consider that the work of trying to save and give sanctuary to these harried animals is of some importance. It is important for many reasons, but perhaps the best of them is this: man for all his genius, cannot create a species, nor can he recreate one he has destroyed. So until we consider animal life to be worthy of the consideration and reverence we bestow upon old books and pictures and historic monuments, there will always be the animal refugee living precarious life on the edge of extermination, dependent for existence on the charity of a few human beings.
Read the passage and answer the following questions:

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:941

Which of the following animal species has been saved from extinction?

QUESTION ID:942

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life?

QUESTION ID:943

Animals species should be preserved mainly because:

QUESTION ID:944

Certain species of wild life is about to become extinct mainly because:

QUESTION ID:945

Identify the correct proposition from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.

The boys equally divided the chocolates _________ themselves.

QUESTION ID:946

Identify the correct form from verb to make a meaningful sentence.

Neither of the contestants ________ to win.

QUESTION ID:947

Pick out the correctly spelt word: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:948

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given :-

Sunita is an apple of her father's eye

QUESTION ID:949

Identify the correct form of indirect speech of the following sentence.

He said, "I have been reading since morning."

QUESTION ID:950

A triangle can have:

QUESTION ID:951

If the mean of 18, 19, x, 25 and 26 is 21, then find the mean of 5, 11, 13, 19 and (3x-1):

QUESTION ID:952

Find a single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25%:

QUESTION ID:953

A man is walking at a speed of 6 km/h. After every km he takes rest for 6 minutes.
How much time will he take to cover a distance of 24 km.

QUESTION ID:954


QUESTION ID:955

Identify which of the given conclusions follows from the given statements:
Statement I : No perfume is a fragrance.
                       Some perfumes are deodorants.
                       All deodorants are cologne.
Statement II: I. At least some perfumes are colognes.
                       II. No fragrance is deodorant.

QUESTION ID:956

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A is the son of B, C, B's Sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?

QUESTION ID:957

Figure (x) is embedded in which one of the four alternatives:


QUESTION ID:958

Choose the group of letters which is different from others:

POCG, BUDX, ATRG, ZIKL, FQMV

QUESTION ID:959

Choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

Sand stone : Limestone : Coal

QUESTION ID:960

The international Court of Justice was established in the year: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:961


QUESTION ID:962

National Development Council was constituted on ________.

QUESTION ID:963

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal
Reasons (R): Maratha were the first to have a clear concept of United Nation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:964

Deepika Kumari is associated with which of the following sports?

QUESTION ID:965

False branching of thallus is observed in

QUESTION ID:966

Heterocyst a thick-walled, pale-yellow, barrel-shaped structure found in blue-green algae, helps in

QUESTION ID:967

The influenza virus carry functional surface projections called spike which contains unique enzyme known as

QUESTION ID:968

Transformation, a phenomenon responsible for recombination in microbes was discovered by

QUESTION ID:969

Rhodophyceae possesses the following unique characteristics
(A) The septa between the adjacent cells have 'pit connections'
(B) The flagellated motile stages are totally absent
(C) Red algae exhibit low degree of epiphytism and parasitism
(D) They contain water soluble phycocyanin pigment
(E) The accumulated photosynthetic product is floridean starch

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:970


QUESTION ID:971

DNA is synthesized in the cell by

QUESTION ID:972

Glycyrrhiza glabra is used in the treatment of

QUESTION ID:973

Which of the following is most acidic from the mentioned material?

QUESTION ID:974

The time interval between the formation of successive leaf primordia is termed as:

QUESTION ID:975

Glyphosate resembles phosphoenol pyruvate and inhibits the enzyme EPSP synthetase which synthesises ________.

QUESTION ID:976

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cotton and linen textiles have long durability due to cellulose's side-by-side aggregates which form molecular cables.
Reasons (R): Durability of cellulose is due to a-(1-6) glycosidic bonds.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:977

Ergotism, which is characterized by gangrene, nervous spasm, burning sensation, hallucinations and temporary 'insanity' is caused by

QUESTION ID:978

Morchella esculenta, often found growing under trees in orchards, with an edible ascocarp, belongs to the class __________.

QUESTION ID:979

Many fungi have no known sexual stages in their life-cycle. Mycologists have traditionally grouped such fungi into

QUESTION ID:980

'Covered smuts' disease in Barley is caused by

QUESTION ID:981

The advanced characters exhibited by the members of basidiomycotina include:
(A) No specialized sex organ are formed
(B) Several types of spore in the life-cycle
(C) Spores are endogenous in nature
(D) Formation of dikaryotic cells by clamp connection
(E) Presence of dolipore septa

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:982

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Gnetum is closer to angiosperms than gymonsperms.
Reasons (R): There is complete elimination of archegonia in the female gametophyte of Gnetum.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:983

Retort cells are present in

QUESTION ID:984

The cells of hydrom sheath in Polytrichum are rich in-

QUESTION ID:985

Among the following pteridophytes, the initial steps in evolutionary trend of seed development can be best seen in

QUESTION ID:986


QUESTION ID:987

Mycorrhizal fungi helps in delivery of which key ions to the plant sytem?

QUESTION ID:988

Companion cells which are located close to the sieve tube serve the same function as

QUESTION ID:989

P-proteins are associated with differentiation of

QUESTION ID:990


QUESTION ID:991

Match List I with List II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:992

'Jhuming' is a type of

QUESTION ID:993

A. The speed of sound is maximum in gases and minimum in solids.
B. The speed of sound remains unchanged by increase or decrease of pressure.
C. The speed of sound increases with increase of temperature of the medium.
D. The speed of sound is less in humid air than in dry air.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:994

Which music composer of India has won the prestigious Grammy Awards 2023?

QUESTION ID:995

Which of the following enzymes introduce negative supercoiling in prokaryotic DNA?

QUESTION ID:996

To detect infection of SARS-CoV2 in humans, RT-PCR technique is used to quantify:

QUESTION ID:997

Which cell organelle is involved in the synthesis of glycosphingolipids and glycoproteins inside the cell?

QUESTION ID:998

Actinomycin D inhibits:

QUESTION ID:999

Which of the following event occurs during the Diplonema Diplotene stage of meiosis?

QUESTION ID:1000

The anti-parallel nature of double standard DNA is due to:

QUESTION ID:1001

All human antibody types possess a proline-rich flexible 'hinge region' except:

QUESTION ID:1002

The drug Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of:

QUESTION ID:1003

Neuroglia found in peripheral nervous system (PNS) contains the following cells:

QUESTION ID:1004

Hyaluronic acid is composed of:

QUESTION ID:1005

Separation of two different alleles from each other during gamete formation in a heterozygote follows:

QUESTION ID:1006

A lizard like reptile which is considered as a "Living fossil" is:

QUESTION ID:1007

The world's only floating national park is situated in:

QUESTION ID:1008

Calculate the value of median from the given data:

2.90, 3.57, 3.73, 2.98, 3.64, 3.75
3.30, 3.62, 3.76, 3.38, 3.66, 3.76

QUESTION ID:1009

In the course of evolution. first horses appeared in which period?

QUESTION ID:1010

Teak is a dominant tree species of which of the following types of forests in India?

QUESTION ID:1011

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Food chains are short.
Reason R: There is a loss of 10% of energy at each trophic level

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1012

Which is the correct sequence of events in urine formation?

QUESTION ID:1013

All of the following are amniotes except:

QUESTION ID:1014

The first definitive evidence for the chromosomal theory of inheritance was provided by:

QUESTION ID:1015

Carina is:

QUESTION ID:1016

The egg of birds and fishes have only one small area which is free of yolk and where division takes place. Such an egg is known as:

QUESTION ID:1017

Which of the hominins first migrated out of Africa?

QUESTION ID:1018

The ribozyme that catalyses peptide bond formation during prokaryotic protein synthesis is:

QUESTION ID:1019

Cosmid vector is made up of:

QUESTION ID:1020

A population has 600 individuals. 150 of genotype AA. 300 of genotype Aa and 150 of genotype aa. What is the frequency of allele A?

QUESTION ID:1021

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1022

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scurvy is a disease due to deficiency of Vitamin C.
Reason R: Scurvy is characterised by long digits and extensibility of joints.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1023

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The wing of a bird, forelimb of human and forelimb of lizard are homologous.
Reason R: Organ's underlying similarity arises due to their derivation from common ancestors.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1024

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Scaffolding proteins are non-histone chromosomal proteins.
Reason R: Scaffolding proteins are abundant in lysine and Arginine.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1025

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Treatment of immunoglobulin IgG with ẞ-mercaptoethanol gives rise to two heavy chains and two light chains peptides on SDS-PAGE.
Reason R: ẞ-mercaptoethanol breaks peptide bond at the site of disulphide linkage.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1026

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Monkeys and chimpanzees cannot mate in present day conditions.
Reason R: Reproductive isolation is reversible.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1027

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with antibiotic resistance.
Reason R: Plasmodium is dependent on Hexose monophosphate shunt and reduced glutathione for their optimum growth in RBCs.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1028

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Salamanders belong to order Apoda of class Amphibia.
Reason R: The order Apoda of class Amphibia includes elongated, limbless and burrowing creatures.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1029

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Sponges are the only major phylum that lack nerves.
Statement II: The simplest nervous system occurs in platyhelminthes.

In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1030

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Messenger RNA capping. polyadenylation and splicing are coupled to transcription in eukaryotes.
Statement II: Transcription and translation are compartmentalized in prokaryotes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1031

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Transduction is virus-mediated bacterial DNA-recombination.
Statement II: Transduction is also used for bacterial gene linkage and gene mapping studies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1032

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter the citric acid cycle or combine with each other to form ketone bodies.
Statement II: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter glycolysis or combine to form glucose.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1033

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1034

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Spleen participates in the immune response against blood-borne pathogens.
Statement II: The lymph node is a highly specialized primary lymphoid organ.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1035

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Parthenogenesis plays an important role in social organization in colonies of certain bees, wasps. and ants.
Statement II: In bees, large number of males (drones) are produced parthenogenetically, whereas sterile female workers and reproductive females (queens) are produced sexually.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1036

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A circadian rhythm cannot be entrained.
Statement II: Hormone melatonin regulates circadian rhythums.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1037

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1038

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1039

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1040

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1041

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1042

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1043

Match List I with List II      (DROP)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1044

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1045

Arrange the steps involved in cloning of gene into plasmid:
A. Selection of confirmation of recombinant clones
B. Ligation of the gene of interest and plasmid
C. Amplification of the gene of interest using template DNA
D. Transformation of bacterium using the recombinant plasmid
E. Restriction endonuclease treatment of the suitable plasmid and gene of interest.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1046

The flow of water in syconoid type of water canal system in sponges follows the course of:
A. Osculum
B. Spongocoel
C. Radial canals
D. Incurrent canals
E. Dermal Ostia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1047

Choose the correct sequence involved in transcription and translation process in eukaryotes:
A. mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribosome in cytosol
B. RNA processing
C. Transcription
D. Peptic bond formation between amino acids
E. Ribosome assembly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1048

Identify the sequence in the mechanism of local inflanımatory response:
A. Presence of pathogen at the site of injury
B. Capillaries widen and become more permeable
C. Most cells release histamines
D. Entry of anti-microbial peptides at the site of injury
E. Signals released by immune cells, attract neutrophills which digest the pathogen and heals the tissue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1049

Arrange the following toxonomic categories from lower to higher level:
A. Family
B. Class
C. Kingdom
D. Order
E. Species

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1050

There are both excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. The inhibitory neurotransmitters from the following are:
A. Glycine
B. γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C. Norepinephrine
D. Taurine
E. Glutamate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1051

Following are the characteristics of Mollusc's:
A. Mollusc's are protostomes, have coelom reduced to cavities surrounding heart. nephridia and gonads.
B. Mollusc's members possess a head-foot, visceral mass. mantle and mantle cavity.
C. The rasping organ consists of muscular belt with rows of posteriorly curved teeth.
D. The molluscan body form in the cephalopoda undergoes a 180° anti-clockwise twisting of visceral mass.
E. Protostome characteristics for molluscs also include trocophore larvae spiral cleavage and schizococelous coelom formation.

Choose the set with correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1052

Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1053

Teratogens are:
A. Environmental compounds that can alter development. B. Act at specific times when certain organs are farming.
C. The teratogen class includes drugs, chemicals, viruses and radiations.
D. Heavy metals such as zinc are teratogens but lead and mercury are not considered as teratogens.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1054

Proteins can be separated according to size by following techniques except:
A. Isoelectric focusing
B. SDS-PAGE
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Molecular exclusion chromatography

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1055

The following statements are associated with human female reproductive physiology.
A. The uterine cycle during menstruation includes follicular phase, ovulation and luteal phase.
B. The degeneration of corpus luteum is called luteolysis.
C. An increase in plasma progesterone level synchronises with the luteal phase.
D. After oocyte maturation, ovulation takes place.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1056

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: During gel electrophoresis. DNA moves from anode to cathode.
Reason R: DNA is negatively charged.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1057

Identify the correct statements:
A. Tumor cells differ from normal cells by changes in the regulation of growth. B. Proto-oncogenes encode defective proteins.
C. Tumor cells can display tumor-specific antigens/novel antigens.
D. Several cytokines including IFN and TNF help to mediate tumor-cell killing.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1058

Arrange the primates in order from oldest to recent in terms of evolution:
A. Old world monkeys
B. Orangutons
C. Gibbons
D. Gorillas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1059

Arrange the major thematic events of xenopus gastrulation from early to late stage.
A. Epiboly of the ectoderm around the entire embryo.
B. Extension of the body along anterior-posterior axis.
C. Formation of bottle cells and internalisation of the endoderm and mesoderm.
D. Cortical rotation and formation of grey crescent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1060

In TCA cycle, succinyl CoA synthetase is involved in the conversion of:

QUESTION ID:1061

The following statements are related to sensory tissues of animals.
A. Proprioceptors are commonly called 'stretch receptors' that respond to mechanically-induced changes.
B. Certain flagellated protozoa like Euglena that contains chlorophyll possess a mass of bright red protoreceptor granules called stigma.
C. 'Neuromasts' are the primary photoreceptors in sharks, some fishes and aquatic amphibians.
D. Meissner's corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles primarily help to detect chemical stimulus in animals. E. Most reptiles possess Jacobson's (Vomeronasal) organs for olfactory reception.

Choose the set of correct statements from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1062

Autoclaving is used as a sterilisation technique. The conditions used for autoclaving are:

QUESTION ID:1063

The gradient used in ultracentrifugation for fractionation of DNA is:

QUESTION ID:1064

In normal cells. progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Event that occurs at G1/S checkpoint is:

QUESTION ID:1065

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the GIS. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints. the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Continuously dividing cells do not exit the cell cycle but they proceed through G1, S. G2 and M phase.
Statement II: Cancer cells are unable to enter GO phase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1066

In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1 S. the G2 M and M checkpoints.
In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CKDs).
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Choose the correct statement:

QUESTION ID:1067

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talır and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Western Ghats of India is one of the biodiversity hotspots.
Reason R: The criteria for categorisation as a biodiversity hotspot is high number of endemic species (at least 1500 species of vascular plants), the region must have lost 30% of its natural vegetation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1068

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Nilgiri Tahr is an:

QUESTION ID:1069

The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Talu and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations.
Based on the above context, answer the following questions:

Some frogs such as poison dart frog exhibit bright coloration which serves as a warning signal for its predators. It is known as:

QUESTION ID:1070

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life? 

QUESTION ID:1071

Animal species should be preserved mainly because 

QUESTION ID:1072

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate? 

QUESTION ID:1073

Which of the following types of animals does man chiefly protect? 

QUESTION ID:1074

The wild life is about to become extinct mainly because: 

QUESTION ID:1075

Synonym of the word 'CELESTIAL' is: 

QUESTION ID:1076

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the following options: 

India is one of the richest countries _________ the world in terms of biodiversity. Due __________ anthropogenic activities, many species have lost their habitat and even become extent. International Union _________  conservation _________ nature and natural resources has categorized with flora and fauna into eight categories. 

QUESTION ID:1077

Fill in the blank with suitable word from the options given below: 

Light _________ in a straight line. 

QUESTION ID:1078

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:1079

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:1080

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:1081

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:1082

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:1083

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:1084

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:1085

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:1086

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:1087

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:1088

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:1089

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:1090

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:1091

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1092

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:1093

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1094

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:1095

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:1096

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:1097

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:1098

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:1099

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:1100

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:1101

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:1102

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:1103

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:1104

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:1105

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:1106

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:1107

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:1108

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:1109

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:1110

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:1111

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:1112

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:1113

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:1114

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:1115

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:1116

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:1117

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:1118

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:1119

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:1120

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:1121

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:1122

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:1123

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:1124

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:1125

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:1126

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:1127

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:1128

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:1129

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:1130

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:1131

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:1132

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:1133

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:1134

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:1135

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1136

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1137

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1138

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1139

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1140

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1141

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1142

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1143

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1144

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1145

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1146

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1147

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1148

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1149

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1150

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1151

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1152

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1153

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1154

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1155

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1156

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1157

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1158

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1159

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1160

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1161

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1162

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:1163

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1164

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1165

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1166

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1167

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:1168

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1169

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1170

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:1171

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:1172

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:1173

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1174

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1175

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:1176

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:1177

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:1178

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:1179

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:1180

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:1181

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:1182

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:1183

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:1184

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:1185

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:1186

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:1187

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1188

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1189

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:1190

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:1191

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1192

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:1193

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:1194

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:1195

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:1196

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:1197

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:1198

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:1199

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:1200

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:1201

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:1202

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:1203

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:1204

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:1205

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:1206

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:1207

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:1208

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:1209

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:1210

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:1211

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:1212

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:1213

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:1214

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:1215

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:1216

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:1217

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:1218

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:1219

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:1220

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:1221

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:1222

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:1223

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:1224

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:1225

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:1226

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:1227

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:1228

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:1229

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:1230

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:1231

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:1232

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:1233

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:1234

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:1235

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1236

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1237

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1238

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1239

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1240

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1241

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1242

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1243

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1244

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1245

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1246

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1247

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1248

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1249

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1250

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1251

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1252

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1253

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1254

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1255

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1256

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1257

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1258

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1259

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1260

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1261

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1262

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1263

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1264

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1265

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1266

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:1267

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1268

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1269

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:1270

All over the world the wild fauna has been whittled down steadily and remorselessly, and many lovely and interesting animals have been so reduced in numbers that, without protection and help, they can never re-establish themselves. If they cannot find sanctuary where they can live and breed undisturbed, their numbers will dwindle until they join the dodo, the quagga, and the great auk on the long list of extinct creatures.
Of course, in the last decade or so, much has been done for the protection of wild life: sanctuaries and reserves have been started, and the reintroduction of species into areas where it had become extinct is taking place. In Canada, for instance, beavers are now being reintroduced into certain areas by means of aeroplane.
But although much is being done, there is still a very great deal to do. Unfortunately, the majority of useful work in animal preservation has been done mainly for animals which are of some economic importance to man and there are many obscure species of no economic importance which, although they are protected on paper, are in actual fact being allowed to die out because nobody, except a few interested zoologists, considers them important enough to spend money on.
As mankind increases year by year, and as he spreads farther over the globe burning and destroying, it is some small comfort to know that there are certain private individuals and some institutions who consider that the work of trying to save and give sanctuary to these harried animals is of some importance. It is important for many reasons, but perhaps the best of them is this: man for all his genius, cannot create a species, nor can he recreate one he has destroyed. So until we consider animal life to be worthy of the consideration and reverence we bestow upon old books and pictures and historic monuments, there will always be the animal refugee living precarious life on the edge of extermination, dependent for existence on the charity of a few human beings.
Read the passage and answer the following questions:

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:1271

Which of the following animal species has been saved from extinction?

QUESTION ID:1272

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life?

QUESTION ID:1273

Animals species should be preserved mainly because:

QUESTION ID:1274

Certain species of wild life is about to become extinct mainly because:

QUESTION ID:1275

Identify the correct proposition from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.

The boys equally divided the chocolates _________ themselves.

QUESTION ID:1276

Identify the correct form from verb to make a meaningful sentence.

Neither of the contestants ________ to win.

QUESTION ID:1277

Pick out the correctly spelt word: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:1278

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given :-

Sunita is an apple of her father's eye

QUESTION ID:1279

Identify the correct form of indirect speech of the following sentence.

He said, "I have been reading since morning."

QUESTION ID:1280

A triangle can have:

QUESTION ID:1281

If the mean of 18, 19, x, 25 and 26 is 21, then find the mean of 5, 11, 13, 19 and (3x-1):

QUESTION ID:1282

Find a single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25%:

QUESTION ID:1283

A man is walking at a speed of 6 km/h. After every km he takes rest for 6 minutes.
How much time will he take to cover a distance of 24 km.

QUESTION ID:1284


QUESTION ID:1285

Identify which of the given conclusions follows from the given statements:
Statement I : No perfume is a fragrance.
                       Some perfumes are deodorants.
                       All deodorants are cologne.
Statement II: I. At least some perfumes are colognes.
                       II. No fragrance is deodorant.

QUESTION ID:1286

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A is the son of B, C, B's Sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?

QUESTION ID:1287

Figure (x) is embedded in which one of the four alternatives:


QUESTION ID:1288

Choose the group of letters which is different from others:

POCG, BUDX, ATRG, ZIKL, FQMV

QUESTION ID:1289

Choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

Sand stone : Limestone : Coal

QUESTION ID:1290

The international Court of Justice was established in the year: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:1291


QUESTION ID:1292

National Development Council was constituted on ________.

QUESTION ID:1293

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal
Reasons (R): Maratha were the first to have a clear concept of United Nation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1294

Deepika Kumari is associated with which of the following sports?

QUESTION ID:1295

False branching of thallus is observed in

QUESTION ID:1296

Heterocyst a thick-walled, pale-yellow, barrel-shaped structure found in blue-green algae, helps in

QUESTION ID:1297

The influenza virus carry functional surface projections called spike which contains unique enzyme known as

QUESTION ID:1298

Transformation, a phenomenon responsible for recombination in microbes was discovered by

QUESTION ID:1299

Rhodophyceae possesses the following unique characteristics
(A) The septa between the adjacent cells have 'pit connections'
(B) The flagellated motile stages are totally absent
(C) Red algae exhibit low degree of epiphytism and parasitism
(D) They contain water soluble phycocyanin pigment
(E) The accumulated photosynthetic product is floridean starch

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1300


QUESTION ID:1301

DNA is synthesized in the cell by

QUESTION ID:1302

Glycyrrhiza glabra is used in the treatment of

QUESTION ID:1303

Which of the following is most acidic from the mentioned material?

QUESTION ID:1304

The time interval between the formation of successive leaf primordia is termed as:

QUESTION ID:1305

Glyphosate resembles phosphoenol pyruvate and inhibits the enzyme EPSP synthetase which synthesises ________.

QUESTION ID:1306

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cotton and linen textiles have long durability due to cellulose's side-by-side aggregates which form molecular cables.
Reasons (R): Durability of cellulose is due to a-(1-6) glycosidic bonds.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1307

Ergotism, which is characterized by gangrene, nervous spasm, burning sensation, hallucinations and temporary 'insanity' is caused by

QUESTION ID:1308

Morchella esculenta, often found growing under trees in orchards, with an edible ascocarp, belongs to the class __________.

QUESTION ID:1309

Many fungi have no known sexual stages in their life-cycle. Mycologists have traditionally grouped such fungi into

QUESTION ID:1310

'Covered smuts' disease in Barley is caused by

QUESTION ID:1311

The advanced characters exhibited by the members of basidiomycotina include:
(A) No specialized sex organ are formed
(B) Several types of spore in the life-cycle
(C) Spores are endogenous in nature
(D) Formation of dikaryotic cells by clamp connection
(E) Presence of dolipore septa

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1312

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Gnetum is closer to angiosperms than gymonsperms.
Reasons (R): There is complete elimination of archegonia in the female gametophyte of Gnetum.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:1313

Retort cells are present in

QUESTION ID:1314

The cells of hydrom sheath in Polytrichum are rich in-

QUESTION ID:1315

Among the following pteridophytes, the initial steps in evolutionary trend of seed development can be best seen in

QUESTION ID:1316


QUESTION ID:1317

Mycorrhizal fungi helps in delivery of which key ions to the plant sytem?

QUESTION ID:1318

Companion cells which are located close to the sieve tube serve the same function as

QUESTION ID:1319

P-proteins are associated with differentiation of

QUESTION ID:1320