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Previous Year Questions

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TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:2

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:3

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:4

Which word is not the synonym of 'Colossal'. 

QUESTION ID:5

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:6

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:7

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:8

Correct the sentence by replacing the under lined phrase: 

Those who are indecisive can be readily persuading to change their mind again. 

QUESTION ID:9

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:10

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:11

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:12

Find the value of

16 ÷ 4 x 4 - 3 + 2

QUESTION ID:13

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:14

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:15

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:16

A cardboard box of dimensions 80 cm x 60 cm × 75 cm is to be constructed. Find the cardboard required (in m²) for the box. 

QUESTION ID:17

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:18

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:19

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:20

A fruit vendor bought apples for ₹ 6,000. He sold 40% stock with 25% profit, another 40% stock with 15% profit and the rest with 10% profit. Find his profit percentage. 

QUESTION ID:21

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:22

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:23

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:24

Out of the three numbers, first number is twice of the second number and thrice of the third number. The average of their reciprocals is 1/6. The numbers are: 

QUESTION ID:25

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:26

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:27

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:28

A train running at 90 km/h crosses a 400 m long another train running towards it on parallel tracks at 80 km/h in 18 seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450 m long tunnel? 

QUESTION ID:29

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:30

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:31

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:32

A is facing the east direction. If he turns 270° he will face: 

QUESTION ID:33

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:34

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:35

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:36

The tenth term of the given series 4Z, 5Y, 6X, 7W, ________ will be: 

QUESTION ID:37

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:38

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:39

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:40

In the given figure find the value of x (O is the center of the given circle? 


QUESTION ID:41

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:42

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:43

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:44

ZOOM is coded as 138. The code 72 will be: 

QUESTION ID:45

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:46

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:47

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:48

2, 7, 14, 23, 34, __________ .
 
Complete the series choosing appropriate option: 

QUESTION ID:49

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:50

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:51

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:52

The first general election in India was held in 

QUESTION ID:53

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:54

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:55

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:56

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:57

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:58

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:59

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:60

When was Jana-Gana-Mana (which later became 'National Anthem' of India) first sung and where? 

QUESTION ID:61

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:62

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:63

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:64

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I: Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place. 
Statement II: Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian Sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at  Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:65

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:66

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:67

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:68

The gas which is present in both natural gas and bio-gas is _________. 

QUESTION ID:69

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:70

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:71

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:72

Which of the following statement is true about nucleoside? 

QUESTION ID:73

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:74

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:75

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:76

Which of the following is an amino acid? 

QUESTION ID:77

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:78

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:79

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:80

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta? 

QUESTION ID:81

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:82

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:83

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:84

What is the net charge of glutamate at pH 7? 

QUESTION ID:85

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:86

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:87

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:88

Non-active protein part of an enzyme that requires cofactor for activation is 

QUESTION ID:89

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:90

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:91

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:92

Insulin-dependent glucose uptake by adipose tissue is the result of 

QUESTION ID:93

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:94

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:95

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:96

Which of the following motor proteins is involved in intracellular transport along microtubules? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:97

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:98

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:99

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:100

Which of the following cellular organelle is involved in Tay-Sachs disease (TSD)? 

QUESTION ID:101

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:102

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:103

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:104

During DNA repair, which of the following enzymes is involved in phosphodiester bond formation? 

QUESTION ID:105

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:106

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:107

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:108

What is not true about endotoxin? (DROP) 

QUESTION ID:109

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:110

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:111

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:112

Upon re-exposure to a previous pathogen, which immune response will be most likely the fastest one? 

QUESTION ID:113

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:114

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:115

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:116

What is true about MHC class II? 

QUESTION ID:117

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:118

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:119

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:120

Patients with Galactosemia are advised not to take dairy products because 

QUESTION ID:121

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:122

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:123

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:124

Glycerol kinase is not expressed in 

QUESTION ID:125

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:126

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:127

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:128

In prolonged starvation, a minimum glucose level is maintained for supplying glucose to brain and RBCs. This is achieved by 

QUESTION ID:129

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:130

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:131

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:132

Which of the following is a cis-acting element? 

QUESTION ID:133

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:134

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:135

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:136

Oligomycin blocks the electron transport chain by 

QUESTION ID:137

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:138

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:139

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:140

How many ATP molecules are produced for each molecule of FADH2 oxidized via the respiratory chain?

QUESTION ID:141

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:142

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:143

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:144

In E. coli, pur repressor regulates the expression of more genes as compared to lac repressor because 

QUESTION ID:145

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:146

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:147

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:148

Glomerular filtration rate is determined by creatinine clearance test and inulin clearance test. Which of the following statements is true about GFR? 

QUESTION ID:149

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:150

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:151

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:152

In hepatocellular disease 

QUESTION ID:153

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:154

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:155

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:156

AST/ALT ratio is decreased in 

QUESTION ID:157

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:158

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:159

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:160

At 50% saturation, each Hb molecule has __________ bound. 

QUESTION ID:161

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:162

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:163

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:164

Internal respiration occurs in 

QUESTION ID:165

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:166

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:167

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:168

Which of the following factors affects the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? 

QUESTION ID:169

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:170

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:171

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:172

To solve the mystery of spoilage of wine, Pasteur observed yeast and bacteria in the fermented grape juice (wine). Through a series of experiments, he proved 

QUESTION ID:173

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:174

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:175

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:176

Penicillin, the first found natural antibiotic acts by 

QUESTION ID:177

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:178

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:179

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:180

Some microbes survive or grow at very high temperatures because of 

QUESTION ID:181

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:182

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:183

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:184

Who was the first scientist to prove the Germ Theory of disease? 

QUESTION ID:185

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:186

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:187

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:188

In the polarized epithelial cells of PCT of kidney, the difference in apical and basolateral membrane is maintained by 

QUESTION ID:189

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:190

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:191

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:192

If a double-stranded DNA has 30% Guanine, what will be the percentage of Adenine? 

QUESTION ID:193

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:194

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:195

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:196

Recognition sequence of Restriction Endonuclease: BamH1 is 

QUESTION ID:197

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:198

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:199

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:200

Which of the following statements is not correct? 

QUESTION ID:201

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:202

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:203

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:204

In hypothetical enzymatic reaction 


the end product C is allosteric inhibitor of Enzyme 1. C will also regulate the activity of Enzyme 1 by 

QUESTION ID:205

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:206

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:207

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:208

Which of the following elements binds to protein and forms a critical DNA binding motif? 

QUESTION ID:209

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:210

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:211

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:212

Kwashiorkor disease is linked with insufficient intake of 

QUESTION ID:213

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:214

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:215

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:216

Which of the following groups consists of only aromatic compounds? 

QUESTION ID:217

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:218

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:219

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:220

Which of the following statements is true? 

QUESTION ID:221

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:222

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:223

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:224

Molarity is a better way of expressing the concentration of solution as compared to gram percent especially 

QUESTION ID:225

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:226

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:227

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:228

Lineweaver-Burk plot of a viral enzyme in presence of two drugs is shown here. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of drugs is true? 

A. Drug A acts as competitive inhibitor. 

B. Drug B acts as competitive inhibitor. 

C. Drug A acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

D. Drug B acts as non-competitive inhibitor. 

QUESTION ID:229

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:230

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:231

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:232

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): During starvation, when ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids is predominant in liver, acetyl CoA formed  enters the citric acid cycle.
Reason (R): Acetyl CoA must combine with oxaloacetate to gain entry to the citric acid cycle. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:233

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:234

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:235

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:236

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Maternal blood O2 saturation is quite low in placenta. Even at this lower saturation, O2 is readily transferred to fetal blood. 
Reason (R): Fetal hemoglobin binds BPG less strongly, thus having higher affinity for O2 as compared to adult hemoglobin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:237

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:238

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:239

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:240

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Insulin acts on multiple tissues as compared to glucagon. 
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble and easily passes through cell membrane of target cells. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:241

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:242

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:243

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:244

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate requires energy. 
Reason (R): The energy for oxidative phosphorylation is provided by the proton gradient generated during electron transport chain. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:245

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:246

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:247

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:248

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues and does not move out of the cell. 
Reason (R): Glucokinase irreversibly phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in extrahepatic tissues. 
There are no transporters for glucose-6-phosphate and glucose gets trapped in extrahepatic tissues. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:249

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:250

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:251

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:252

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Salt is added as a preservative for storage of meat. 
Reason (R): Salt creates hypertonic environment and most bacteria cannot grow in hypertonic media. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:253

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:254

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:255

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:256

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 
Assertion (A): Restriction endonuclease cleave the foreign viral DNA inside the bacterial cell, but bacterial DNA is protected from Restriction Endonuclease attack. 
Reason (R): Bacterial DNA does not contain recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:257

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:258

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:259

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:260

Enzymes involved in urea biosynthesis from ammonia are listed below. Arrange these in order of their actions : 
A. Arginase 
B. Ornithine carbonyl transferase 
C. Argininosuccinate lyase 
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I 
E. Argininosuccinate synthetase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:261

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:262

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:263

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:264

Arrange the stages of infection process as they occur: 
A. Evasion from host defence mechanism 
B. Entry of pathogen 
C. Damage to host cell 
D. Exit from the host
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:265

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:266

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:267

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:268

Arrange the following stages of bacterial growth curve chronologically: 
A. Lag phase 
B. Stationary phase 
C. Log phase 
D. Death phase
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:269

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:270

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:271

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:272

Arrange the steps in processing and presenting of an endogenous antigen by an infected body cell as they occur: 
A. Binding of peptide fragments to MHC-I molecule 
B. Digestion of antigen into peptide fragments 
C. Synthesis of MHC-I molecules 
D. Packaging of antigen-MHC-I molecule 
E. Insertion of antigen-MHC-I complex into plasma membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:273

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:274

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:275

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:276

Gene expression is controlled at various stages written below. Arrange these stages in chronological order: 
A. Transcription 
B. Translation 
C. Post-transcription 
D. Epigenetic regulation 
E. Post-translation 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:277

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:278

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:279

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:280

Proteins involved in DNA replication are written below. Arrange them chronologically in terms of function: 
A. DNA polymerase I 
B. DNA polymerase III 
C. Helicase 
D. Ligase 
E. Primase 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:281

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:282

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:283

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:284

Arrange the following steps of cell signalling in chronological order: 
A. Reception 
B. Generation of signal 
C. Response 
D. Transduction 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:285

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:286

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:287

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:288

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Histone acetylation is generally associated with decrease in gene transcription.
Statement-II: Acetylation occurs on lysine residues in the N-terminal tails of histones. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:289

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:290

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:291

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:292

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Mutation in the middle of a gene ene that creates stop codon is called frameshift mutation. 
Statement-II: Frameshift mutation can be a point mutation. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:293

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:294

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:295

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:296

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Weak interactions like hydrogen bonds and salt bridges stabilize protein folding. 
Statement-II: Protein folding is assisted by chaperones.
 
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:297

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:298

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:299

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:300

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions. 
Statement-II: The presence of an enzyme has no effect on Keq.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:301

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:302

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:303

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:304

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: 146 base pairs of DNA are wrapped around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome. 
Statement-II: Nucleosomes play important role in gene expression.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:305

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:306

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:307

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:308

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Ammonia is produced during catabolism of amino acids in muscle cells. 
Statement-II: In muscle cells, ammonia is converted to urea and then excreted through kidney. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:309

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:310

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:311

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:312

Given below are two statements: 
Statement-I: Cyanide results in cellular hypoxia. 
Statement-II: The tight coupling of electron transport and phosphorylation is uncoupled by cyanide. 

In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:313

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:314

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:315

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:316

What is true about steroid hormones? 
A. Steroid hormones bind to specific receptors. 
B. Steroid hormones bind to DNA to control gene expression. 
C. Steroid hormones travel to distant tissues through blood.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:317

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:318

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:319

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:320

Which of the following statements is true about histones? 
A. Histones are rich in acidic amino acids. 
B. Histones are rich in basic amino acids. 
C. Histones are important for stabilizing single-stranded DNA. 
D. Histones bind to DNA to form chromatin. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:321

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:322

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:323

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:324

Resting membrane potential is conducted by 
A. active transport 
B. selective permeability of phospholipid bilayer 
C. passive diffusion across lipid bilayer 
D. differential distribution of ions across membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:325

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:326

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:327

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:328

Which of the following proteins do not belong to the group of chromoproteins? 
A. Fibroin 
B. Haemoglobin 
C. Keratin 
D. Cytochromes 
E. Flavoproteins 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:329

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:330

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:331

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:332

What information about protein can be derived most accurately from gene sequence? 
A. Primary structure of protein 
B. Function of protein 
C. Secondary structure of protein 
D. Three-dimensional structure of protein 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:333

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:334

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:335

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:336

Two proteins X (Mol wt. 20 kD, pI 6.3) and Y (Mol. wt. 90 kD, pI 6.4) can be separated by which of the following techniques? 
A. Gel filtration 
B. Ion-exchange chromatography 
C. Isoelectric focussing 
D. SDS-PAGE 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:337

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:338

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:339

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:340

Which of the following techniques can be used for analysis of gene expression? 
A. Northern blotting 
B. Southern blotting 
C. Western blotting 
D. qRTPCR 
E. RNA sequence
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 

QUESTION ID:341

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:342

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:343

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:344

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:345

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:346

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:347

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:348

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:349

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:350

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:351

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:352

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:353

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:354

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:355

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:356

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:357

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:358

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:359

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:360

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: DNA polymerase 

QUESTION ID:361

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:362

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:363

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:364

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:365

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:366

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:367

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:368

Match List I with List II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:369

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:370

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:371

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:372

A podcast Journalism essentially  (DROP)
(A) explores complicated issues 
(B) generates a compelling story 
(C) puts the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(D) puits the interviewer in an adversarial position. 
(E) demandas an indepth research. 

Choses the correct answer from the options Gien Bellow: 

QUESTION ID:373

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:374

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:375

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:376

Another term used for Podcast Journalism is the passage is: 

QUESTION ID:377

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:378

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:379

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:380

A podcast Journalist is essentially a musician as he 

QUESTION ID:381

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:382

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:383

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:384

Match the use of the word 'Beat' in list with its function in list II: 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:385

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:386

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:387

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:388

Match List I with List II: 

       List I                                   List II 

(A) Prevarication         (I) Involving conflict or opposition 

(B) Adversarial            (II) To arrange carefully far desired result 

(C) Corrival                  (III) To speak in a miskading was 

(D) Orchestrate           (IV) Chareful end friendly 


Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:389

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:390

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:391

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:392

When a film is a hit, the producer 

QUESTION ID:393

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:394

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:395

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:396

Going to someone very humbly, as it legging as ___________ going to someone. (DROP)

QUESTION ID:397

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:398

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:399

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:400

Someone is "at the end of his/her tether". They are (Choose the correct answer): 

QUESTION ID:401

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:402

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:403

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:404

An instrument used for breathing while swimming under water: 

QUESTION ID:405

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:406

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:407

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:408

Chose the correctly spelt word from the given options: 

QUESTION ID:409

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:410

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:411

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:412

Ravi and Rohan invested ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 72,000 respectively in a business. Find the ratio of these shares in the Profits. 

QUESTION ID:413

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:414

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:415

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:416

If the circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, then the ratio of their area is: 

QUESTION ID:417

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:418

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:419

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:420

On simple interest a sum of ₹ 15,800 become ₹ 21725 is 5 years. What rate of interest per annum was paid? 

QUESTION ID:421

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:422

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:423

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:424

A shop is having a sale. It sells a notebook marked at ₹50 at a discount of 12% and a pen marked at ₹30 at a discount of 15% Shekhar bought 10 notebooks and 3 pens. How much did he save due to sale 

QUESTION ID:425

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:426

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:427

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:428

3 men and 4 women can earn ₹ 3,780 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 women can earn ₹ 15,040 in 8 days. How many days will 7 men and 9 women earn ₹ 12400 

QUESTION ID:429

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:430

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:431

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:432

If 'Banana' is known as 'butter', butter is known as 'Soap', 'soup is known as 'honey', then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? (DROP)

QUESTION ID:433

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:434

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:435

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:436

If Kumar is the brother of Renu. Parsanna is the sister of Kumar. Tannu is the brother of Somya and Somya is the daughter of Renu what is the relationship between kumar and Tannu? 

QUESTION ID:437

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:438

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:439

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:440

Answer the following Question on the basis of the given statement and conclusion. 
Statement: Some bags are pockets 
No pocket is a pouch 
Conclusions   I- No bag is a pouch. 
II- Some bags are not pouch. 
III- Some pockets are bags. 
IV- No pocket is a bag 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:441

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:442

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:443

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:444

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: His recent investment in the shares of company 'XYZS' is only a gamble. 
Assumption 
I. He may incur loss on his investment 
II. He may gain from his investment. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:445

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:446

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:447

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:448

Find the next term of the series: 1, 3, 6, 18, 36, 108 ? 

QUESTION ID:449

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:450

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:451

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:452

By which constitutional Amendment, Delhi was given a Legislative Assembly? 

QUESTION ID:453

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:454

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:455

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:456

Match List I with List II: 
    List I                        List II 
Upaveda of                Deals with 
(A) Yajurveda            (I) Medicine 
(B) Samaveda           (II) Art of warfare 
(C) Atharvaveda       (III) Art and music 
(D) Rigveda               (IV) Architecture 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:457

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:458

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:459

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:460

The chemical name of laughing gas is ___________.

QUESTION ID:461

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:462

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:463

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:464

The Governor of Reserve Bank of India in Jan 2023 was: 

QUESTION ID:465

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:466

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:467

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:468

The summer 2024 summer Olympic Games will be hosted by __________.

QUESTION ID:469

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:470

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:471

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:472

Which radio isotope is used to label the 5' end of DNA or RNA? 

QUESTION ID:473

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:474

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:475

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:476

Two-dimensional electrophoresis resolve the proteins on the basis of : 

QUESTION ID:477

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:478

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:479

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:480

Differences in absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light is measured by: 

QUESTION ID:481

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:482

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:483

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:484

The radiation source in TEM (transmission electron microscopy) is: 

QUESTION ID:485

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:486

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:487

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:488

Full form of MALDI - MS is : 

QUESTION ID:489

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:490

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:491

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:492

The most distinctive feature of phylum: Echinodermata is the presence of 'Water Vascular System', which helps in : 

QUESTION ID:493

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:494

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:495

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:496

The hormone which stimulates an appetite is : 

QUESTION ID:497

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:498

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:499

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:500

Name the Nobel awardee, who provided the first direct evidence that different genes are physically Located on the same chromosome by X -linked pattern of inheritance in Drosophila.

QUESTION ID:501

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:502

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:503

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:504

What is the end product in the process of glycolysis in anaerobic and aerobic condition respectively? 

QUESTION ID:505

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:506

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:507

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:508

Which of the following secretes Progesterone hormone? 

QUESTION ID:509

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:510

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:511

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:512

Two envelope spikes in influenza virus HA & NA stands for 

QUESTION ID:513

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:514

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:515

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:516

The polar head group in sphingomyelins is composed of: 

QUESTION ID:517

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:518

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:519

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:520

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about gel electrophoresis? 

QUESTION ID:521

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:522

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:523

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:524

In Bryophytes: 

QUESTION ID:525

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:526

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:527

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:528

Self incompatibility prevents self fertilization and this mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:529

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:530

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:531

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:532

What is the composition of membrane attack complex in complement systems? 

QUESTION ID:533

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:534

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:535

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:536

Which molecule, ATP does not donate? 

QUESTION ID:537

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:538

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:539

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:540

Which microorganism produces dextran? 

QUESTION ID:541

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:542

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:543

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:544

In chloroplast, ATP generation by chemiosmosis mechanism involves: 

QUESTION ID:545

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:546

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:547

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:548

Which of the following is correct about RNA interference (CRNAI)? 

QUESTION ID:549

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:550

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:551

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:552

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of Vitamin D3 in human skin is: 

QUESTION ID:553

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:554

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:555

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:556

In photoperiodism, long day plant flowers only: 

QUESTION ID:557

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:558

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:559

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:560

Geitonogamy is a type of pollination, in which : 

QUESTION ID:561

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:562

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:563

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:564

Citronella oil is obtained from 

QUESTION ID:565

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:566

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:567

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:568

Which is not the heteropolysaccharide of extra celluer matrix in multicellular animals? 

QUESTION ID:569

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:570

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:571

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:572

Which of the following is one of the possible hazards of genetically modified (GM) crops? 

QUESTION ID:573

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:574

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:575

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:576

A nerve impulse in transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called : 

QUESTION ID:577

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:578

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:579

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:580

Application of genetic finger printing is not directly linked with: 

QUESTION ID:581

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:582

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:583

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:584

Extra nuclear genomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts have evolved from: 

QUESTION ID:585

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:586

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:587

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:588

If the template strand of a segment of a gene has the nucleotide sequence 3' - GCTAAGC - 5', What nucleotide Sequence will be present in the RNA transcript specified by this gene segment? 

QUESTION ID:589

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:590

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:591

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:592

J chain is present in: 

QUESTION ID:593

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:594

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:595

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:596

The Hardy - Weinberg equation can be used to test: 

QUESTION ID:597

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:598

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:599

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:600

In interphase cell, less compacted and highly condensed chromatin are called as: 

QUESTION ID:601

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:602

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:603

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:604

Which is not the antimicrobial peptide? 

QUESTION ID:605

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:606

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:607

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:608

The functions of telomeres is 

QUESTION ID:609

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:610

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:611

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:612

The Karyotype of individual in written as 47, XX, +21 indicating: 

QUESTION ID:613

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:614

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:615

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:616

Lampbrush chromoromes were first discovered in Salamander oocytes by: 

QUESTION ID:617

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:618

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:619

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:620

Topoisomerase II introduces the: 

QUESTION ID:621

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:622

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:623

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:624

The Sequences essential for centromete function are: 

QUESTION ID:625

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:626

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:627

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:628

The Sea anemones and corals belongs to the phylum: 

QUESTION ID:629

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:630

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:631

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:632

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Gluconse homeostasis relies predominantly on the antagonistric effects of the hormones, insulin and glucagon. 
Reasons (R): When the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, the Secretion of insulin trigger the uptake of glucose from the blood into body cells, decreasing the blood glucose concentration. When the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, the secretion of glucagon promotes the release of glucose into the blood from energy stores, such as liver glycogen, increasing the blood glucose concentration. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:633

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:634

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:635

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:636

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Constitutive hetecochromatin is the region of chromosome, that is always heterochromatic and pesmanently inactive with regard to transcription. 
Reasons (R): Facultative heterochromatin refers to chromatin that can occasionally interconvert between heterochromatin and euchromatin. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:637

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:638

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:639

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:640

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Staphylococcus auleus is gram negative bacteria. 
Reasons (R): Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Neurospora crassa are the examples of class Ascomycetes in fungi. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:641

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:642

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:643

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:644

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In tertiary structure of protein hydrophbic side chains are held interior while the hydrophilc groups are on the surface of the protein molecule. 
Reasons (R): Other than hydrogen bonds disulifide bonds (S - S), ionic interaction -(Electrostatic), hydrophobic interaction and Vander Waals forces also contribute to the tertiary structure of protein. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:645

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:646

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:647

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:648

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): PCR is a technique to ampify large quantities of a specific DNA. 
Reasons (R): PCR technique involves the following steps; renaturation, denaturation and synthesis. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:649

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:650

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:651

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:652

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes recognizes its particular recognition sequence and cut the ss DNA / ds DNA to produce cohesive and blunt fragments. 
Reasons (R): Restriction enzyme with A - base recognition will cut, on average, every 256 base pairs if all four nucleotides are present in equal proportions.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:653

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:654

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:655

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:656

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 
Assertion (A): In pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produces heterospores. 
Reasons (R): Hetrospory in pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in evolution. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:657

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:658

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:659

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:660

Write the correct sequence for compounds in citric acid cycle: 
A. Malate 
B. Fumarate 
C. Succinyl Co-A 
D. Oxaloacetate 
E. Succinate
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:661

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:662

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:663

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:664

The sequence of events taking place during Calvin cycle are: 
A. The first product of the fixation of carbon dioxide is glycerate 3 - phosphate 
B. Glycerate 3 phosphate is immediately reduced to 3 carbon sugar phosphate, triose phosphate. 
C. Conversion of glycerate 3 phosphate to triose phosphate consumes NADPH+H+ and ATP 
D. Triose phosphate is further metabolized to produce sugars 
E. Some of the triose phosphate is metabolized to produce ribulose bisphosphate. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:665

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:666

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:667

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:668

Write the different steps for water purification process of untreated water to drinking water for human use in sequence 
A. Color and precipitate removal 
B. Softening process (Ca, Mg removal) 
C. Taste and odour removal 
D. Disinfection 
E. Turbidity removal 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:669

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:670

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:671

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:672

Identify the appropriate sequence for the production of dendritic cells from hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. 
(A) Common myeloid progenitor 
(B) Monoblast 
(C) Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow 
(D) Monocytes 
(E) Dendritic cells
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:673

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:674

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:675

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:676

Identify the different levels of packing from DNA to chromosome in a sequential manner 
(A) Radial loops attached with protein scaffold 
(B) Nucleosome 
(C) Double helix DNA 
(D) Metaphase chromosome 
(E) 30 hm fiber 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:677

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:678

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:679

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:680

The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called Coelom. Which of the following is/are NOT coelomates. 
(A) Hemichordates 
(B) Chordates 
(C) Platyhelminthes 
(D) Annelids 
(E) Arthropods 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:681

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:682

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:683

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:684

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in detection of specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA: 
(A) DNA is separated by electrophoresis and visualized by staining 
(B) Filter is placed in sealed bag with solution containing radioactive probe 
(C) DNA samples are cut by Restriction Endonucleases and loaded onto gel 
(D) Filter is washed to remove excess probe and placed on X-ray film to prodce images of DNA bands 
(E) DNA binding filter papertowels and weights are placed on gel. Due to capillary action DNA fragments binds to the membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:685

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:686

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:687

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:688

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Farmation of additional coils due to twisting forces in referred to as DNA supercoiling. 
Statement II : The enzyme DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II relax positive supercoiled DNA, using energy from ATP. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:689

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:690

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:691

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:692

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Pineal gland in located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It secretes a hormone called melatonin. 
Statement II : Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cuycle, body temperature also influences metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defense capability. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:693

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:694

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:695

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:696

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Phytohormone ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs. 
Statement II The most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:697

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:698

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:699

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:700

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Gene therapy is a therapeutic technique that aims to transfer normal genes into a patient's cells 
Statement II : Gene therapy has successfully restored the cases severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:701

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:702

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:703

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:704

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron with 60 equilateral triangular faces and 20 vertices. 
Statement II : The simplest virion consists of a nucleocapsid, which is composed of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, and a protein coat called a capsid 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:705

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:706

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:707

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:708

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : Electron transport via the respiratory chain creates a proton gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP. 
Statement II : Peter Mitchell, postulates that two process are coupled by a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane so that the proton motive force caused by the electrochemical potential difference drive the production of ATP.
 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:709

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:710

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:711

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:712

Given below are two statements: 
Statement I : The Northern abd Western blotting techniques are used to size and quantify RNA and proteins molecules, respectively 
Statement Il : In blotting technique, molecules are transfered from gel to the membrane by capillary action. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:713

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:714

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:715

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:716

In diploved eukaryotie species, homologous chromosome can exchange Piece with each other a phenomenm called 
Which of the following statement are TRUE? 
(A) The crossing over event occurs during prophase of meiosis 
(B) Crossing over can change the comination of alleles along a chromosome and produce recombinant offsprings 
(C) T.H. Morgan proposed that nonpartental offersprings are producded by crossing over 
(D) Crossing over does not produce recombinant offspring 
(E) The crossing over event occurs during meiosis II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:717

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:718

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:719

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:720

Key effects of Genetic Drift are 
(A) Significant in small populations 
(B) Cause allele frequencies to charge at random 
(C) Lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations 
(D) Cause harmful alleles to become fixed 
(E) Significant in extremely large population size 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:721

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:722

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:723

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:724

What are the exampling of cytokines? 
(A) Titin 
(B) Interferons 
(C) Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) 
(D) Interleukins 
(E) Ferritin 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:725

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:726

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:727

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:728

Which one of the following is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 
(A) The cycling between inorganic (CO2) and organic carbon occurs aerobically and anaerobically by the microbes. 
(B) Biogeochemical cycle in not energised by solar energy 
(C) Phosphorus is cycled in its oxidized state, phosphate and there is no gaseous form 
(D) Methane is a green house gase of increaseing concern due to its low global warming potential 
(E) Nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur cycle have gaseous component only
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:729

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:730

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:731

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:732

Food-borne bacteria that cause acute bacterial vomitting and diarrhea 
(A) Shigella sp. 
(B) Salmonella sp 
(C) Pseudomonas aerugiora 
(D) Clostridiumn tetani 
(E) Yersinia entecolitica 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:733

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:734

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:735

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:736

Polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique for generating large quantities of a specified DNA. The essential requirement for PCR are; 
(A) A target DNA 
(B) Polymerases and ligase enzymes 
(C) Two primers and a DNA polymerase 
(D) Four deoxyribonucleotides 
(E) Nitrocellulose memberance 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:737

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:738

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:739

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:740

Which of the following is linked with ẞ-oxidation of fatty acids? 
(A) Activation of fatty acids 
(B) Break down of fatty acids in cytoplasm 
(C) Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria 
(D) ẞ - oxidation in kreb cycle 
(E) ẞ - oxidation in mitochondrial matrix
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:741

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:742

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:743

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:744

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
     List I                      List II 
(A) Withania         (I) Morphine 
(B) Papaver          (II) Quinine 
(C) Rauwolfia       (III) Aswagandha 
(D) Cinchona        (IV) Reserpine 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:745

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:746

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:747

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:748

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
       List I                                        List II 
(A) DNA ase I                         (I) Degrades single stranded DNA 
(B) RNA ase H                       (II) Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA 
(C) S1 nuclease                      (III) It produces singls stranded niculls in DNA/nicks 
(D) Terminal transferase     (IV) Degrades the RNA portion of a DNA RNA hybrid 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:749

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:750

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:751

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:752

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: (DROP)
         List I                                     List II 
(A) Hexokinase                  (I) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol phyruvate (PEP) 
(B) Pyruvate kinase          (II) Frutose 1 - 6 bisphosphate to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and DHAP 
(C) Aldolase                      (III) Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate 
(D) Enolase                       (IV) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:753

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:754

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:755

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:756

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
                  List I                                              List II 
(A) Florescence microscopy         (I) Light is the source for illumination 
(B) Darkfield microscopy              (II) Streams of electrons are deflected by an electromagnetic filed 
(C) Electron microscopy               (III) Light is scattered at boundaries between regions having different refractive indices 
(D) Light microscopy                    (IV) Tissue sections are examined under UV light, near the visible spectrum and component are recognizable by the fluorescence they emit in the visible spectrum. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

QUESTION ID:757

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:758

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:759

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:760

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
        List I                               List II 
(A) Vancomycin           (I) Bacillus subtilis 
(B) Bacitracin               (II) Streptomyces nodosus 
(C) Streptomycin         (III) Streptomyces griseus 
(D) Amphotericin         (IV) Streptomyces orientalis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:761

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:762

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:763

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:764

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
              List I                                           List II
DNA Replication Protein                 Function 
(A) DNA Polymerase III         (I) Binds to ter sequences and prevents the advancement of the replications work 
(B) DNA Polymerase I           (II) Synthesizes DNA in the leading and lagging strands 
(C) DNA ligase                       (III) Removes RNA Primers, fills in gaps with DNA.
(D) Tus                                     (IV) Covalently attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:765

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:766

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:767

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:768

Choose the correct answer from the Match List I with List II: 
    List I                                     List II 
 Phylum                             Salient features. 
(A) Porifera                    (I) Body Segmentation like Rings 
(B) Ctenophora             (II) Body with pores and canals in Walls 
(C) Platyhelminthes     (III) Comb plates for locomotion 
(D) Annelida                 (IV) Flat body, suckers. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

QUESTION ID:769

All over the world the wild fauna has been whittled down steadily and remorselessly, and many lovely and interesting animals have been so reduced in numbers that, without protection and help, they can never re-establish themselves. If they cannot find sanctuary where they can live and breed undisturbed, their numbers will dwindle until they join the dodo, the quagga, and the great auk on the long list of extinct creatures.
Of course, in the last decade or so, much has been done for the protection of wild life: sanctuaries and reserves have been started, and the reintroduction of species into areas where it had become extinct is taking place. In Canada, for instance, beavers are now being reintroduced into certain areas by means of aeroplane.
But although much is being done, there is still a very great deal to do. Unfortunately, the majority of useful work in animal preservation has been done mainly for animals which are of some economic importance to man and there are many obscure species of no economic importance which, although they are protected on paper, are in actual fact being allowed to die out because nobody, except a few interested zoologists, considers them important enough to spend money on.
As mankind increases year by year, and as he spreads farther over the globe burning and destroying, it is some small comfort to know that there are certain private individuals and some institutions who consider that the work of trying to save and give sanctuary to these harried animals is of some importance. It is important for many reasons, but perhaps the best of them is this: man for all his genius, cannot create a species, nor can he recreate one he has destroyed. So until we consider animal life to be worthy of the consideration and reverence we bestow upon old books and pictures and historic monuments, there will always be the animal refugee living precarious life on the edge of extermination, dependent for existence on the charity of a few human beings.
Read the passage and answer the following questions:

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:770

All over the world the wild fauna has been whittled down steadily and remorselessly, and many lovely and interesting animals have been so reduced in numbers that, without protection and help, they can never re-establish themselves. If they cannot find sanctuary where they can live and breed undisturbed, their numbers will dwindle until they join the dodo, the quagga, and the great auk on the long list of extinct creatures.
Of course, in the last decade or so, much has been done for the protection of wild life: sanctuaries and reserves have been started, and the reintroduction of species into areas where it had become extinct is taking place. In Canada, for instance, beavers are now being reintroduced into certain areas by means of aeroplane.
But although much is being done, there is still a very great deal to do. Unfortunately, the majority of useful work in animal preservation has been done mainly for animals which are of some economic importance to man and there are many obscure species of no economic importance which, although they are protected on paper, are in actual fact being allowed to die out because nobody, except a few interested zoologists, considers them important enough to spend money on.
As mankind increases year by year, and as he spreads farther over the globe burning and destroying, it is some small comfort to know that there are certain private individuals and some institutions who consider that the work of trying to save and give sanctuary to these harried animals is of some importance. It is important for many reasons, but perhaps the best of them is this: man for all his genius, cannot create a species, nor can he recreate one he has destroyed. So until we consider animal life to be worthy of the consideration and reverence we bestow upon old books and pictures and historic monuments, there will always be the animal refugee living precarious life on the edge of extermination, dependent for existence on the charity of a few human beings.
Read the passage and answer the following questions:

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:771

All over the world the wild fauna has been whittled down steadily and remorselessly, and many lovely and interesting animals have been so reduced in numbers that, without protection and help, they can never re-establish themselves. If they cannot find sanctuary where they can live and breed undisturbed, their numbers will dwindle until they join the dodo, the quagga, and the great auk on the long list of extinct creatures.
Of course, in the last decade or so, much has been done for the protection of wild life: sanctuaries and reserves have been started, and the reintroduction of species into areas where it had become extinct is taking place. In Canada, for instance, beavers are now being reintroduced into certain areas by means of aeroplane.
But although much is being done, there is still a very great deal to do. Unfortunately, the majority of useful work in animal preservation has been done mainly for animals which are of some economic importance to man and there are many obscure species of no economic importance which, although they are protected on paper, are in actual fact being allowed to die out because nobody, except a few interested zoologists, considers them important enough to spend money on.
As mankind increases year by year, and as he spreads farther over the globe burning and destroying, it is some small comfort to know that there are certain private individuals and some institutions who consider that the work of trying to save and give sanctuary to these harried animals is of some importance. It is important for many reasons, but perhaps the best of them is this: man for all his genius, cannot create a species, nor can he recreate one he has destroyed. So until we consider animal life to be worthy of the consideration and reverence we bestow upon old books and pictures and historic monuments, there will always be the animal refugee living precarious life on the edge of extermination, dependent for existence on the charity of a few human beings.
Read the passage and answer the following questions:

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:772

All over the world the wild fauna has been whittled down steadily and remorselessly, and many lovely and interesting animals have been so reduced in numbers that, without protection and help, they can never re-establish themselves. If they cannot find sanctuary where they can live and breed undisturbed, their numbers will dwindle until they join the dodo, the quagga, and the great auk on the long list of extinct creatures.
Of course, in the last decade or so, much has been done for the protection of wild life: sanctuaries and reserves have been started, and the reintroduction of species into areas where it had become extinct is taking place. In Canada, for instance, beavers are now being reintroduced into certain areas by means of aeroplane.
But although much is being done, there is still a very great deal to do. Unfortunately, the majority of useful work in animal preservation has been done mainly for animals which are of some economic importance to man and there are many obscure species of no economic importance which, although they are protected on paper, are in actual fact being allowed to die out because nobody, except a few interested zoologists, considers them important enough to spend money on.
As mankind increases year by year, and as he spreads farther over the globe burning and destroying, it is some small comfort to know that there are certain private individuals and some institutions who consider that the work of trying to save and give sanctuary to these harried animals is of some importance. It is important for many reasons, but perhaps the best of them is this: man for all his genius, cannot create a species, nor can he recreate one he has destroyed. So until we consider animal life to be worthy of the consideration and reverence we bestow upon old books and pictures and historic monuments, there will always be the animal refugee living precarious life on the edge of extermination, dependent for existence on the charity of a few human beings.
Read the passage and answer the following questions:

What attitude towards wild life does the author think most appropriate?

QUESTION ID:773

Which of the following animal species has been saved from extinction?

QUESTION ID:774

Which of the following animal species has been saved from extinction?

QUESTION ID:775

Which of the following animal species has been saved from extinction?

QUESTION ID:776

Which of the following animal species has been saved from extinction?

QUESTION ID:777

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life?

QUESTION ID:778

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life?

QUESTION ID:779

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life?

QUESTION ID:780

Which of the following would prove most effective in preserving wild life?

QUESTION ID:781

Animals species should be preserved mainly because:

QUESTION ID:782

Animals species should be preserved mainly because:

QUESTION ID:783

Animals species should be preserved mainly because:

QUESTION ID:784

Animals species should be preserved mainly because:

QUESTION ID:785

Certain species of wild life is about to become extinct mainly because:

QUESTION ID:786

Certain species of wild life is about to become extinct mainly because:

QUESTION ID:787

Certain species of wild life is about to become extinct mainly because:

QUESTION ID:788

Certain species of wild life is about to become extinct mainly because:

QUESTION ID:789

Identify the correct proposition from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.

The boys equally divided the chocolates _________ themselves.

QUESTION ID:790

Identify the correct proposition from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.

The boys equally divided the chocolates _________ themselves.

QUESTION ID:791

Identify the correct proposition from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.

The boys equally divided the chocolates _________ themselves.

QUESTION ID:792

Identify the correct proposition from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.

The boys equally divided the chocolates _________ themselves.

QUESTION ID:793

Identify the correct form from verb to make a meaningful sentence.

Neither of the contestants ________ to win.

QUESTION ID:794

Identify the correct form from verb to make a meaningful sentence.

Neither of the contestants ________ to win.

QUESTION ID:795

Identify the correct form from verb to make a meaningful sentence.

Neither of the contestants ________ to win.

QUESTION ID:796

Identify the correct form from verb to make a meaningful sentence.

Neither of the contestants ________ to win.

QUESTION ID:797

Pick out the correctly spelt word: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:798

Pick out the correctly spelt word: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:799

Pick out the correctly spelt word: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:800

Pick out the correctly spelt word: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:801

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given :-

Sunita is an apple of her father's eye

QUESTION ID:802

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given :-

Sunita is an apple of her father's eye

QUESTION ID:803

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given :-

Sunita is an apple of her father's eye

QUESTION ID:804

Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom from the options given :-

Sunita is an apple of her father's eye

QUESTION ID:805

Identify the correct form of indirect speech of the following sentence.

He said, "I have been reading since morning."

QUESTION ID:806

Identify the correct form of indirect speech of the following sentence.

He said, "I have been reading since morning."

QUESTION ID:807

Identify the correct form of indirect speech of the following sentence.

He said, "I have been reading since morning."

QUESTION ID:808

Identify the correct form of indirect speech of the following sentence.

He said, "I have been reading since morning."

QUESTION ID:809

A triangle can have:

QUESTION ID:810

A triangle can have:

QUESTION ID:811

A triangle can have:

QUESTION ID:812

A triangle can have:

QUESTION ID:813

If the mean of 18, 19, x, 25 and 26 is 21, then find the mean of 5, 11, 13, 19 and (3x-1):

QUESTION ID:814

If the mean of 18, 19, x, 25 and 26 is 21, then find the mean of 5, 11, 13, 19 and (3x-1):

QUESTION ID:815

If the mean of 18, 19, x, 25 and 26 is 21, then find the mean of 5, 11, 13, 19 and (3x-1):

QUESTION ID:816

If the mean of 18, 19, x, 25 and 26 is 21, then find the mean of 5, 11, 13, 19 and (3x-1):

QUESTION ID:817

Find a single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25%:

QUESTION ID:818

Find a single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25%:

QUESTION ID:819

Find a single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25%:

QUESTION ID:820

Find a single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25%:

QUESTION ID:821

A man is walking at a speed of 6 km/h. After every km he takes rest for 6 minutes.
How much time will he take to cover a distance of 24 km.

QUESTION ID:822

A man is walking at a speed of 6 km/h. After every km he takes rest for 6 minutes.
How much time will he take to cover a distance of 24 km.

QUESTION ID:823

A man is walking at a speed of 6 km/h. After every km he takes rest for 6 minutes.
How much time will he take to cover a distance of 24 km.

QUESTION ID:824

A man is walking at a speed of 6 km/h. After every km he takes rest for 6 minutes.
How much time will he take to cover a distance of 24 km.

QUESTION ID:825


QUESTION ID:826


QUESTION ID:827


QUESTION ID:828


QUESTION ID:829

Identify which of the given conclusions follows from the given statements:
Statement I : No perfume is a fragrance.
                       Some perfumes are deodorants.
                       All deodorants are cologne.
Statement II: I. At least some perfumes are colognes.
                       II. No fragrance is deodorant.

QUESTION ID:830

Identify which of the given conclusions follows from the given statements:
Statement I : No perfume is a fragrance.
                       Some perfumes are deodorants.
                       All deodorants are cologne.
Statement II: I. At least some perfumes are colognes.
                       II. No fragrance is deodorant.

QUESTION ID:831

Identify which of the given conclusions follows from the given statements:
Statement I : No perfume is a fragrance.
                       Some perfumes are deodorants.
                       All deodorants are cologne.
Statement II: I. At least some perfumes are colognes.
                       II. No fragrance is deodorant.

QUESTION ID:832

Identify which of the given conclusions follows from the given statements:
Statement I : No perfume is a fragrance.
                       Some perfumes are deodorants.
                       All deodorants are cologne.
Statement II: I. At least some perfumes are colognes.
                       II. No fragrance is deodorant.

QUESTION ID:833

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A is the son of B, C, B's Sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?

QUESTION ID:834

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A is the son of B, C, B's Sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?

QUESTION ID:835

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A is the son of B, C, B's Sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?

QUESTION ID:836

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A is the son of B, C, B's Sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?

QUESTION ID:837

Figure (x) is embedded in which one of the four alternatives:


QUESTION ID:838

Figure (x) is embedded in which one of the four alternatives:


QUESTION ID:839

Figure (x) is embedded in which one of the four alternatives:


QUESTION ID:840

Figure (x) is embedded in which one of the four alternatives:


QUESTION ID:841

Choose the group of letters which is different from others:

POCG, BUDX, ATRG, ZIKL, FQMV

QUESTION ID:842

Choose the group of letters which is different from others:

POCG, BUDX, ATRG, ZIKL, FQMV

QUESTION ID:843

Choose the group of letters which is different from others:

POCG, BUDX, ATRG, ZIKL, FQMV

QUESTION ID:844

Choose the group of letters which is different from others:

POCG, BUDX, ATRG, ZIKL, FQMV

QUESTION ID:845

Choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

Sand stone : Limestone : Coal

QUESTION ID:846

Choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

Sand stone : Limestone : Coal

QUESTION ID:847

Choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

Sand stone : Limestone : Coal

QUESTION ID:848

Choose the most appropriate description about these three words.

Sand stone : Limestone : Coal

QUESTION ID:849

The international Court of Justice was established in the year: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:850

The international Court of Justice was established in the year: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:851

The international Court of Justice was established in the year: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:852

The international Court of Justice was established in the year: (DROP)

QUESTION ID:853


QUESTION ID:854


QUESTION ID:855


QUESTION ID:856


QUESTION ID:857

National Development Council was constituted on ________.

QUESTION ID:858

National Development Council was constituted on ________.

QUESTION ID:859

National Development Council was constituted on ________.

QUESTION ID:860

National Development Council was constituted on ________.

QUESTION ID:861

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal
Reasons (R): Maratha were the first to have a clear concept of United Nation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:862

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal
Reasons (R): Maratha were the first to have a clear concept of United Nation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:863

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal
Reasons (R): Maratha were the first to have a clear concept of United Nation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:864

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal
Reasons (R): Maratha were the first to have a clear concept of United Nation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:865

Deepika Kumari is associated with which of the following sports?

QUESTION ID:866

Deepika Kumari is associated with which of the following sports?

QUESTION ID:867

Deepika Kumari is associated with which of the following sports?

QUESTION ID:868

Deepika Kumari is associated with which of the following sports?

QUESTION ID:869

False branching of thallus is observed in

QUESTION ID:870

False branching of thallus is observed in

QUESTION ID:871

False branching of thallus is observed in

QUESTION ID:872

False branching of thallus is observed in

QUESTION ID:873

Heterocyst a thick-walled, pale-yellow, barrel-shaped structure found in blue-green algae, helps in

QUESTION ID:874

Heterocyst a thick-walled, pale-yellow, barrel-shaped structure found in blue-green algae, helps in

QUESTION ID:875

Heterocyst a thick-walled, pale-yellow, barrel-shaped structure found in blue-green algae, helps in

QUESTION ID:876

Heterocyst a thick-walled, pale-yellow, barrel-shaped structure found in blue-green algae, helps in

QUESTION ID:877

The influenza virus carry functional surface projections called spike which contains unique enzyme known as

QUESTION ID:878

The influenza virus carry functional surface projections called spike which contains unique enzyme known as

QUESTION ID:879

The influenza virus carry functional surface projections called spike which contains unique enzyme known as

QUESTION ID:880

The influenza virus carry functional surface projections called spike which contains unique enzyme known as

QUESTION ID:881

Transformation, a phenomenon responsible for recombination in microbes was discovered by

QUESTION ID:882

Transformation, a phenomenon responsible for recombination in microbes was discovered by

QUESTION ID:883

Transformation, a phenomenon responsible for recombination in microbes was discovered by

QUESTION ID:884

Transformation, a phenomenon responsible for recombination in microbes was discovered by

QUESTION ID:885

Rhodophyceae possesses the following unique characteristics
(A) The septa between the adjacent cells have 'pit connections'
(B) The flagellated motile stages are totally absent
(C) Red algae exhibit low degree of epiphytism and parasitism
(D) They contain water soluble phycocyanin pigment
(E) The accumulated photosynthetic product is floridean starch

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:886

Rhodophyceae possesses the following unique characteristics
(A) The septa between the adjacent cells have 'pit connections'
(B) The flagellated motile stages are totally absent
(C) Red algae exhibit low degree of epiphytism and parasitism
(D) They contain water soluble phycocyanin pigment
(E) The accumulated photosynthetic product is floridean starch

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:887

Rhodophyceae possesses the following unique characteristics
(A) The septa between the adjacent cells have 'pit connections'
(B) The flagellated motile stages are totally absent
(C) Red algae exhibit low degree of epiphytism and parasitism
(D) They contain water soluble phycocyanin pigment
(E) The accumulated photosynthetic product is floridean starch

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:888

Rhodophyceae possesses the following unique characteristics
(A) The septa between the adjacent cells have 'pit connections'
(B) The flagellated motile stages are totally absent
(C) Red algae exhibit low degree of epiphytism and parasitism
(D) They contain water soluble phycocyanin pigment
(E) The accumulated photosynthetic product is floridean starch

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:889


QUESTION ID:890


QUESTION ID:891


QUESTION ID:892


QUESTION ID:893

DNA is synthesized in the cell by

QUESTION ID:894

DNA is synthesized in the cell by

QUESTION ID:895

DNA is synthesized in the cell by

QUESTION ID:896

DNA is synthesized in the cell by

QUESTION ID:897

Glycyrrhiza glabra is used in the treatment of

QUESTION ID:898

Glycyrrhiza glabra is used in the treatment of

QUESTION ID:899

Glycyrrhiza glabra is used in the treatment of

QUESTION ID:900

Glycyrrhiza glabra is used in the treatment of

QUESTION ID:901

Which of the following is most acidic from the mentioned material?

QUESTION ID:902

Which of the following is most acidic from the mentioned material?

QUESTION ID:903

Which of the following is most acidic from the mentioned material?

QUESTION ID:904

Which of the following is most acidic from the mentioned material?

QUESTION ID:905

The time interval between the formation of successive leaf primordia is termed as:

QUESTION ID:906

The time interval between the formation of successive leaf primordia is termed as:

QUESTION ID:907

The time interval between the formation of successive leaf primordia is termed as:

QUESTION ID:908

The time interval between the formation of successive leaf primordia is termed as:

QUESTION ID:909

Glyphosate resembles phosphoenol pyruvate and inhibits the enzyme EPSP synthetase which synthesises ________.

QUESTION ID:910

Glyphosate resembles phosphoenol pyruvate and inhibits the enzyme EPSP synthetase which synthesises ________.

QUESTION ID:911

Glyphosate resembles phosphoenol pyruvate and inhibits the enzyme EPSP synthetase which synthesises ________.

QUESTION ID:912

Glyphosate resembles phosphoenol pyruvate and inhibits the enzyme EPSP synthetase which synthesises ________.

QUESTION ID:913

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cotton and linen textiles have long durability due to cellulose's side-by-side aggregates which form molecular cables.
Reasons (R): Durability of cellulose is due to a-(1-6) glycosidic bonds.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:914

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cotton and linen textiles have long durability due to cellulose's side-by-side aggregates which form molecular cables.
Reasons (R): Durability of cellulose is due to a-(1-6) glycosidic bonds.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:915

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cotton and linen textiles have long durability due to cellulose's side-by-side aggregates which form molecular cables.
Reasons (R): Durability of cellulose is due to a-(1-6) glycosidic bonds.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:916

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Cotton and linen textiles have long durability due to cellulose's side-by-side aggregates which form molecular cables.
Reasons (R): Durability of cellulose is due to a-(1-6) glycosidic bonds.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:917

Ergotism, which is characterized by gangrene, nervous spasm, burning sensation, hallucinations and temporary 'insanity' is caused by

QUESTION ID:918

Ergotism, which is characterized by gangrene, nervous spasm, burning sensation, hallucinations and temporary 'insanity' is caused by

QUESTION ID:919

Ergotism, which is characterized by gangrene, nervous spasm, burning sensation, hallucinations and temporary 'insanity' is caused by

QUESTION ID:920

Ergotism, which is characterized by gangrene, nervous spasm, burning sensation, hallucinations and temporary 'insanity' is caused by

QUESTION ID:921

Morchella esculenta, often found growing under trees in orchards, with an edible ascocarp, belongs to the class __________.

QUESTION ID:922

Morchella esculenta, often found growing under trees in orchards, with an edible ascocarp, belongs to the class __________.

QUESTION ID:923

Morchella esculenta, often found growing under trees in orchards, with an edible ascocarp, belongs to the class __________.

QUESTION ID:924

Morchella esculenta, often found growing under trees in orchards, with an edible ascocarp, belongs to the class __________.

QUESTION ID:925

Many fungi have no known sexual stages in their life-cycle. Mycologists have traditionally grouped such fungi into

QUESTION ID:926

Many fungi have no known sexual stages in their life-cycle. Mycologists have traditionally grouped such fungi into

QUESTION ID:927

Many fungi have no known sexual stages in their life-cycle. Mycologists have traditionally grouped such fungi into

QUESTION ID:928

Many fungi have no known sexual stages in their life-cycle. Mycologists have traditionally grouped such fungi into

QUESTION ID:929

'Covered smuts' disease in Barley is caused by

QUESTION ID:930

'Covered smuts' disease in Barley is caused by

QUESTION ID:931

'Covered smuts' disease in Barley is caused by

QUESTION ID:932

'Covered smuts' disease in Barley is caused by

QUESTION ID:933

The advanced characters exhibited by the members of basidiomycotina include:
(A) No specialized sex organ are formed
(B) Several types of spore in the life-cycle
(C) Spores are endogenous in nature
(D) Formation of dikaryotic cells by clamp connection
(E) Presence of dolipore septa

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:934

The advanced characters exhibited by the members of basidiomycotina include:
(A) No specialized sex organ are formed
(B) Several types of spore in the life-cycle
(C) Spores are endogenous in nature
(D) Formation of dikaryotic cells by clamp connection
(E) Presence of dolipore septa

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:935

The advanced characters exhibited by the members of basidiomycotina include:
(A) No specialized sex organ are formed
(B) Several types of spore in the life-cycle
(C) Spores are endogenous in nature
(D) Formation of dikaryotic cells by clamp connection
(E) Presence of dolipore septa

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:936

The advanced characters exhibited by the members of basidiomycotina include:
(A) No specialized sex organ are formed
(B) Several types of spore in the life-cycle
(C) Spores are endogenous in nature
(D) Formation of dikaryotic cells by clamp connection
(E) Presence of dolipore septa

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:937

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Gnetum is closer to angiosperms than gymonsperms.
Reasons (R): There is complete elimination of archegonia in the female gametophyte of Gnetum.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:938

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Gnetum is closer to angiosperms than gymonsperms.
Reasons (R): There is complete elimination of archegonia in the female gametophyte of Gnetum.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:939

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Gnetum is closer to angiosperms than gymonsperms.
Reasons (R): There is complete elimination of archegonia in the female gametophyte of Gnetum.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:940

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Gnetum is closer to angiosperms than gymonsperms.
Reasons (R): There is complete elimination of archegonia in the female gametophyte of Gnetum.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

QUESTION ID:941

Retort cells are present in

QUESTION ID:942

Retort cells are present in

QUESTION ID:943

Retort cells are present in

QUESTION ID:944

Retort cells are present in

QUESTION ID:945

The cells of hydrom sheath in Polytrichum are rich in-

QUESTION ID:946

The cells of hydrom sheath in Polytrichum are rich in-

QUESTION ID:947

The cells of hydrom sheath in Polytrichum are rich in-

QUESTION ID:948

The cells of hydrom sheath in Polytrichum are rich in-

QUESTION ID:949

Among the following pteridophytes, the initial steps in evolutionary trend of seed development can be best seen in

QUESTION ID:950

Among the following pteridophytes, the initial steps in evolutionary trend of seed development can be best seen in

QUESTION ID:951

Among the following pteridophytes, the initial steps in evolutionary trend of seed development can be best seen in

QUESTION ID:952

Among the following pteridophytes, the initial steps in evolutionary trend of seed development can be best seen in

QUESTION ID:953


QUESTION ID:954


QUESTION ID:955


QUESTION ID:956


QUESTION ID:957

Mycorrhizal fungi helps in delivery of which key ions to the plant sytem?

QUESTION ID:958

Mycorrhizal fungi helps in delivery of which key ions to the plant sytem?

QUESTION ID:959

Mycorrhizal fungi helps in delivery of which key ions to the plant sytem?

QUESTION ID:960

Mycorrhizal fungi helps in delivery of which key ions to the plant sytem?

QUESTION ID:961

Companion cells which are located close to the sieve tube serve the same function as

QUESTION ID:962

Companion cells which are located close to the sieve tube serve the same function as

QUESTION ID:963

Companion cells which are located close to the sieve tube serve the same function as

QUESTION ID:964

Companion cells which are located close to the sieve tube serve the same function as

QUESTION ID:965

P-proteins are associated with differentiation of

QUESTION ID:966

P-proteins are associated with differentiation of

QUESTION ID:967

P-proteins are associated with differentiation of

QUESTION ID:968

P-proteins are associated with differentiation of

QUESTION ID:969


QUESTION ID:970


QUESTION ID:971


QUESTION ID:972