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Previous Year Questions

TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

For a single substrate reaction, doubling the substrate concentration increases the rate by 10 fold. The order of the reaction is

QUESTION ID:2

An enzyme reaction follows Michaelis Menten kinetics. What will be the reaction velocity at a substrate concentration = Km/3?

QUESTION ID:3

What will be the required volumes of 1N HCl and 4N NaOH to prepare one litre solution of pH 7?

QUESTION ID:4

During a batch culture experiment, the following data was obtained

What will be the product yield (g) per gram of substrate?

QUESTION ID:5

In a bacterial growth experiment, the concentration of cells increased from 10,000 cells/ml to 30,000 cells/ml in 3 h during the exponential growth phase. The doubling time (h) of the bacteria is:

QUESTION ID:6

A 20mer DNA contains A, G and C only. In how many ways can this DNA sequence be constructed?

QUESTION ID:7

Match the Matrices in Group I with appropriate gradient elution condition from Group II

QUESTION ID:8

The activity of Enzyme X (total volume 5.3 ml) is 2.34 micromoles of product formed per min. The total protein content of this solution is 0.8 mg. What is the specific activity?

QUESTION ID:9

Match the techniques in Group I with applications given in Group II

QUESTION ID:10

What would be the number of protein molecules present in 1.0 mg of protein having a molecular weight of 25 kDa?

QUESTION ID:11

Calculate the ionic strength (M) of 50 ml of 0.75 % (w/v) NaCl solution?

QUESTION ID:12

A cell suspension (1.5×105 cells per ml) was treated with 1mM HgCl2 for 30 min. After treatment, the cell suspension was diluted 10 fold and 100 microliter was plated which gave 5 colonies. Calculate the percentage of cells that survived?

QUESTION ID:13

Purification data for an enzyme is given below:

What is the fold-purification?

QUESTION ID:14

Competent cells prepared in your lab have a transformation efficiency of 108 cfu/μg of plasmid DNA. These competent cells (100 μl) were transformed with 10 ng of plasmid DNA using heat shock method followed by addition of 900 μl of LB medium. 100 μl of transformed cells were plated on antibiotic containing plates. The number of colonies expected to be on the plate would be:

QUESTION ID:15

A disease has a prevalence of 1 in 1000 in the general population. A diagnostic kit for the disease has 10% false positives and no false negative. In a general population, if a person tested with the kit gives a positive result, the probability that he DOES NOT have the disease is approximately:

QUESTION ID:16

From the start point on the runaway to final take off, an aircraft takes 50 seconds. During this period it covers a distance of 1 km. What is the acceleration (m/s2) during take-off?

QUESTION ID:17

A ladder of 5 m length is standing against a wall. The distance between the wall and the base of the ladder is 4 m. If the top of ladder slips down by 0.5 m, the foot of the ladder will shift by:

QUESTION ID:18

A person jogs from his home to the playground at 6 km/h. He walks back from the playground to his home at 4 km/h. What is his average speed (km/h)?

QUESTION ID:19

Which one of the following numbers is equal to three times the sum of its digits?

QUESTION ID:20

If 5 ml of 20% ethanol is mixed with 25 ml of 80% ethanol, the resulting solution will approximately be:

QUESTION ID:21

When DNA is extracted from bacterial cells and analyzed for base composition, it is found that 38% of bases are Cytosine (C). What percentage of bases is Adenine (A)?

QUESTION ID:22

Equal volumes of cell suspensions of Escherichia coli, Saccharomyces cerevisiae, Streptococcus lactis and Mycoplasma pneumoniae, all have the same OD600nm = 0.50. Which cell suspension would have the minimum and maximum number of cells, respectively?

QUESTION ID:23

A bag contains 4 red, 5 green and 7 yellow balls. If 2 balls are picked simultaneously in a random manner from the bag, the probability of both being green is:

QUESTION ID:24

The spectroscopic method for detection of functional groups is:

QUESTION ID:25

Match the native microbial sources in Group I with the products in Group II


QUESTION ID:26

Match the enzyme in Group I with the application/function in Group II

QUESTION ID:27

Histone code implies which of the following?

QUESTION ID:28

The A260 of a plasmid solution after 100-fold dilution is 0.2. Given that A260 of 1.0 represents 50 μg/ml of DNA and the total volume of isolated plasmid solution is 50 μl,
what will be the concentration and amount respectively of the isolated plasmid?

QUESTION ID:29

A gene was cloned into a unique HindIII restriction site present in the ampicillin resistance gene of a vector that contains both ampicillin and kanamycin resistance genes. To select for only recombinant clones, the transformation mixture should be plated on which of the following plates?

QUESTION ID:30

A student sequenced a DNA using Sanger‟s method and obtained the following autoradiogram.

The sequence of DNA is:

QUESTION ID:31

From among the options given below, RNA polymerase II transcribes which one of the following?

QUESTION ID:32

The melting curve of a DNA solution is represented below.

It suggests that:

QUESTION ID:33

The DNA binding domain of a transcription factor that is specifically required for the regulation of gene A is exchanged with the DNA binding domain of another transcription factor that is required specifically for the regulation of gene B. This chimeric transcription factor will regulate:

QUESTION ID:34

Protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells terminates at the stop codon because:

QUESTION ID:35

A DNA fragment was digested with a restriction enzyme X with the recognition sequence

that would cleave at the position of the arrow as shown. You want to clone this fragment in a vector which does not contain the restriction site for X. Which one of the following enzymes will you use to digest the vector? The sequence of the restriction site and position of cleavage for each enzyme is shown below:

QUESTION ID:36

Which one of the following is NOT important for regulation of the tryptophan operon by attenuation?

QUESTION ID:37

A plasmid DNA when digested with EcoRI gave a single band of 16 Kb. When the same plasmid was digested with BamHI it gave two bands of 6Kb and 4 Kb. The plasmid has:

QUESTION ID:38

Myeloma cells fused with spleen cells in hybridoma technology are:

QUESTION ID:39

Enzyme inactivation by suicide inhibitors should be:

QUESTION ID:40

Resolution in adsorption chromatography is achieved at:

QUESTION ID:41

Protein kinases phosphorylate proteins at hydroxyl groups on amino acid side chains. Which one of the following groups of amino acids contain side chain hydroxyl groups?

QUESTION ID:42

In a segment of a transcribed gene, the non-template strand of DNA has the following sequence 5‟..AGCTCACTG..3‟. What will be the corresponding 5‟ to 3‟ sequence in the RNA produced from this segment of the gene?

QUESTION ID:43

If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is X, then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis I would be:

QUESTION ID:44

The α-helix in a protein is primarily due to:

QUESTION ID:45

Amino acids with asymmetric Cβ atoms are:

QUESTION ID:46

The strength of the hydrogen bond represented by D-H...A (where D is the donor atom, H is the hydrogen atom and A is the acceptor atom) depends on

QUESTION ID:47

The van der Waals energy of a single water molecule is:

QUESTION ID:48

What is the minimum number of edges that meet at every branch node in a phylogenetic tree?

QUESTION ID:49

According to the Induced-fit theory, an agonist is defined as:

QUESTION ID:50

A recombinant protein is found to be expressed very poorly in E.coli. It is hypothesized that the expression is blocked at the translational step. The first experimental technique to test this is:

QUESTION ID:51

There are 3 genes A, B and C that are functionally related. There is a point mutation in gene A due to which gene B is not expressed resulting in a nonfunctional
gene C product. What is the possible relationship between these 3 genes?

QUESTION ID:52

Detectable serum antibody against a T-independent pathogen is a good indication that:

QUESTION ID:53

If a 1000 kb fragment of DNA has 10 evenly spaced and symmetric replication origins and DNA polymerase moves at 1 kb per minute, how many minutes will it take to produce two daughter molecules ignoring the potential problem at the end of the linear piece of DNA? Assume that the 10 origins are evenly spaced from each other, none starting from the ends of the chromosome.

QUESTION ID:54

In an experiment, 4 different N-terminal blocked purified proteins were treated with glutaraldehyde, individually. One of the proteins did not get modified. What may be
the reason?

QUESTION ID:55

Which of the following signatures (the stretch of amino acids) in a protein will target it to the nucleus?

QUESTION ID:56

Which one of the following rearrangements is NOT permitted during somatic recombination in the heavy chain and light chain immunoglobulin loci?

QUESTION ID:57

Junctional diversity in CDR3 during gene rearrangement results from the addition of:

QUESTION ID:58

The function of negative selection of thymocytes in the thymus is to eliminate:

QUESTION ID:59

Antigen recognition by T cells in the absence of co-stimulation results in:

QUESTION ID:60

Mutation of homeotic genes often result in which one of the following developmental defects in Drosophila?

QUESTION ID:61

Which one of the following graphs represent the kinetics of ion transport through a membrane channel?

QUESTION ID:62

Transition type of gene mutation is caused when

QUESTION ID:63

Which one of the following is NOT enriched in eukaryotic promoters located in active chromatin?

QUESTION ID:64

One of the reasons why non-substrate inducers (e.g. IPTG) are preferred over substrate inducers (e.g. lactose) for induction of an inducible operon is because:

QUESTION ID:65

In humans, the enzyme having reverse transcriptase activity is:

QUESTION ID:66

To prepare a DNA probe of high specific activity for detecting a single copy gene in a Zoo-blot experiment, which one of the following procedures would be preferred?

QUESTION ID:67

The function performed in the smooth ER is:

QUESTION ID:68

In human carcinomas, many proteins including most cytoskeletal proteins undergo modifications, thereby making it difficult for a clinician to identify the origin of the
cancer cells. In this context, which one of the following can be relied upon for identification of the origin of cancer cells?

QUESTION ID:69

Most organisms can regulate membrane fluidity by changing the lipid composition. If cells are transferred from a warm environment to a cold one, it can be expected
that:

QUESTION ID:70

Glycosylation of membrane proteins and lipids is carried out by enzymes present in the lumen of endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi. The glycosylated part of membrane proteins and lipids in the plasma membrane is likely to be:

QUESTION ID:71

Lysosomal storage diseases are a group of inherited diseases that are characterized by the accumulation of specific substances or class of substances within the lysosomes. All of the following mechanisms can cause lysosomal storage disease EXCEPT:

QUESTION ID:72

The gene encoding an enzyme A that functions in a metabolic pathway for conversion of metabolite „x‟ to „y‟ was knocked out but it still resulted in the formation of metabolite „y‟. From this it can be concluded that:

QUESTION ID:73

The following figure shows the electrophoretic migration of a secretory protein in SDSPAGE from the time of its synthesis (0 min) to its secretion (90 min) from the cells.
Assuming that there was no problem in sample preparation and SDS-PAGE, the reason for a lower band at 30 min and a higher band at 60 and 90 min compared to
that at 0 min could be due to:

QUESTION ID:74

Four yeast mutants block membrane and secretory proteins in following
compartments:
Mutant A: Golgi
Mutant B: Endoplasmic reticulum
Mutant C: Cytosol
Mutant D: Secretory vesicles
If two new mutants are made that have combined defects of A+C and B+D, proteins of the new mutants will accumulate in:

QUESTION ID:75

Asynchronous animal cells were stained with a fluorescent DNA binding dye and analyzed by flow cytometry. The histogram of cell count versus fluorescence
intensity is shown below with or without treatment.

It can be concluded from the histogram that:

QUESTION ID:76

Which one of the following eIF2α kinases get activated during unfolded protein response (UPR) in mammalian cells?

QUESTION ID:77

E. coli RNA polymerase has six subunits two α, one β, one βᶦ, one ω and one σ. Which among these subunits imparts specificity of transcription of a gene and how?

QUESTION ID:78

The use of guide RNA to bind to DNA and target the double strand break at a specific site is a feature of:

QUESTION ID:79

Epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) disease is caused by a mutation in which one of the following genes?

QUESTION ID:80

The genes that have been used for reprograming somatic cells of an adult mammal to stem cells called induced pluripotent stem cells (IPSC) are KLF4, SOX2, OCT4
and c-MYC. These code for:

QUESTION ID:81

Following fertilization, zygote divides rapidly to form a large number of cells within a short time through a process called cleavage. In some organisms like sea urchin
the cells of the early embryos skip some stages of cell cycle in order to achieve this. Which of the following steps may be skipped?

QUESTION ID:82

Cell cycle regulatory genes (cdc) were originally discovered by Paul Nurse in yeasts using genetic approach involving temperature sensitive mutant screening. Which of
the following was used to identify cdc?

QUESTION ID:83

Bindin is a protein that is expressed in the tip of sperm head (acrosome) and is important for sperm-egg interaction. Its distribution pattern changes during sperm maturation. Which one of the following methods may be used to monitor the expression pattern of bindin in a simple light microscope?

QUESTION ID:84

Which of the following mechanisms converts c-erbB (EGFR) to an oncogene?

QUESTION ID:85

Midblastula transition (MBT) is a characteristic process that occurs in early embryogenesis of organisms (like Amphibians) whose eggs are large. MBT refers to:

QUESTION ID:86

Introns which are self-splicing and do not require any cofactor for their splicing, are present in the primary transcripts of:

QUESTION ID:87

The phenomenon of transfer of traits from a man to his grandson through his daughter is known as:

QUESTION ID:88

If the doubling time of a prokaryotic cell becomes progressively shorter, then it can be predicted that the ribosome concentration will:

QUESTION ID:89

How many DNA molecules of 6 base pairs length are possible where the first base is a purine and the last base is a pyrimidine?

QUESTION ID:90

A recombinant protein is expressed in E. coli under T7 promoter at 37oC. However no biological activity is obtained in the cell lysate. If the same experiment is carried
out at 25oC, the cell lysate shows a reasonable biological activity. The most probable explanation for this is:

QUESTION ID:91

IPTG is used as an inducer in the T7 expression system for recombinant protein expression in E.coli. This is because of:

QUESTION ID:92

Pyrosequencing derives its name from the fact that:

QUESTION ID:93

Which of the following is a reason that geneticists use mtDNA to study the relatedness of animal populations?

QUESTION ID:94

Lyophilization is a method used for preservation of microbes because:

QUESTION ID:95

Stoichiometric matrices in metabolic pathways are used in:

QUESTION ID:96

The main difference between domain and motif in protein structure is:

QUESTION ID:97

Select the best algorithm to do pairwise alignment when two proteins are very different in length.

QUESTION ID:98

From literature it is known that the length of an E. coli bacterium is 1 μm with a standard deviation of 0.1 μm. After treatment with chemical “X” the mean length of 100 cells is 1.1 μm with a standard deviation of 0.1 μm. What will you conclude from this experiment?

QUESTION ID:99

Which one of the following techniques CANNOT be used to remove salt from a protein solution

QUESTION ID:100

The jelly roll in protein structure is:

QUESTION ID:101

Which one of the following is NOT a structure or structurally derived database?

QUESTION ID:102

Which of the following is TRUE?
In the threading approaches for prediction of protein structure, the optimization is used for:

QUESTION ID:103

The statistical significance of the BLAST hit is obtained using:

QUESTION ID:104

What is referred by the term k in the following energy expression E = ½ k (b-bo)2 where b and bo refer to the bond length and reference bond length respectively?

QUESTION ID:105

The estimates of number of false positives from a BLAST search can be made using:

QUESTION ID:106

The length of Beta Hairpin motif is usually:

QUESTION ID:107

A scoring function is used in which one of the following drug design technologies?

QUESTION ID:108

BLOSUM matrices are based on:

QUESTION ID:109

ProDom is a comprehensive set of protein domain families automatically generated from:

QUESTION ID:110

Which one of the following methods used to find evolutionary trees is also referred as “the minimum evolution method”?

QUESTION ID:111

Z-score =

QUESTION ID:112

In a sequence logo of the type given below, the sizes of the letters are proportional to the:

QUESTION ID:113

For a homology search program such as BLAST, which one of the following best describes the scoring pattern?

QUESTION ID:114

Given the results of a 'sequence versus fingerprint' search, which of the following would be considered the best hit?

QUESTION ID:115

In a Multi-Locus Variable number tandem repeat Analysis (MLVA) for Salmonella enterica subspecies, three tandem repeats loci have been identified inside yohM gene of S. typhimurium LT2, S.typhi CT18 and S.typhi Ty2 strains. Motif lengths for the loci are 2,3 and 5 respectively. Motif AT and ATG are found to be repeated by 13 and 5 times respectively in all the strains. Motif ATGTC is repeated 13 times in S. typhimurium LT2, 15 times S.typhi CT18 and 12 times S.typhi Ty2 strains. Which locus is Variable Number Tandem Repeat (VNTR)?

QUESTION ID:116

Of a population of cells undergoing meiosis, 1% of the cells undergo recombination between genes A and B. What is the distance between the two genes?

QUESTION ID:117

Which one of the following combinations of marker genes and promoters CANNOT be used for selection of transgenic plants under in vitro conditions?

QUESTION ID:118

Several experiments have shown leaky/deregulated expression of reporter genes viz., GUS from plant promoters in Agrobacterium cells. Which one of the following approaches would be most useful in restricting transgene expression in transformed plant cells and prevent their expression in Agrobacterium?

QUESTION ID:119

A T0 transgenic plant showing two copies of T-DNA on Southern analysis, segregated in a 3:1 ratio for the transgenic:non-transgenic phenotype among T1 progeny obtained by self-pollination. Which one of the following statements best explains this observation?

QUESTION ID:120

Which one of the following statements is correct?

QUESTION ID:121

Which one of the following statements related to transgene silencing in plants is INCORRECT?

QUESTION ID:122

Two independent transgenic plants, one with single copy of gene A and another with single copy of gene B were expressed under the same seed-specific promoter. In transgenic plants, seed formation on self-pollination was similar to that of untransformed plants. When homozygous plants with gene A (male parent) were crossed with homozygous plants with gene B (female parent), viable seed formation did not occur although, pollen production was normal. What could be the possible reason for this observation?

QUESTION ID:123

The range of transformation frequencies obtained in independent transformation experiments using four different constructs with different combinations of promoters (Pr)  and selection marker genes, is given below:
In the absence of any other factors, which one of the following statements is NOT acceptable as a logical conclusion based on the above data?

QUESTION ID:124

Callus-mediated regeneration is NOT preferred for micropropagation because:

QUESTION ID:125

In a transgenic plant, the phenomenon of Co-suppression is due to:

QUESTION ID:126

In inbred lines, gene and genotypic frequencies are maintained by growing them in isolation followed by:

QUESTION ID:127

Homozygous plants from bi-parental mating for development of mapping populations can be obtained in a short time by:

QUESTION ID:128

Which one of the following is NOT required for QTL analysis in association mapping?

QUESTION ID:129

Which one of the following hormones promote production of seedless grapes?

QUESTION ID:130

Which one of the following molecular markers is associated with bacterial blight resistance in rice?

QUESTION ID:131

Match the proteins in Group I with members in Group II

QUESTION ID:132

Application of the herbicide, phosphoinothricin, results in death of plants due to accumulation of:

QUESTION ID:133

Which one of the following is NOT a feature of Agrobacterium VirE protein?

QUESTION ID:134

Transgenic potato plants with high amylose starch were developed by:

QUESTION ID:135

Developing cisgenic disease resistant apple is advantageous over conventional breeding because:

QUESTION ID:136

For development of selection marker-free transgenic plants by co-transformation using Agrobacterium, the marker genes are:

QUESTION ID:137

Breakdown of Bt- mediated insect resistance in crops can be delayed by:

QUESTION ID:138

Which one of the following is matched INCORRECTLY?

QUESTION ID:139

Which one of the following would produce androgenic haploids in anther culture?

QUESTION ID:140

Male sterility in plants is induced by expression of the TA29-barnase-pA cassette in:

QUESTION ID:141

Anchorage dependent CHO cells are grown by aeration using micro carrier beads. The maximum detrimental effect of shear occurs due to agitation if the size (Kolmogorov scale) of eddies is:

QUESTION ID:142

With progress in the growth of E. coli in a minimal medium (constant aeration and agitation), the dissolved oxygen (DO) initially declined and then started to increase. If the DO again starts to decrease on addition of glucose, then the most probable explanation is:

QUESTION ID:143

An organism obeys Andrews model for growth inhibition with Ks and Ki values of 0.01 g/l and 1.0 g/l respectively. If the substrate is present at an initial concentration of 1.0g/l, the specific growth rate of the culture upon entering log phase would be approximately:

QUESTION ID:144

In a stirred tank reactor when the agitation rate is increased, the kL and kLa values will:

QUESTION ID:145

Which one of the following is correct regarding cell damage in an agitated and sparged mammalian cell bioreactor?

QUESTION ID:146

Which one of the statements given below is NOT true? Equilibrium constant (K) of a chemical reaction at a specific temperature can be determined if the:

QUESTION ID:147

If a big centrifuge with the bowl diameter of 1m rotates at 60 rpm, at what speed (rpm) does a smaller centrifuge with a diameter of 0.5 m need to be operated for achieving the same separation factor?

QUESTION ID:148

What is the linear flow rate (superficial velocity in cm/h) in a chromatographic column of 1.0 cm inner diameter with a bed porosity of 0.8 when the volumetric flow rate is 1 ml/min?

QUESTION ID:149

For a cell growth process, the units for yield, productivity and titre are:

QUESTION ID:150

In a fermentor the impeller diameter is increased from 0.5 m to 1 m and the rpm is increased from 100 rpm to 400 rpm. Reynolds number will increase by?

QUESTION ID:151

Zymomonas mobilis is cultivated in a 60 l chemostat. The μmax and Ks values are 0.2 h-1 and 0.5 g l-1 respectively. The flow rate (l h-1) required for a steady state substrate concentration of 0.5 g l-1 in the reactor is:

QUESTION ID:152

Which one of the following statements is WRONG for conventional batch filtration of a mycelial fermentation broth?

QUESTION ID:153

The reason for the choice of E. coli for the production of ethanol from lignocellulose is because it:

QUESTION ID:154

Two organisms A and B with the same μmax and Yx/s are cultivated independently in batch culture. They have Ks values of 1 g.l-1 and 3 g.l-1 respectively. Given that the initial substrate concentration was 5 g/l, which of the following is TRUE after complete exhaustion of the substrate?

QUESTION ID:155

Pseudomonas with the elemental composition of CH3O0.5N0.5 (MW = 30) is grown in a bioreactor to a final cell mass of 30 g/l. The minimum concentration (g/l) of ammonia (NH3) (MW = 17) (as the sole nitrogen source) required is:

QUESTION ID:156

To reduce the level of deactivation of media components for culturing Lactobacillus spp., a high temperature and short time (HTST) regime is used for sterilization,
PRIMARILY because:

QUESTION ID:157

Acetobacter aceti converts alcohol to acetic acid according to the stoichiometric relation
C2H5OH + O2  → CH3COOH + H2O
In a vigorously agitated and aerated reactor containing 20 g/l ethanol, the organism produces 16 g/l acetic acid and 2 g/l was the residual ethanol concentration. What are the theoretical and observed yields of acetic acid expressed in g/g ethanol?

QUESTION ID:158

A continuous stirred tank bioreactor produces 48 kg lysine.day-1. If the volumetric productivity is 2 g.l-1.h-1, the volume of the reactor is:

QUESTION ID:159

Aqueous Two Phase System (ATPS) is used to isolate a protease from a fermentation broth. The partition coefficient (K) is 2.5. For 80 % recovery of protease in a single step, the volume ratios of upper and the lower phases should be:

QUESTION ID:160

To have an overall yield of greater than 50% in a three step purification process for a food additive, the minimum average step yield(%) necessary would be around:

QUESTION ID:161

In a fed batch process for the production of an antibiotic, the dissolved oxygen (DO) level was found to be falling below 30%. If the DO level of 30% is to be maintained in
the reactor (without altering the composition of oxygen-air mixture, aeration rate and agitation) then we need to:

QUESTION ID:162

In a batch sterilization process if ∇overall , ∇heating & ∇cooling are 32.2, 9.8 & 10.1 respectively, THEN the holding time at 121ºC of the process is (given that the specific
death rate (k) of microorganisms at 121ºC is 2.54 min-1 ):

QUESTION ID:163

To achieve complete separation of two pharmaceutical compounds (shown as two peaks in the chromatogram), the relative separation (RS) should be:

QUESTION ID:164

The anticancer drug, Halichondrin – D is isolated from:

QUESTION ID:165

Heparin is a:

QUESTION ID:166

The only naturally transformable marine cyanobacteria is:

QUESTION ID:167

Marine chemosynthesis is mainly based on:

QUESTION ID:168

Which one is a DNA replication blocking agent produced by sponges?

QUESTION ID:169

Eutrophication in aquatic ecosystems is due to reduction of:

QUESTION ID:170

Halotolerant and halophilic microbes can be isolated from ------ and -------, respectively.
P. Sea Q. River R. Lake S. Estuary

QUESTION ID:171

Heavy metal pollutants like Cd and Hg inactivate enzymes by interacting with:

QUESTION ID:172

Which of the following class of enzymes initiates aerobic degradation of aromatic pollutants (like naphthalene) in bacteria?

QUESTION ID:173

Which one of the following organisms is NOT able to perform light harvesting reaction?

QUESTION ID:174

In the soil environment, which one of the following factors is responsible for the biotic stress on the microbial community?

QUESTION ID:175

Match the enzymes in Group I with their appropriate role in the environment from Group II

QUESTION ID:176

Which one of the following types of mutation would usually NOT be detected in a molecular diagnostic test that is based on sequencing each exon of a gene individually
from a male suspected of having an X-linked disorder?

QUESTION ID:177

A couple came for counselling following three first-trimester miscarriages and underwent chromosomal analysis. The man was found to have pericentric inversion with the karyotype 46,XY,inv8(p12q22). Which one of the following would be a correct conclusion?

QUESTION ID:178

Unequal crossing over between two Alu repeats can lead to an LDL receptor gene with an internal deletion or duplication. Based on this information, which of the following must be true?

QUESTION ID:179

Linkage analysis is performed in a large family with an autosomal dominant hemolytic anemia, using a polymorphic marker within the β-globin locus. The LOD score at q=0 is negative infinity. The LOD score at q=0.01 is -4.5. You conclude that the disorder in this family is:

QUESTION ID:180

In Li-Fraumeni syndrome most frequent mutation occurs in:

QUESTION ID:181

Which one of the following promoters is most efficient for transgene expression in mammary gland of livestock?

QUESTION ID:182

Epinephrine is used along with local anaesthetic because of its:

QUESTION ID:183

Founder effects and bottlenecks are:

QUESTION ID:184

In commercial farms, embryos are routinely recovered by non-surgical methods. On which day are the embryos recovered from the donor cow after the onset of estrus?

QUESTION ID:185

Human mesenchymal stem cells:

QUESTION ID:186

Vectors are important in transmission of diseases. Match group 1 with group 2.

QUESTION ID:187

Which one of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter?

QUESTION ID:188

Huntington‟s disease is clinically characterized by chorea (abnormal involuntary movements). Which part of the brain is responsible for this phenotype?

QUESTION ID:189

α-Amanitin is a fungal toxin which inhibits eukaryotic RNA polymerases. The three eukaryotic RNA polymerases show differential sensitivity to this toxin. Which one of the following order (higher to lower) is correct with respect to sensitivity towards α-amanitin?

QUESTION ID:190

A primary cell culture can be transformed into a cell line by all EXCEPT:

QUESTION ID:191

In a randomly breeding population, an autosomal recessive condition affects 1 newborn in 10,000. The expected frequency of carriers will be nearly:

QUESTION ID:192

Assessment of the extent of DNA double strand breaks in cultured human cells, following exposure to ionizing radiation, can be done by quantitation of :

QUESTION ID:193

There are reports of more than 100 mutations at different sites of Factor IX that manifests Haemophilia B. This is an example of:

QUESTION ID:194

Specificity factor which activates ubiquitin ligase activity of APC/C during separation of sister chromatids is:

QUESTION ID:195

In a diploid organism, loss of function mutations produce dominant phenotypes when there is:

QUESTION ID:196

In Mendel‟s dihybrid cross experiment, if the two selected traits were on the same chromosome (linked) and assuming that there is no recombination, what would be the
expected genotypic ratio in the F2 generation?

QUESTION ID:197

Huntington disease is caused by:

QUESTION ID:198

The following pedigree shows the inheritance of a very rare human disease. What is the most likely mode of inheritance for the disease trait and what is the probability that the second child of III-2 and III-3 will be a son and will also have the disease?

QUESTION ID:199

Microscopic evaluation of a post-mortem brain exhibits hyperchromatic areas when stained with glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP). This suggests activation of:

QUESTION ID:200

Parasite numbers in the blood of a patient with Trypanosoma brucci (Sleeping sickness) shows the following pattern:

Parasites isolated from population 1 and 2 were found to be antigenecially noncross reactive. The parasite distribution seen may be due to: