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Previous Year Questions

TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

10 g of a plant material is extracted in 100mL of a suitable buffer. On performing an assay for amylase activity, 100μl extract produced 6 μmoles glucose in 30 minutes of incubation. One unit of amylase activity is defined as the amount of enzyme required to produce 1μmole of glucose per minute. The amylase activity (units/g) of the material is:

QUESTION ID:2

Water vapour transmission rate of a packaging film is 4g/m2/day. A food product is packed in a rectangular pouch measuring 0.12m x 0.16m. The maximum amount of moisture lost in 90 days is:

QUESTION ID:3

An essential oil has antimicrobial activity with an MIC of 15 mg/Kg and can be used as a biopreservative. This activity is lost at the rate of 1% of the remaining concentration, per day. The minimum amount of oil to be added (mg) to 1 Kg of food product that is stored for 30 days is:

QUESTION ID:4

The protein concentration and enzyme activity in 100 mL of a cell free extract is 5 mg/mL and 2 units/mL, respectively. After multiple steps of purification, the final 10 mL fraction contains 4 mg/mL of protein and 15 units/mL of enzyme activity. The fold purification and percentage recovery, respectively is:

QUESTION ID:5

Solvent extraction using ethanol is used to purify a target metabolite from an aqueous broth. The partitioning coefficient is 3. The ratio of solvent to broth that is required to extract 80% of the metabolite in a single step is:

QUESTION ID:6

Two experiments were conducted with an enzyme following Michaelis Menten kinetics at substrate concentrations of 0.5 g/l and 1 g/l. If the enzymatic reaction velocity increases approximately 2-fold at the higher substrate concentration, the Km for the enzyme would be around:

QUESTION ID:7

An enzyme is reported to have a Km of 10 mM and Vmax of 30 mM/s. Assuming Michaelis Menten kinetics, the reaction velocity at a substrate concentration of 20 mM will be:

QUESTION ID:8

An unbiased coin is tossed 100 times in experiment I and 1000 times in experiment II. Which one of the following statements is most likely to be TRUE regarding the ratio between heads and tails in experiment I and II?

QUESTION ID:9

A random number generator produces a uniform distribution of numbers between -1 and 1. The probability that a number produced by this generator is between 0.9 and 1 is

QUESTION ID:10

Random DNA hexamers containing A, T, G and C are generated by DNA synthesis. The fraction of the hexamers that will have 3 purines followed by 3 pyrimidines is:

QUESTION ID:11

A litre of 18% glucose solution is converted anaerobically into methane and carbon dioxide. The theoretical maximum volume of gases at NTP assuming ideality, produced on complete conversion of the entire glucose would be:

QUESTION ID:12

An STE buffer contains 20% sucrose, 100 mM Tris and 10 mM EDTA. Given the stock solutions – 50% sucrose, 1 M Tris, and 200 mM EDTA, the volumes of the stock solutions required to make 1 litre of the buffer solution are respectively:

QUESTION ID:13

A and B together can clean a lab in 4 days. Independently, A can clean the lab in 20 days. How many days will it take for B to independently complete the task?

QUESTION ID:14

A boy appears for a test and scores 35% but fails by 10 marks. If he had scored 46% marks, he would have passed by 12 marks. The pass mark is:

QUESTION ID:15

The mean extracellular cellulase activity of 7 Bacillus strains isolated from soil was determined to be 12 IU/mL. A new hyper-producing Bacillus isolate was found to have an extracellular activity of 36 IU/mL. If equal volumes of the supernatants of all 8 strains are mixed together, the cellulase activity of the solution will be:

QUESTION ID:16

Find the missing number in the following series:

QUESTION ID:17

If the four different positions of a dice are as given below, find the number that is on the face opposite to 4:

QUESTION ID:18

How many squares are there in the given diagram?

QUESTION ID:19

A spherical mammalian cell of radius ‘R’ is infected by a single coccus bacterium having 100 times smaller radius. Given that the host cell will lyse when 1/2 of the cell volume is taken up by the bacterium, approximately how many times will the bacterium divide before the host cell is lysed?

QUESTION ID:20

Phosphates, carboxylates, sulfonates are esters of phosphoric, carboxylic and sulfonic acids, respectively. Which one of the following statements is NOT true?

QUESTION ID:21

The prosthetic group present in a acyl carrier protein is:

QUESTION ID:22

Pyran is a:

QUESTION ID:23

The number of 1° hydroxyl group present in fructose and glucose are:

QUESTION ID:24

During glycolysis, fructose-1,6-diphosphate undergoes __________ to produce two C3 - fragments.

QUESTION ID:25

The core functional unit present in NADH is:

QUESTION ID:26

If a completely radioactive double stranded DNA molecule undergoes two rounds of replication in a non-radioactive medium, what will be the radioactivity status of the four resulting molecules?

QUESTION ID:27

In meiosis, an inversion in one member of a pair of homologous chromosomes will most likely lead to which of the following?

QUESTION ID:28

In a cross between two black Labrador retrievers the phenotypic ratio of the offspring is 9 black puppies to 3 chocolate puppies to 4 yellow puppies; this is an example of

QUESTION ID:29

What will be the probability of obtaining a plant with AaBBCc genotype from trihybrid (AaBbCc) parents?

QUESTION ID:30

The natural primer for reverse transcriptase in RNA tumor viruses is:

QUESTION ID:31

Asymmetry of the DNA denaturation - renaturation curve

QUESTION ID:32

‘P’ is a cis-acting element, while ‘Q’ is a trans-acting element. Possible examples of ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are:

QUESTION ID:33

In an organism, the amount of DNA per haploid genome is about 1.6 x 109 nucleotide pairs. Given that the length of DNA helix occupied by one nucleotide pair is 3.4 Å, approximately how long a double helix could be formed from this DNA?

QUESTION ID:34

A hypothetical polypeptide hormone binds to its receptor with an association rate constant (ka) of 3.0x104 M-1 sec-1 and a dissociation rate constant (kd) of 6.9x10-6 sec-1. What is the equilibrium dissociation constant?

QUESTION ID:35

If a fluorescent dye is injected into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), in which of the following compartments can fluorescence signal be observed?

QUESTION ID:36

Which of the following statements about Na+-K+ ATPase is correct?

QUESTION ID:37

Protein glycosylation can take place only on the following amino acid(s):

QUESTION ID:38

Which one of the following organelles disappears during cell division and is regenerated in the daughter cells?

QUESTION ID:39

Cross sectional images of an object taken at fixed intervals from top to bottom reveals the following images (1,2,3,4). Using these images if you had to reconstitute the object, what would be its 3D shape?

QUESTION ID:40

In E. coli, mismatch during replication is corrected by the mismatch repair (MMR) pathway. For this, the MMR proteins differentiate between the parent and daughter strand by:

QUESTION ID:41

Promoter : transcription ::

QUESTION ID:42

Hair cells in the inner ear act as receptors for which one of the following cues?

QUESTION ID:43

Which one of the following reactions DOES NOT occur in fatty acid synthesis?

QUESTION ID:44

The amino acid that can act both as an acid and a base in an enzyme catalysed reaction is:

QUESTION ID:45

The DNA sequence in the box undergoes an inversion. What is the final DNA sequence after inversion?

QUESTION ID:46

A DNA with the sequence 5′CGCATCGATCATGCCCTGA…..AGTCCCATTAGATGCC3′ needs to be PCR amplified. The reverse primer will have the following sequence:

QUESTION ID:47

Gamma phosphate labelled ATP molecule was used to label a DNA fragment using the nick translation protocol. This would result in:

QUESTION ID:48

Taq DNA polymerase differs from the Klenow fragment in having:

QUESTION ID:49

A 34 Kb linear DNA was digested with Hindll I and Barn/11. The fragments obtained on complete digestion were as follows:
Hind III 14 Kb, 20 Kb
BamHI: 4 Kb, 12Kb,18Kb
HindIII + BamHI: 4 Kb, 10 Kb, 8 Kb. 12 Kb 
The appropriate restriction map of the DNA is: 

QUESTION ID:50

In an eukaryotic pre-mRNA the number of positions where polyadenylate modifications occur is:

QUESTION ID:51

Which one of the following amino acid biosynthesis pathways is affected in folic acid deficiency?

QUESTION ID:52

Which one of the following is NOT a part of the recombination signal sequence in VDJ recombination?

QUESTION ID:53

The mechanism that permits immunoglobulins to be synthesized either in a membrane bound or secreted form is:

QUESTION ID:54

The transporter associated with antigen processing (TAP) complex is necessary for the loading of peptides onto class I MHC molecules. The cellular compartment harboring the TAP complex is:

QUESTION ID:55

Hemoglobin is made up of two copies each of α and β globin subunits. The techniques used to establish the stoichiometry of α and β subunits are:

QUESTION ID:56

Hot start PCR is performed to

QUESTION ID:57

A 1 Kb insert (I) is ligated to a 5 Kb vector (V) in a molar ratio of I:V of 5:1, in a reaction volume of 1 mL at a final DNA concentration at 10 μ g/mL. How much of the insert and vector was used in the ligation mixture?

QUESTION ID:58

A human gene is cloned in an E. coli expression vector. However, extremely poor protein expression is detected on SDS-PAGE despite high levels of specific mRNA. The most likely explanation is:

QUESTION ID:59

Aminopterin in HAT medium inhibits:

QUESTION ID:60

A linear double stranded DNA is self-circularized by ligation with T4 DNA ligase. At which concentration (μg/ml) of DNA would the self-circularization yield be maximum?

QUESTION ID:61

In a cell, a repressor binds to its cognate operator with a KD = 10-9M. The cellular concentration of the repressor is 10-8M. The extent of repressor bound to the operator is:

QUESTION ID:62

Among the merodiploids of the lac operon in E. coli, which one is NOT inducible by lactose?

QUESTION ID:63

Termination of mRNA transcription in Saccharomyces cerevisiae is mediated by:

QUESTION ID:64

A Bacillus culture growing in a rich medium was shifted to a sporulation medium. Which of the following is expected to occur?

QUESTION ID:65

A DNA fragment digested with HindIII and EcoRI was ligated with a vector digested with HindIII and EcoRI sites present in the polylinker of the vector. Upon screening of transformants by digestion with
HindIII and EcoRI, it was found that all the transformants contained only the self-ligated vector and there was no recombinant clone (containing insert cloned in the vector). This is possibly due to:

QUESTION ID:66

In a cloning experiment, alkaline phosphatase is generally used to dephosphorylate a plasmid vector rather than the insert DNA fragments because:

QUESTION ID:67

A Yeast plasmid vector has an XhoI site in the LEU2 marker gene and a SalI site in the HIS3 marker gene. A student cloned a gene using the SalI site. How should the student select for the recombinant clone?

QUESTION ID:68

Which of the following statements about IPTG and lactose is NOT correct?

QUESTION ID:69

Which of the following amino acid changes in the active site of an enzyme is most likely to change its activity?

QUESTION ID:70

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about enhancers?

QUESTION ID:71

In an experiment, two different mutations in a single gene was observed. This gene was cloned. Northern and Western analysis of each mutant (1 and 2) and the wild type gave the following profiles: 
What will be the inference from the result? 

QUESTION ID:72

The common feature of Rho-independent and Rho-dependent termination of transcription is:

QUESTION ID:73

During infection by single stranded RNA viruses, host immune system distinguishes viral RNA from the host RNA based on:

QUESTION ID:74

The deletion of gene X in mice did not result in any abnormality. Further, to investigate the function of the gene, at least five null mice of the same sex are needed. What is the minimum number of pups from heterozygous parents to be screened to obtain the required number?

QUESTION ID:75

The Carbon (C1) of glucose is labelled with 14C (specific activity of 10 mCi/mmole). After one round of glycolysis, the specific activity of radiolabelled pyruvate is:

QUESTION ID:76

Helicobacter pylori survives in the acidic environment of the stomach because it:

QUESTION ID:77

During DNA replication the newly generated strand remains attached to the template. However, during transcription newly synthesized RNA dissociates from the template. This is achieved by:

QUESTION ID:78

Rag1 null mice are susceptible to infection because:

QUESTION ID:79

The restriction site for Van91I is 5′ CCANNNN↓NTGG 3′. How many times can Van91I cut a 4 Mb bacterial genome with 50% GC content?

QUESTION ID:80

Phosphorylation of proteins is a typical post-translational modification which modulates their activities. Which one of the following amino acid residues can be phosphorylated?

QUESTION ID:81

Positive and negative selection markers are utilized to screen for recombinants from wild type populations. Which one of the following can be used for negative selection in bacteria?

QUESTION ID:82

A mammalian cell culture is treated with cycloheximide. Protein synthesis of cells after treatment was recorded through incorporation of labeled amino acids. In which of the following organelles will fresh protein synthesis be detected?

QUESTION ID:83

A scientist aims to identify a binding site for a new transcriptional anti-terminator protein. Which one of the following techniques will be most appropriate for this experiment?

QUESTION ID:84

Primer extension is a technique employed for mapping the:

QUESTION ID:85

UGA is NOT a stop codon in:

QUESTION ID:86

A recombinant plasmid is introduced with adenovirus to specifically label liver cells with GFP. Which gene promoter will be most optimal for specific expression of GFP?

QUESTION ID:87

The schematic represents the basic structural components of a 


QUESTION ID:88

An in vitro translation system containing microsomes was used to translate an mRNA encoding a secretory protein lacking the stop codon. Which one of the following outcomes can be expected?

QUESTION ID:89

The result of an in vitro phosphorylation assay of a protein using γ-32P ATP in the presence of various kinases is shown below. The bands represent phosphorylated proteins detected.
1. Lane 1: No kinase 2. Lane 2: Kinase 3. Lane 3 Kinase 2 followed by inactivation of kinase and subsequent addition of kinase 3 4. Lane 4: Kinase 3 followed by inactivation of kinase and subsequent addition of kinase 2 
Based on the autoradiograph shown above it can be concluded that:

QUESTION ID:90

During subcellular fractionation, a protein is recovered in the membrane fraction. However, upon washing the membrane fraction with high salt, the protein is obtained in the soluble fraction. The mode of association of the protein with the membrane is via:

QUESTION ID:91

Effective oral rehydration therapy requires the presence of both Na+ and glucose because the intestinal epithelial cells express a:

QUESTION ID:92

The Warburg effect in cancers refers to their ability to:

QUESTION ID:93

In a migrating cell the relative position of the ___________ and the ________ determines the polarity of the cell.

QUESTION ID:94

During apoptosis, lipid asymmetry is lost permitting Annexin V to bind to _______ in the outer leaflet of the plasma membrane.

QUESTION ID:95

A cargo has to be delivered from the center of the cell to the cell periphery using the microtubule network. To which protein does it need to be associated with?

QUESTION ID:96

The graph below shows the excitation and emission spectra of three fluorophores: CFP, GFP and YFP. If you were to design an experiment to image two fluorescently labelled proteins inside the same cell, which is the best combination to use? 

QUESTION ID:97

Deamination of which of the following bases will NOT be recognized by the DNA damage repair machinery?

QUESTION ID:98

Arrange the following compounds based on increasing order of acid strength:


QUESTION ID:99

Which of the following compound(s) on oxidation gets converted into optically active tartaric acids?

QUESTION ID:100

Normal bilirubin (4Z, 15Z isomer) undergoes structural isomerisation on absorption of blue-green light (460 – 490 nm). For this reaction, which one of the following statements is TRUE?

QUESTION ID:101

SCID mice lack T-cells owing to the:

QUESTION ID:102

Anti-human μ chain antibody is specific for epitopes present in the:

QUESTION ID:103

Hapten-carrier hypothesis was useful in the designing of the vaccine for:

QUESTION ID:104

Tetanus toxoid is a protein that has been chemically treated to retain its:

QUESTION ID:105

Haemolytic disease of the new born called erythroblastosis fetalis commonly develops in mothers with repeated pregnancies owing to the activation of:

QUESTION ID:106

Human olfactory receptors are:

QUESTION ID:107

Primary neurotransmitter that plays a role in sleep, appetite, arousal and mood is:

QUESTION ID:108

For some people it is a popular herb added in food for flavour, but for others it tastes like soap due to a mutation in OR6A2 receptor. The herb is:

QUESTION ID:109

Chromosome complement of river vs swamp domestic water buffalo is:

QUESTION ID:110

Which one of the following animal diseases was officially declared eradicated by FAO in the year 2011?

QUESTION ID:111

Peste des petits ruminants (PPR) also known as “goat plague”, a viral disease of goats and sheep is caused by:

QUESTION ID:112

Which of these is used as a preferred inhalation anaesthetic for laboratory animals?

QUESTION ID:113

A1/A2 cow milk are genetic variants of the beta casein milk protein that differ by a single amino acid at position 67. The variants for A1 and A2 are:

QUESTION ID:114

Dental formula of cattle older than 4 years is:

QUESTION ID:115

In utero microcephaly is caused by:

QUESTION ID:116

Labels on the tubes containing Fab and F(ab′)2 fragments of anti-SRBC were dislodged. Recommend one of the following techniques to identify the correct fragments in the tube:

QUESTION ID:117

Two cell lines (Vero and SP2/O-Ag14) were cross contaminated. In order to confirm the homogeneity of the cell lines, which of the following approaches would you use?

QUESTION ID:118

Match the genus listed in A with the features in B: 


QUESTION ID:119

Vitamin D3 formed in the skin is converted to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol in the:

QUESTION ID:120

Recently US FDA approved CAR-T treatment is a

QUESTION ID:121

β- Glucans protect aquaculture organisms from various pathogenic strains because they:

QUESTION ID:122

Which one of the following is used for culturing Perna viridis?

QUESTION ID:123

From the table below, match the pellagic zones with their respective depths and choose the correct option:

QUESTION ID:124

Dead zones in oceans refer to:

QUESTION ID:125

Gynogenesis in fishes is achieved by:

QUESTION ID:126

A wastewater sample has COD of 1 g/L of which 80% is the BOD. During partial aerobic oxidation only 200 mg of COD was converted to CO2 and H2O. The remaining BOD (mg/L) is:

QUESTION ID:127

A microbial community has grown on starch anaerobically and it produced a mixture of metabolites with the following composition: glucose, disaccharides, acetate, butyric acid, butanol and carbon dioxide. This microbial community is comprised of:

QUESTION ID:128

In an air sample, 12% particulate matter is of around 25 nm size, 35% around 10 nm, 30% around 5 nm and remaining are 2.5 nm or smaller. The respiratory particulate matter in this sample is:

QUESTION ID:129

A mixture of food waste on inorganic analysis was found to contain Cl-, SO4 -, NO3 -, NH4+ ion. Successful anaerobic digestion by a mixed microbial community will result in biogas having the following gases:

QUESTION ID:130

A bioremediation mesocosm experiment has been carried out on a plot with 250 ppm aromatic molecules as contaminants. After 15 days the level of aromatic molecules came down to 100 ppm at a temperature of 48 ± 2°C. The electrical conductance of this site has increased over time because of the

QUESTION ID:131

Internal coordinates for representation of the three-dimensional structure of a protein consists of:

QUESTION ID:132

Cis-peptide unit corresponds to the O-C-N-H dihedral angle (degrees) of:

QUESTION ID:133

Which of the following corresponds to the amino acid pair having maximum and minimum number of allowed conformations in the Ramachandran plot?

QUESTION ID:134

If the energy of a protein structure is calculated using molecular mechanics forcefield, which of the following energy components CANNOT have a negative value?

QUESTION ID:135

X, Y and Z correspond to three different conformers of an 18-residue peptide, where X: α helix, Y: β strand and Z: 310 helix. Which of the following correspond to the conformers in the decreasing order of end to end distance?

QUESTION ID:136

Which one of the following protein structure prediction methods is based on the principle of locating lowest energy minimum in the conformation space of a protein?

QUESTION ID:137

Which one of the following can be used to measure the extent of similarity between the predicted structure of a protein and its experimentally determined structure?

QUESTION ID:138

The PROSITE pattern representing the conserved sequence motif for a new family of AMP binding protein is [LIVMFY]-X(2)-[STG]-[STAG]-G-[ST]. You are given a sequence of a 15-amino acid stretch starting from the first residue of the motif. Which one of the following proteins is likely to have AMP binding function?

QUESTION ID:139

Dot matrix analysis of the amino acid sequences of lambda phage cI (horizontal sequence) and phage P22 c2 (vertical sequence) repressors is shown below. Which one of the following is correct?

QUESTION ID:140

An alignment of two protein sequences showing matches, mismatches and gaps (delta) is given below: 

The similarity score (%) for the above alignment will be: 

QUESTION ID:141

Which one of the following is a depiction of the GenBank sequence entry format?

QUESTION ID:142

Two sequences of comparable length have several regions that align locally, but are separated by other regions that align poorly. Which algorithm can be used to find the highest-scoring alignment between the two sequences?

QUESTION ID:143

A sample Genetic code is given below. 

If an amino acid substitution matrix based on genetic code is derived for sequence alignment and analysis from evolutionary studies, which one of the blowing 5 TRUE? 

QUESTION ID:144

Which one of the following tools can reliably establish an evolutionary link between two proteins and align them even if they share very low degree of sequence similarity?

QUESTION ID:145

Of the two databases A and B, the database A is larger in size than database B. In a BLAST search, a sequence has a highly significant match with the same entry in both the databases. Which of the following is TRUE?

QUESTION ID:146

Parents who appear normal have a child with sickle cell anemia, which is an autosomal recessive trait. The woman becomes pregnant again and is told that she is carrying fraternal twins. What is the probability that both the twins will develop sickle cell anemia?

QUESTION ID:147

The following pedigree shows the inheritance of a human disease. What is the most likely mode of inheritance for this trait and what is the probability that a son of III 1 would be affected by the disease, if III 1 is known to be a carrier.

QUESTION ID:148

A 30 Kb candidate gene linked to prostate cancer from a patient was digested with XhoI. Following Southern hybridization of the digested products with the full-length gene probe, three bands of 15, 10 and 5 Kb sizes were obtained. However, an identical experiment in normal individuals gave a 15 Kb fragment. This could be due to:

QUESTION ID:149

In a given population, 1 out of 400 individuals has cancer caused by a recessive allele ‘p’. Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the expected proportion of individuals who carry the ‘p’ allele but do not develop cancer?

QUESTION ID:150

Color blindness in human beings is an X-linked trait. A color-blind man has a 45, X daughter who is also color-blind. The nondisjunction that leads to the 45, X daughter occurred in which parent and in which meiotic division?

QUESTION ID:151

A marker present outside the targeted QTL used to check the crossing over is called:

QUESTION ID:152

Linkage disequilibrium (LD) decay is:

QUESTION ID:153

‘Gene for gene’ hypothesis states that:

QUESTION ID:154

In an ordered tetrad analysis, if the two genes are not linked, the ………… will be almost equal.

QUESTION ID:155

Assume that a marker M1 is present 5 cM away on one side of a gene “X” (a desirable allele of the gene), while marker M2 is present 10 cM away on the other side of the gene. The donor’s genotype is M1M1XXM2M2, while the recipient has m1m1xxm2m2 genotype. A cross was made between these two individuals. The F1 is crossed to recipient. The progeny of this cross had 1000 plants. How many plants from this progeny will have both the markers (M1 & M2) present while the desired gene is absent? (Assume no interference)

QUESTION ID:156

Maize transgenic for bacterial CspA (a RNA chaperone) imparts tolerance to:

QUESTION ID:157

Assume gene “A” is dominant over “a” and “B1” is codominant over “B2” in petunia. A cross is made between two individuals – AAB1B2 x aaB1B2. Assuming that there is no gene interaction, the progeny will segregate in a phenotypic ratio of:

QUESTION ID:158

A multiline variety is:

QUESTION ID:159

A variety “X” is a donor for resistance to blast, but it has an undesirable gene for lodging susceptibility that is tightly linked to the blast resistant gene. The best breeding method which has high probability of breaking this linkage is:

QUESTION ID:160

Upon application of the inhibitor, DBMIB (Dibromothymoquinone) which one of the following events in the chloroplast electron transport chain will NOT take place?

QUESTION ID:161

The reduction phase of Calvin-Benson cycle in Arabidopsis is inhibited. This can be attributed to the inactivation of:

QUESTION ID:162

Sucrose-phosphate synthase (SPS) is inhibited by SPS-kinase and activated by SPS-phosphatase. It is known that a high ratio of Glucose-6-phosphate to inorganic phosphate maintains SPS in its active form. Which one of the following statements is true?

QUESTION ID:163

The bacterial flagellin activates a typical MAPK cascade consisting of MEKK1-MKK4-MPK6 leading to the activation of ACS6 enzyme involved in ethylene biosynthesis in plants. Which one of the following events will be true in a transgenic Arabidopsis plant overexpressing the constitutively active form of MKK4?

QUESTION ID:164

Which one of the following statements is correct during gibberellic acid (GA) signal transduction in plants?

QUESTION ID:165

In CLAVATA (clv) mutant of Arabidopsis, Shoot Apical Meristem (SAM) size and expression of WUSCHEL (WUS) is increased. SAM size is reduced in wus mutant plants. Choose the correct statement regarding the function of these two genes:

QUESTION ID:166

Any DNA fragment can be used as a STS marker provided it fulfills one of the following conditions:

QUESTION ID:167

Which one of the following conditions eliminates the possibility of horizontal gene transfer from a transgenic plant?

QUESTION ID:168

Which one of the following transposition events would increase the DNA content in a given cell?

QUESTION ID:169

Flower development in plants is regulated by the ABC model of gene regulation. Members of this gene family are characterized by which one of the following domains?

QUESTION ID:170

In which one of the following PCR assays only one primer is used for amplification?

QUESTION ID:171

Gaps in certain regions of the genome have been observed upon sequencing of a xerohalophyte. Which one of the following databases will NOT be of any use in filling up these gaps?

QUESTION ID:172

One of the most popular genes used for developing rice tolerant to flooding stress is:

QUESTION ID:173

“Refugia” is a practice commonly employed to control

QUESTION ID:174

Oat seeds will usually NOT germinate when exposed to Red (R) and Far red (FR) light in the following order:

QUESTION ID:175

Vir genes are necessary for the transfer of the T-DNA into the host genome. The product of which one of the following genes is tightly associated with the 5′ end of the T-strand and helps in nuclear targeting?

QUESTION ID:176

A microorganism following Monod kinetics is grown in a chemostat with working volume of 5 L and inlet substrate concentration of 1g/L. If the μmax and Ks of the organism are 0.5 h-1 and 0.25g/L respectively, washout occurs when the flow rate (L.h-1) exceeds

QUESTION ID:177

How does the rate of a typical chemical reaction vary as a function of temperature?

QUESTION ID:178

An enzyme follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics with the following parameters: Vmax= 5 mM/s and Km= 2.5 mM. The reaction velocity would be:

QUESTION ID:179

A high cell density fermentation produces recombinant protein product which is 20% of the total cellular protein. The final cell density is 80 OD (1 OD = 0.4g of dry cell wt/L of which 50% is total cellular protein). Then the product concentration (g/L) is:

QUESTION ID:180

In a plug flow bioreactor running at steady state, 12.5% cells are recycled back to the inlet. If the cells grow at μmax=1 h-1 throughout the length of the reactor (L=124 cm), then the flow velocity should be

QUESTION ID:181

In a CSTR, first order reaction takes place converting A to B. If at a dilution rate (D)= 0.5 h-1, 50% of A gets converted to B, then the rate constant ‘k’ of the reaction is:

QUESTION ID:182

In a continuous crystallizer, 100 g of a saturated solution of sugar at 85% (w/w) enters the crystallizer and leaves the crystallizer at 70% (w/w). The weight of input solids converted to crystals (g) in the crystallizer is

QUESTION ID:183

We wish to produce a metabolite ‘X’ whose biosynthetic pathway is feedback inhibited in the wild type strain. A mutation, which leads to overproduction of X, is discovered in the gene coding for a homodimeric enzyme which catalyses the first step in the biosynthetic pathway of ‘X’. This mutation is most likely to occur at:

QUESTION ID:184

A new spherical resin (of radius 300 urn) has been developed in which only the outer layer is activated to a depth of 100 um (as shown in figure). The fraction of the activated volume is: 

QUESTION ID:185

In a fed batch cultivation, a specific growth rate of 0.2/h needs to be maintained. At the start of fedbatch cultivation, 200 mL/h of media is fed to 1000 mL of working volume. Quasi steady state shall be obtained if:

QUESTION ID:186

A recombinant protein is produced in Escherichia coli by two stage continuous cultivation at steady state. Upon induction of the culture in stage II, the specific growth rate of the culture decreased considerably. For an input flow rate in stage I of 100mL/h, a steady rate of product formation can only be obtained

QUESTION ID:187

Consider the scale up of a fermentation from a 10 L to 10,000 L while maintaining geometric similarity. Agitation speed was maintained at 500 rpm in the 10 L fermenter. If scale up is done based on constant tip speed, then the agitation speed in the larger reactor should be ………….rpm

QUESTION ID:188

A culture can grow independently in two carbon sources, glucose and hexadecane. Identify which one of the following statements is TRUE?

QUESTION ID:189

In mammalian cell culture based monoclonal antibody production, perfusion culture is preferred over continuous stirred tank culture, because the process results in:

QUESTION ID:190

A liquid stream is cooled from SOT to 30*C in a double pipe heat exchanger as illustrated below: 

Fluid flowing counter currently with this stream is heated from 15°C to 30°C. Calculate the log mean temperature difference. 

QUESTION ID:191

In a typical fermentation process the volumetric oxygen transfer coefficient (KLa) of the system was found to increase after the addition of antifoam agent. The most probable reason for this is:

QUESTION ID:192

In a batch microbial fermentation process the dissolved oxygen concentration (DOC) remains almost zero during growth. Which of the following methods will you use for the estimation of oxygen transfer rate while the fermentation is in progress?

QUESTION ID:193

Two columns of 1 m and 2 m height and of equal diameter are packed with beads containing immobilized enzyme. Substrate was fed to these two columns at flow rates of 10 mL/min (1 m column) and 20 mL /min (2 m column) and the corresponding conversion efficiencies obtained were 30% and 40% respectively. This demonstrates that the reaction is:

QUESTION ID:194

A food package label displays composition of the food product in g/100g as: protein = 8g, fat= 20g, carbohydrate= 60g (of which sugar is 20g). The calorific value of this product before and after complete replacement of sugar (w/w) by a non-calorific sweetener would be:

QUESTION ID:195

Two sucrose solutions ‘A’= 30g/100g and ‘B’= 60 g/100 g have to be mixed to prepare 1 kg of 50g/100g sugar syrup. The amounts of ‘A’ and ‘B’ solutions to be mixed would be:

QUESTION ID:196

A food product having water activity of 0.6 is exposed to conditions of 30°C and 70% R.H. This product will tend to ___________

QUESTION ID:197

The driving force for mass transfer by molecular diffusion is the difference in

QUESTION ID:198

Sedimentation efficiency depends on the relative strength of :

QUESTION ID:199

In anaerobic lactic acid fermentation by bacteria, glucose is partially oxidised to pyruvate followed by reduction to lactate:

QUESTION ID:200

Which one of the following is NOT used for partition based bio-separation?