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QUESTION ID:1

The activation energy (Ea) estimated for a reaction from the Arrhenius equation is 21KJ mol-1. If the frequency factor is assumed to be independent of temperature, then the ratio of the rate constants determined at 298 K and 260 K is (rounded off to two decimal places). (Given: Gas constant, R = 8.315 J K.-1 mo1-1) 

QUESTION ID:2

At a given pressure, a substance is heated from 2000 K to 2600 K. If the entropy of the substance is 60 Jk-1 mol-1and is assumed to be constant over the given temperature range. then the change in the chemical potential (in kJ mol-1) of the substance is 

QUESTION ID:3

Which one of the following hormones initiates a signaling cascade by directly binding to an intra-cellular receptor?

QUESTION ID:4

Which one of the following bonds is NOT present in ATP? 

QUESTION ID:5

The reaction involved in the direct conversion of L-phenylalanine to L-tyrosine is 

QUESTION ID:6

The human major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is 

QUESTION ID:7

Har Gobind Khorana and Marshall Nirenberg elucidated the genetic code by using a cell-free protein synthesizing system. It was found that poly(U) and poly(C) result in the synthesis of poly(L-Phe) and poly(L-Pro), respectively. Based on these observations, which one of the following conclusions is correct? 

QUESTION ID:8

Binding of an antibody to its cognate antigen does NOT involve 

QUESTION ID:9

A globular protein of molecular weight 50 kDa exists as a mixture of monomers and dimers in solution. The most appropriate technique for the separation of these two forms of the protein is

QUESTION ID:10

Choose the correct order of molecules according to their ability to diffuse across a lipid bilayer. 

QUESTION ID:11

When one glucose unit from glycogen gets converted to lactate in the muscle, the net number of ATP molecules produced is  

QUESTION ID:12

Considering that the three pKas of histidine are pK1=1.8, pK2=9.2 and pKR=6.0, its isoelectric point will be (rounded off to one decimal place). 

QUESTION ID:13

One mole of a native protein upon N-terminal analysis yielded one mole each of Asp and Val. Therefore, the protein in its native state exists as a

QUESTION ID:14

The prosthetic groups/cofactors involved in both le- and 2e- transfer in the mitochondrial electron transport chain are 

QUESTION ID:15

Match the items in Group I with the most appropriate items in Group II and choose the correct option. 

Group IGroup II
P. Integrin1. Phagocytosis in the neural tissue
Q. Microglial cell2. Antigen processing by cross-presentation
R. TLR-73. Single stranded RNA recognition
S. Dendritic cell4. Binding of cells to endothelium

QUESTION ID:16

The correct combination of glycosidic linkages present in glycogen is 

QUESTION ID:17

Polypeptides are either biosynthesized on the ribosomes using an mRNA template or chemically synthesized by the Merrifield's solid phase method. The correct directions of peptide synthesis are 

QUESTION ID:18

A solution absorbs 20% of the incident light in a cuvette of path length 1.0 cm. The amount of light transmitted by the same solution in a cuvette of 3.0 cm path length is % (rounded off to one decimal place). 

QUESTION ID:19

The second pKa of phosphoric acid is 6.8. The ratio of Na2HPO4 to NaH2PO4 required to obtain a buffer of pH 7.0 is (rounded off to two decimal places). 

QUESTION ID:20

A PCR in a 100 Micro L reaction volume, containing two primers at a concentration of 0.2 Micro M each, is set up to amplify a 250 base pair DNA fragment. Consider the average molecular weight of one base pair as 660 Da. If the primers are fully consumed by the end of the reaction, the amount of the final PCR product formed is Micro g (rounded off to one decimal place). 

QUESTION ID:21

An enzyme obeying Michaelis-Menten kinetics shows a reaction velocity (v) of 10 micro mol/min when the substrate concentration [S] equals its Km. The maximal velocity Vmax for this enzyme is Micro mol/min (correct to integer number). (KM is Michaelis-Menten constant) 

QUESTION ID:22

The enzyme glucose isomerase catalyzes the inter-conversion of glucose and fructose as shown. 

Glucose Fructose The ΔGo for this reaction is zero kcal/mol. After adding glucose isomerase to a 0.12 M glucose solution and allowing the reaction to attain equilibrium, the final concentration of fructose in the reaction mixture will be mM. 

QUESTION ID:23

Indefinite stamen is a characteristic feature of which of the following plant families? 

QUESTION ID:24

In natural condition, which of the following plants DOES NOT exhibit anomalous secondary growth? 

QUESTION ID:25

In a typical angiosperm under natural condition, primary meristems are usually established during 

QUESTION ID:26

2-Methoxy-3, 6-dichlorobenzoic acid belongs to which class of plant growth regulators? 

QUESTION ID:27

In a typical green plant, the first stable product of Calvin cycle is

QUESTION ID:28

Among the following, which best describes an organism that lives at the expense of other organisms, harmful but usually not killing? 

QUESTION ID:29

The oleo-gum resin asafoetida (hing) is obtained from the cut surface or 

QUESTION ID:30

Bakanae' disease or 'foolish seedling' disease is caused by 

QUESTION ID:31

Which of the following chemicals is used for doubling of chromosome numbers during production of 'doubled haploids' in crop plants?

QUESTION ID:32

An mRNA of a nuclear encoded plant gene, DSH2O has an ORF of 1353 nucleotides. Provided that average molecular weight of amino acid is 110 Dalton (Da), calculated molecular weight of DSH2O protein in kDa (round oil to I decimal place) is 

QUESTION ID:33

Group I. Group n and Group III represent enzyme, product of the enzymatic reaction, and metabolic process, respectively. 

The CORRECT combination for Group I. Group II and Group III

QUESTION ID:34

Match the following in CORRECT combination between Group I and Group II with reference to the agents that interfere with oxidative phosphorylation  P. 

Group IGroup II
P. Cyanidei. Blocks electron transfer from cyt b to cyt c1
Q. Antimycin Aii. Inhibits F1
R. Aurovertiniii. Uncoupling of phosphorylation from electron transfer
S. 2,4-Dinitrophenoliv. Inhibits cytochrome oxidase
v. Inhibits K+ ionophore

QUESTION ID:35

In relation to Agrobacterium mediated genetic engineering in plants, match the following in CORRECT combination 

Gene nameFunction
P. virAi. Acetosyringone receptor
Q. virBii. Conjugal tube formation
R. virD1iii. Topoisomerase
S. virGiv. Inducer of all vir operons
v. Octopine synthesis

QUESTION ID:36

Match the plant part (Group I) with the product obtained (Group II) and the representative plant species (Group HI) in CORRECT combination 

Group IGroup IIGroup III
P. Barki. Tannins1. Papaver somniferum
Q. Leafii. Saffron2. Camellia sinensis
R. Floweriii. Codeine3. Cinnamomum zeylanicum
S. Fruitiv. Aromatic oil4. Crocus sativus

QUESTION ID:37

Select the CORRECT combination by matching the disease, causal organism and the affected plant. 

DiseaseCausal organismAffected plant
P. Stem rusti. Cercospora personata1. Wheat
Q. Wart diseaseii. Plasmopara viticola2. Ground nut
R. Tikka/leaf spotiii. Synchytrium endobioticum3. Potato
S. Downey mildewiv. Puccinia graminis4. Grape
5. Apple
6. Rice

QUESTION ID:38

Match the following alkaloids with their uses and source plants in CORRECT combination 

AlkaloidUseSource plant
P. Morphinei. Anti-cancer1. Cinchona officinalis
Q. Quinineii. Analgesic2. Catharanthus roseus
R. Atropineiii. Anti-cholinergic3. Papaver somniferum
S. Vinblastineiv. Anti-malarial4. Hyoscyamus niger

QUESTION ID:39

Match the following ecological terms with their appropriate definitions Term Definition P. Niche i. Position of a species in food chain 

TermDefinition
P. Nichei. Position of a species in food chain
Q. Biotasii. Place of a living organism in the biotic environment and its relations to food and enemies
R. Trophic leveliii. Physical environment of an organism
S. Habitativ. Totality of organisms (flora and fauna) in a given place or region

QUESTION ID:40

Arrange the following 'water reservoirs of earth' in decreasing order of water volume 
P- Streams
Q- Groundwater
R- Glaciers 
S- Lakes and inland seas 

QUESTION ID:41

Selection markers and the corresponding genes used in plant genetic engineering are given below


QUESTION ID:42

A double homozygous mutant develops green and wrinkled seeds. When it was crossed with a true-breeding plant having yellow and round seeds, all the Fl plants developed yellow and round seeds. After self-fertilization of Fl, the calculated percentage probability of plants with green and wrinkled seeds in the F2 population (round off to 2 decimal places) is  

QUESTION ID:43

The technique of microbial "pure culture" was pioneered by 

QUESTION ID:44

The antibacterial trimethoprim is an inhibitor of 

QUESTION ID:45

Choose the correct taxonomical hierarchy among the following: 

QUESTION ID:46

Shifting a Saccharomyces cerevisiae culture from fermentative to aerobic respiratory mode will 

QUESTION ID:47

Which one of the following diseases is treated by a neuraminidase inhibitor?

QUESTION ID:48

Which one of the following does NOT provide three-dimensional images? 

QUESTION ID:49

Which one of the following will increase the resolution of a light microscope? 

QUESTION ID:50

Which one of the following conditions favors maximum expression of lac operon genes in E. coli? 

QUESTION ID:51

Match the cellular organelle in Group 1 with its function in Group II 

Group IGroup II
P. Golgi apparatus1. Lipid degradation
Q. Nucleolus2. Protein degradation
R. Peroxisome3. Protein sorting
S. Proteasome4. Ribosomal RNA synthesis

QUESTION ID:52

 A 250 microl of bacteriophage stock containing 8x108phages/ml is added to 500111 of E. coli culture containing 4x108 cells/ml . The multiplicity of infection is  

QUESTION ID:53

Digestion of an immunoglobulin G (lgG) molecule with pepsin will NOT 

QUESTION ID:54

Match the process involved in nitrogen or sulfur cycle in Group I with the corresponding microbe in Group II 

Group IGroup II
P. Denitrification1. Azotobacter
Q. Nitrogen fixation by free-living microbe2. Beggiatoa
R. Oxidation of H2S to sulfur3. Pseudomonas
S. Nitrogen fixation by a symbiotic microbe4. Rhizobium

QUESTION ID:55

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]. 
Assertion [a]: Diphtheria exotoxin is an example of A-B type toxin. 
Reason [r]: The A component of the toxin is released from the hot cell while the B component inhibits protein synthesis and kills the host cell. 

QUESTION ID:56

Which one of the following statements about control of microbial growth is NOT correct? 

QUESTION ID:57

An example of a differential and selective medium in which colonies of Gram-negative bacteria produce large amounts of acidic products and appear green with a  metallic sheen is

QUESTION ID:58

Which one of the following is an example of substrate level phosphorylation?

QUESTION ID:59

A bacterial culture containing 3 x 105 live cells was exposed to a newly developed sterilizing agent. After 30 minutes of exposure, 3 live cells remained in culture. The decimal reduction time (in minutes) for the new agent is  

QUESTION ID:60

A  bacterial culture has a generation time of 34 minutes. The time taken (in minutes, rounded off to two decimal places) for the OD550 of this exponentially growing culture to increase from 0.25 to 0.85 is 
Assume that OD550 has a linear relationship with the cell density. 

QUESTION ID:61

A 100 microl aliquot (104 dilution) of the bacterial culture plated on the nutrient agar gave 4 colonies. The bacterial stock concentration (in million cells/ml, rounded off to one decimal place) is  

QUESTION ID:62

continuous bacterial culture carried out in a chemostat is set to a flow rate of 40 ml/hr. The culture volume is equivalent to that of a cubical container having 10 cm sides. The dilution rate (in hr-1, rounded off to two decimal places) of this system is  

QUESTION ID:63

Which ONE of following leucocytes is phagocytic and has clear cytoplasm?

QUESTION ID:64

Which ONE of the following techniques can be used for detecting the subcellular
localization of serotonin receptor in intact cells? 

QUESTION ID:65

Which ONE of the following is NOT a site for in situ conservation? 

QUESTION ID:66

Which ONE of the following is the precursor molecule for corticosteroids?

QUESTION ID:67

Transitional epithelia is found in which ONE of the following organs? 

QUESTION ID:68

Visual signal transduction cascade is activated by rhodopsin and involves degradation rather than synthesis of which ONE of the following second messenger molecules?

QUESTION ID:69

The genomes of both human and Drosophila code for an amylase that acts on the same substrate. However, the sequence of nucleotides in the genes encoding the two is dissimilar. This is an example of which ONE of the following types of evolution?

QUESTION ID:70

"Round dance" is performed by forager bees to indicate the distance between a food source and their colony. Which ONE of the following best represents this distance?

QUESTION ID:71

Which ONE of the following phyla have choanocytes? 

QUESTION ID:72

Which ONE of the following glial cells is NOT derived from the ectoderm? 

QUESTION ID:73

Tarantulas and mosquitoes both belong to the phylum Arthropoda. Which ONE of the following represents the correct number of legs in them respectively? 

QUESTION ID:74

Match the following subcellular organelles in Column I with associated functions in Column II 

Column IColumn II
P. Nucleolus(i) Glycoprotein biosynthesis
Q. Peroxisomes(ii) Oxidation of fatty acids and amino acids
R. Endoplasmic reticulum(iii) Protein trafficking
S. Golgi bodies(iv) Ribosome biogenesis

QUESTION ID:75

Match the following genetic disorders in Column I with associated typical chromosomal changes mentioned in Column II

Column IColumn II
P. Klinefelter syndrome(i) 45,XO
Q. Down syndrome(ii) 5p minus
R. Turner syndrome(iii) 47,XXY
S. Cri du chat syndrome(iv) Trisomy 21

QUESTION ID:76

Match the following components listed in Column I with their respective organs in Column II

Column IColumn II
P. Endolymph(i) Testes
Q. Vitreous humour(ii) Ear
R. Vas deferens(iii) Ovary
S. Corpus luteum(iv) Eye

QUESTION ID:77

Match the following digestive enzymes in Column I with their respective functions in Column II. 

Column IColumn II
P. Erepsin(i) converts proteins to peptides
Q. Steapsin(ii) activates trypsinogen to trypsin
R. Pepsin(iii) converts fat into fatty acid and glycerol
S. Enterokinase(iv) converts polypeptides to amino acids

QUESTION ID:78

Which ONE of the following graphs represents the relationship between ventricular end-diastolic volume and cardiac output in a healthy adult individual at rest (solid line) and upon exercise (dotted line)? 

QUESTION ID:79

Match the household insect vectors in Column I with their associated diseases in  Column II. 

Column IColumn II
P. Kissing bug (Hemiptera)(i) Bubonic plague
Q. Sand fly (Diptera)(ii) Tularemia
R. Deer fly (Diptera)(iii) Chagas disease
S. Oriental rat flea (Siphoneptera)(iv) Kala azar

QUESTION ID:80

Match the proteins in Column I with the organs in which they are maximally expressed in Column II. 

Column IColumn II
P. Keratin(i) Liver
Q. Surfactants(ii) Pancreas
R. Pro-carboxypeptidase(iii) Lung
S. Albumin(iv) Skin

QUESTION ID:81

The graph below shows the activity of enzyme pepsin in the presence of inhibitors aliphatic alcohols (P) or N-acetyl-l-phenylalanine (Q). Which ONE of the following represents the nature of inhibition by P and Q, respectively? 

QUESTION ID:82

In Drosophila, the red eye phenotype (W) is dominant over the recessive white eye mutant (w). In a mixed population of red and white eye flies of 10,000 individuals, 3,600 flies were white eyed. The percentage of the heterozygous red eye flies in this population is  

QUESTION ID:83

The enzyme majorly involved in postmortem degradation of muscle proteins is

QUESTION ID:84

Which of the following is the correct pair of essential fatty acids? 

QUESTION ID:85

Nisin A is produced by

QUESTION ID:86

Which of the following bacteria will stain purple color after Gram staining? 

QUESTION ID:87

The enzyme system used for removal of glucose from egg white prior to its drying consists of 

QUESTION ID:88

The INCORRECT pair of food borne illness and its causative microorganism is

QUESTION ID:89

Which of the following is commonly used as a preservative in the tomato sauce? 

QUESTION ID:90

 A fluid with flow behaviour index less than one (n < I) is 

QUESTION ID:91

The velocity of 2.2 gm diameter fat particles inside a centrifuge, running at 6000 rpm and 20 °C, is 0.25 mm s-1. The velocity of 1.5 .tm diameter fat particles inside the same centrifuge running at 7500 rpm and same temperature (round off to 2 decimal places) will be mm s-1

QUESTION ID:92

The initial population of a bacterial strain increases from 1x104 cells per mL to 1x106 cells per mL in 120 minutes. The generation time for this strain (round off to 2 decimal places) is minutes. 

QUESTION ID:93

Match the protein in Column I with its food source in Column II.

Column IColumn II
P. Zein1. Soybean
Q. Gluten2. Maize
R. Glycinin3. Egg
S. Ovalbumin4. Wheat

QUESTION ID:94

Match the carbohydrate in Column I with corresponding enzyme used for its hydrolysis in Column II. 

Column IColumn II
P. Pectin1. Xylanase
Q. Lactose2. β-galactosidase
R. Hemicellulose3. Polygalacturonase
S. Inulin4. β-fructofuranosidase

QUESTION ID:95

Match the edible oil refining stage in Column I with its purpose in Column II. 

Column IColumn II
P. Degumming1. Separation of triglycerides
Q. Neutralization2. Removal of pigments
R. Bleaching3. Removal of phosphatides
S. Winterization4. Removal of free fatty acids

QUESTION ID:96

Match the food material in Column I with its related term in Column II

Column IColumn II
P. Coffee1. Wort
Q. Cocoa2. Must
R. Beer3. Arabica
S. Wine4. Theobroma

QUESTION ID:97

Match the component/system in Column 1 with the peeling method for fruits and vegetables in Column II. 
   
Column IColumn II
P. Lye solution1. Flash peeling
Q. Carborundum rollers2. Flame peeling
R. Pressure vessel3. Abrasion peeling
S. Conveyor belt4. Caustic peeling

QUESTION ID:98

Which among the given options correctly explains the nature of the microbial culture represented by lines 1, 2 and 3 in the following figure? 

QUESTION ID:99

Match the equation/law in Column I with its application in Column II

Column IColumn II
P. Plank's equation1. Terminal velocity
Q. Arrhenius equation2. Freezing time
R. Guggenheim-Anderson-de Boer equation3. Activation energy
S. Stoke's law4. Monolayer moisture content

QUESTION ID:100

Match the absorber used in modified atmosphere packaging and storage in Column I with the scavenger in Column II 

Column IColumn II
P. Oxygen absorber1. Calcium chloride
Q. Carbon dioxide absorber2. Magnesium oxide
R. Ethylene absorber3. Ferric oxide
S. Moisture absorber4. Potassium permanganate

QUESTION ID:101

During extrusion cooking, food materials are generally subjected to a combination of 

QUESTION ID:102

An orange juice flowing at 0.80 kg s' enters a counter current double pipe heat exchanger at 20 °C and leaves at 72 °C. Inlet and outlet temperatures of the hot water used as heating medium in the exchanger are 81 °C and 74 °C, respectively. The specific heat of the orange juice is 3.74 kJ kg-1 K-1and overall heat transfer coefficient is 492 W m 2 10. The heat transfer surface area (round off to 2 decimal places) will be m2.