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Previous Year Questions

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TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. 
The principal presented the chief guest with a . as token of appreciation.

QUESTION ID:2

Choose the appropriate word/phrase, out of the four options given below, to complete the following sentence: 
Frogs

QUESTION ID:3

Choose the word most similar in meaning to the given word: 
Educe 

QUESTION ID:4


QUESTION ID:5

If log. (5/7) = -1/3, then the value of x is 

QUESTION ID:6

The following question presents a sentence, part of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Following the requirements of the standard written English, select the answer that produces the most effective sentence. 
Tuberculosis, together with its effects, ranks one of the leading causes of death in India. 

QUESTION ID:7

Read the following paragraph and choose the correct statement. 
Climate change has reduced human security and threatened human well being. An ignored reality of human progress is that human security largely depends upon environmental security. But on the contrary, human progress seems contradictory to environmental security. To keep up both at the required level is a challenge to be addressed by one and all One of the ways to curb the climate change may be suitable scientific innovations, while the other may be the Gandhian perspective on small scale progress with focus on sustainability. 

QUESTION ID:8

NAT Fill in the mussing value 


QUESTION ID:9

A cube of side 3 units is formed using a set of smaller cubes of side 1 unit. Find the proportion of the number of Ewes of the smaller cubes visible to those which are NOT visible. 

QUESTION ID:10

Humpty Dumpty sits on a wall every day while having lunch. The wall sometimes breaks. A person sitting on the wall falls if the wall breaks. 
Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences? 

QUESTION ID:11

The molecule having net 'non-zero dipole moment' is 

QUESTION ID:12

The Diels-Alder adduct from the reaction between cyclopentadiene and benzyne is 

QUESTION ID:13

The number of possible enantiomeric pair(s) in HOOC—CH(OH)-CH(OH)-COOH is  

QUESTION ID:14

For the electrochemical reaction, Cu2+(aq) + Zn(s) Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq) the equilibrium constant at 25 °C is 1.7 x 1037. The change in standard Gibbs free energy (AG") for this reaction at that temperature will be  ................. kJmol-1 (up to one decimal place). (Given: R = 8314 k-1Jmol-1 ) 

QUESTION ID:15

Among the following diagrams, the one that correctly describes a zero order reaction (X —> product) is (Given: [X]. = initial concentration of reactant X; [X] = concentration of reactant X at time t and t1/2= half-life period of reactant X)

QUESTION ID:16

If the radius of first Bohr orbit is 0.53 A0, then the radius of the third Bohr orbit is 

QUESTION ID:17

If 50 mL of 0.02 M HCl is added to 950 mL of H20, then the pH of the final solution will be 

QUESTION ID:18

Stability of [CrCl6]3- (X), [MnCl6]3- (Y),  and [FeCl6]3- (Z) follows the order (Given: Atomic numbers of Cr = 24, Mn = 25 and Fe = 26) 

QUESTION ID:19

Among the following pairs, the paramagnetic and diamagnetic species, respectively, are 

QUESTION ID:20

In compounds K4[Fe(CN)6] (P) and fe(C0)5 (Q), the iron metal center is bonded to

QUESTION ID:21

Among the following reactions, the one that produces achiral alcohol (after hydrolysis) is 

QUESTION ID:22

The major product from the following reaction is 

QUESTION ID:23

The order of resonance energy for the following molecules is 


QUESTION ID:24

The molar enthalpy of vaporization for a liquid (normal boiling point = 78.3 °C) is 39 kJ more. If the liquid has to boil at 25 °C, the pressure must be reduced to Torr (up to one decimal place). (Given: R = 8.314 jK-1mol-1; 1 atm = 760 Torr) 

QUESTION ID:25

For the process, at 0 °C and 1 atm, the coned statement is

QUESTION ID:26

Which one of the following small molecules is a prerequisite for fatty acid oxidation? 

QUESTION ID:27

Which one of the following bases is NOT found in the T-arm of an aminoacyl t-RNA? 

QUESTION ID:28

Oxidation of one molecule of glucose via the glycerol-phosphate shuttle produces 

QUESTION ID:29

Ribulose-5-phosphate epimerase is involved in which one of the following processes? 

QUESTION ID:30

Proteolytic enzymes are usually biosynthesized as large, inactive precursors known as 

QUESTION ID:31

The formation of a carbocation, also called an oxonium ion, occurs during the reaction catalyzed by 

QUESTION ID:32

Which one of the following amino acid substitutions is likely to cause the largest change in protein conformation? 

QUESTION ID:33

Which one of the following does NOT constitute the lipid moiety in lipid-linked membrane proteins?

QUESTION ID:34

A closed circular B-DNA of 4000 base pairs is negatively supercoiled by introduction of 4 writhes. The super helical density of the resultant DNA molecule will be  

QUESTION ID:35

Which one of the following is NOT a receptor tyrosine kinase? 

QUESTION ID:36

Match the entries in Column-1 with those in Column-2 

Column-1Column-2
P. Vitamin B11. Thiamine pyrophosphate
Q. Carboxypeptidase2. Aconitase
R. TCA cycle3. Sucrose
S. Reducing sugar4. Zn2+
5. Riboflavin
6. Lactose

QUESTION ID:37

The following table provides information about four proteins. 

Which one of the following options correctly identifies the order of elution in the exclusion chromatography and the increasing order of mobility in SDS polyacrylamide gel? 

QUESTION ID:38

The predicted molar extinction coefficient at 280 nm for the peptide GEEFHISFLLM1FGAWSTHMYRTYWFIHEMISTRY is ........ M-1cm -1
[Molar extinction coefficients for phenylalanine, tryptophan and tyrosine at 280 nm are 200, 5600 and 1400 M-lcm-1, respectively] 

QUESTION ID:39

Match the contents of Column I with the most appropriate options in Column II 

Column IColumn II
P. Complement C1qi. CD34
Q. L-Selectinii. Complement C5b
R. Membrane Attack Complexiii. Fc region of antibody
S. T-Helper cellsiv. Complement C5a
v. CD40L

QUESTION ID:40

The value of AG at 37 °C for the movement of Ca2+ ions from the endoplasmic reticulum where [Ca2+ ] is 1 mM to the cytosol where [Ca- ] is 0.1 at —50 mV membrane potential is kJ mot-1.  [ R = 8314 JK -1mol -1 and 1 Faraday = 96500 Coulombs] 

QUESTION ID:41

 
Which of the following identifies the correctly matched pairs? 

QUESTION ID:42

Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT about hemoglobin (Hb)?

I. Hb demonstrates higher oxygen carrying capacity compared to myoglobin

II. There is covalent bonding between the four subunits of Hb

III. During deoxygenation the loss of the first oxygen molecule from oxygenated H13 promotes the dissociation of oxygen from the other subunits 

QUESTION ID:43

A 1.2 kb DNA fragment was used as a template for PCR amplification using primers P1, P2, P3 and P4 as shown in the scheme below. The annealing positions of primers on the template are indicated by numbers. Primers P2 and P3 contain single base mismatches as indicated by filled triangles. 

PCR was performed using primer pair P1 and P3 in one vial and P2 and P4 in another vial. The purified PCR products from the two vials were mixed and subjected to another round of PCR with primers P1 and P4. The final PCR product will correspond to a

QUESTION ID:44

A cell suspension was subjected to membrane disruption followed by differential centrifugation to fractionate the cellular component& Match the centrifugal conditions in Column I to the appropriate subcellular components in Column II

Column I Column II 
P. 1000 g, 10 mini. Microsomes and small vesicles
Q. 20000 g, 30 minii. Ribosomes
R. 80000 g, 1 houriii. Nuclei
S. 150000 g, 3 hoursiv. Lysosomes and peroxisomes

QUESTION ID:45

Given below are the maps of a 1200 base pairs (bp) long DNA insert and a 3000 by expression vector. The BamHl (B) and HindIII (H) restriction sites and DNA length between them are indicated in base pairs. 


The insert is cloned into the vector at the BamHI site and the desired orientation is shown by the arrow. After cloning, the orientation of the insert in the recombinant plasmid is tested by complete HindIll digestion followed by agarose gel electrophoresis. Which one of the following band patterns reveals the correct orientation of the insert in the construct? 

QUESTION ID:46

Nuclear membrane is absent in 

QUESTION ID:47

An organized and differentiated cell having cytoplasm but no nucleus is found in

QUESTION ID:48

Double haploids in plants can be induced by 

QUESTION ID:49

During fatty acid biosynthesis, the first intermediate malonyl-CoA is formed from 

QUESTION ID:50

Which of the following techniques is NOT applicable for evaluating the expression of a transgene? 

QUESTION ID:51

Identify the CORRECT family possessing the following characters: presence of glucosinolates, tetradynamous stamens, superior ovary with parietal placentation and siliqua type fruit 

QUESTION ID:52

 Which of the following reduces the transpiration rate when applied to aerial parts of plants?

QUESTION ID:53

A tube like membrane structure that forms the connection between the endoplasmic reticultun of neighboring cells through plasmodesmata is 

QUESTION ID:54

Which one of the followings is NOT a cryoprotectant for plant tissue?

QUESTION ID:55

Two similar holotypes are called 

QUESTION ID:56

A cross was made between AABBCCDDEE and aabbccddee. The resultants F1 were selfed. Applying Mendelian principle, PREDICT the proportion of phenotype showing all the recessive characters in F2 generation_ 

QUESTION ID:57

Identify the CORRECT statements with respect to functioning of ecosystem. 
P. A food chain is a series of organisms, each one feeding on the organism succeeding it
Q. Food web presents a complete picture of the feeding relationships in any given ecosystem
R. In ecosystem, energy flows in unidirectional way, whereas nutrients flow in cyclic fashion
S. In biogeochemical cycles, nutrients do not alternate between organisms and environment 

QUESTION ID:58

Match the name of the diseases with their causal organisms. 

DiseaseCausal Organism
P. Loose smut of wheat1. Cercospora personata
Q. Wart disease of potato2. Alternaria solani
R. Panama disease of banana3. Synchytrium endobioticum
S. Tikka disease of groundnut4. Ustilago tritici
5. Fusarium oxysporum
6. Erwinia amylovora

QUESTION ID:59

Match the plant products with their sources and the plant parts from which they are obtained. 

ProductSourcePlant part
P. Annatto1. Acacia catechui. Seed
Q. Cutch2. Rubia tinctorumii. Leaf
R. Henna3. Bixa orellanaiii. Root
S. Alizarin4. Lawsonia inermisiv. Stem

QUESTION ID:60

Match the floral structures with the families and representative plant species. 

Floral structureFamilyPlant
P. Gynostegium1. Orchidaceaei. Ocimum sanctum
Q. Gynostemium2. Lamiaceaeii. Cleome gynandra
R. Gynobasic style3. Capparidaceaeiii. Calotropis procera
S. Gynophore4. Asclepiadaceaeiv. Vanilla planifolia

QUESTION ID:61

Identify the INCORRECT statements with respect to plastid transformation. 
P. Antibiotic used for selection of trasplastomic plant is spectinomycin
Q. Chances of gene escape from transplastomic plants are high
R. Microprojectile bombardment is the method of DNA delivery
S. Levels of transgene expression are low  

QUESTION ID:62

Which of the following statements are TRUE with regard to the similarities between Crassulacean Acid Metabolism (CAM) and C4 cycle? 
P. Stomata open during night and remain closed during the day
Q. PEPcase is the carboxylating enzyme to form C4 acid
R. C4 acid is decarboxylated to provide CO2 for C3 cycle
S. Kranz anatomy is predominant in both CAM and C4 plants 

QUESTION ID:63

With respect to germination of seeds, the CORRECT sequence of events is 
P. Seed imbibes water
Q. Mobilization of starch reserve to embryo
R. Diffusion of gibberellin from embryo to aleurone layer
S. Synthesis of a-amylase in the aleurone layer 

QUESTION ID:64

Identify the CORRECT statements with regard to the function of plant hormones 
R ABA is synthesized from chorismate and promotes viviparous germination
Q. Auxin induces acidification of cell wall followed by turgour-induced cell expansion
R. Gibberellin-reponsive genes become activated by the repression of DELLA protein
S. Cytokinin regulates the GI to M transition in the cell cycle 

QUESTION ID:65

Statements given below are either TRUE (I) or FALSE (F). Find the correct combination. 
P. Somatic embryo is unipolar in nature
Q. Heterokaryon can be selected using a fluorescence-activated cell sorter (FACS)
R.  The term somaclonal variation is coined by Larkin and Scowaoft
S. Differentiation of shoot buds during in vitro culture is known as somatic embryogenesis 

QUESTION ID:66

Lophotrichous bacteria have 

QUESTION ID:67

In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is

QUESTION ID:68

A process in which fatty acids are shortened by two carbons at a time resulting in release of acetyl-CoA is known as 

QUESTION ID:69

Limulus Amoebocyte Lysate (LAL) assay is used to identify the presence of

QUESTION ID:70

Match scientists in Group I with terms related to their major scientific contributions in Group II 

Group IGroup II
(P) Sanger(i) DNA double helix structure
(Q) Watson and Crick(ii) DNA sequencing
(R) Waksman(iii) Complement
(S) Bordet(iv) Streptomycin
(v) Immune tolerance

QUESTION ID:71

Base-pair substitutions caused by the chemical mutagen ethyl methane sulfonate are a result of

QUESTION ID:72

The classical way of representing taxonomic hierarchy of living organisms in ASCENDINGORDER is 

QUESTION ID:73

Of the following, the most effective method to kill bacterial endospores is 

QUESTION ID:74

The class of enzymes, which catalyze addition of groups to double bonds and non-hydrolytic removal of chemical groups, is

QUESTION ID:75

Anammox organisms carry out (A) 

QUESTION ID:76

Which combination of the following statements about specialized transduction is TRUE? 
(P) Specialized transducing phages can transport only certain genes between bacteria
(Q) Specialized transducing phages can transport any gene between bacteria
(R) Phage P22 is a specialized transducing phage
(S) Phage lambda is a specialized transducing phage 

QUESTION ID:77

Which combination of profiles in the following figure accurately represents the transport rate of glycerol and oxygen into E. coil cells as a function of their extracellular concentration? 


QUESTION ID:78

Which one of the following about the standard free energy change (AG') and the equilibrium constant (Keg) of an exergonic reaction. at pH 7.0, is TRUE? 

QUESTION ID:79

An oil immersion objective of a light microscope has a numerical aperture of 1.25. Using the Abbe equation, the maximum theoretical resolving power (in nm) of the microscope with this objective and blue light (wavelength =450 nm) is  

QUESTION ID:80

The working volume (in liter) of a chemostat with 0.1 h-1 dilution rate and 100 ml/h feed flow rate is 

QUESTION ID:81

If the decimal reduction time for spores of a certain bacterium at 121°C is 12 seconds, the time required (in minutes) to reduce 1010 spores to one spore by heating at 121°C is  

QUESTION ID:82

The doubling time (in minutes) of a bacterium with a specific growth rate of 23 h4 in 500 ml of growth medium is

QUESTION ID:83

A bacterial culture is grown using 2M mg/ml fructose as the sole source of carbon and energy. The bacterial biomass concentrations immediately after inoculation and at the end of the growth phase are 0.1 mg/ml and O9 mg/ml, respectively. Assuming complete utilization of the substrate, the bacterial growth yield (Y) on fructose is  

QUESTION ID:84

The volume (in ml) of a 1M mg/ml stock solution of ampicillin to be added to 0.1 liter of growth medium for achieving a final ampicillin concentration of 50 µg/ml is 

QUESTION ID:85

An E. coli strain is grown initially on glucose as the sole carbon source. Upon complete consumption of glucose following 12 h of growth, lactose is added as the sole carbon source and the strain is further grown for 12 h. Assuming that the E. coli strain has a functional wild type lac operon, which one of the following profiles is the most ACCURATE representation of beta - galactosidase (beta -gal) expression (in arbitrary units)? 

QUESTION ID:86

The term "paedomorphosis" refers to 

QUESTION ID:87

Which one of the following statements is TRUE when determining the age of a fossil using carbon dating? 

QUESTION ID:88

Constitutive enzymes are 

QUESTION ID:89

Which one of the following is a function of intermediate filaments? 

QUESTION ID:90

Which one of the following statements is FALSE with respect to phospholipids? 

QUESTION ID:91

Which one of the following organs is INCORRECTLY paired with its function?

QUESTION ID:92

Where do B lymphocytes acquire immune competence? 

QUESTION ID:93

Which one of the following life cycle stages of Plasmodium falciparum is infectious?

QUESTION ID:94

What is the role of the notochord during organogenesis in a vertebrate embryo? 

QUESTION ID:95

The behavior of young ducks following their mother is known as 

QUESTION ID:96

Match the species names with class names

P. Calotes versicolori. Insecta
Q. Periplaneta americanaii. Reptilia
R. Glyphidrilus birmancusiii. Actinopterygii
S. Clarias batracusiv. Clitellata

QUESTION ID:97

A population of spotted deer found in a national forest is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. For a particular genetic locus in this deer species, only two alleles A and a are possible. If the frequency of the A allele in this population is 0.6, and the frequency of the a allele is 0.4, what will be the frequency of the genotype Aa?

QUESTION ID:98

In Drosophila, the gene for eye colour is present on the X chromosome. When a red-eyed female was mated with a white-eyed male, a total of 100 progeny were obtained — 50 females and 50 males. Of the 50 females, 25 were red-eyed, and 25 were white-eyed. How many of the male progeny were red-eyed? 

QUESTION ID:99

Defect in poly-A tail formation in eukaryotic mRNA leads to

QUESTION ID:100

Assuming equal frequency for all 4 nucleotides (G, A, T, C), how many EcoRI recognition sites (GAATTC) are possible in a bacterial artificial chromosome of 100,000 base pairs?

QUESTION ID:101

Choose the correct option that shows pairing of the organelle to its function 

QUESTION ID:102

Choose the correct option based on your understanding of the circulatory system 

QUESTION ID:103

The popular birth control pills for women have a combination of synthetic forms of estradiol and progesterone. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT with regard to their function as contraceptive?

QUESTION ID:104

Which one of the following is consistent with the germplasm theory of August Weismann? 

QUESTION ID:105

Which one of the following statements DOES NOT explain altruism? 

QUESTION ID:106

Standard pasteurization protocol for milk is adequate for destroying

QUESTION ID:107

Which one of the following is NOT a component of an evaporator? 

QUESTION ID:108

Among the following animal foods, the fat content is least in 

QUESTION ID:109

The enzyme that hydrolyzes starch to maltose is

QUESTION ID:110

Which one of the following is NOT enriched in endosperm during parboiling of paddy? 

QUESTION ID:111

Heat-treated legume seed proteins are more digestible than those of untreated legume seed proteins due to 

QUESTION ID:112

What is the percent relative humidity at which both the dry bulb and wet bulb thermometers would record equal temperatures?

QUESTION ID:113

How many fold would the g-number of a centrifuge increase by doubling both the spinning speed and bowl diameter?

QUESTION ID:114

Prolonged fermentation of cocoa seeds lead to "off-taste" due to the release of 

QUESTION ID:115

The gradual decrease in viscosity of tomato paste during storage can be prevented by quickly heating it to 82 °C, because 

QUESTION ID:116

Match the enzyme in Group I with its corresponding application in Group II 

Group IGroup II
(P) Chymosin(1) Removal of cooked flavor from milk
(Q) Sulfhydryl oxidase(2) Soybean milk coagulation
(R) Î²-Galactosidase
(3) For rennet puddings
(S) Microbial proteases(4) Lactose removal

QUESTION ID:117

Milk is flowing at 0.12 m3/min in a 2.5 cm diameter pipe. The temperature of the milk is 21 °C and the corresponding viscosity and density are 2.1 x 10-3 Pas and 1029 kg/m3, respectively. if the flow is found to be turbulent under the given conditions, the Reynolds number is 

QUESTION ID:118

Whole milk (34,950 kg) containing 4% fat is to be separated in 6 h period into skim milk with 0.45% fat and cream with 45% fat. The flow rate of cream stream (kg/h) from the separator is 

QUESTION ID:119

Match the edible plant tissue in Group I with the type of carotenoid given in Group II 

Group IGroup II
(P) Corn(1) Lycopene
(Q) Red pepper(2) Î²-Carotene
(R) Pumpkin(3) Capsanthin
(S) Tomato(4) Lutein

QUESTION ID:120

Green tea is considered to be a more healthy option than black tea because it

QUESTION ID:121

A dilute pineapple juice is heated in a double pipe heat exchanger from 28 °C to 75 °C by heat exchanging with hot water flowing in shell in counter current direction_ Hot water is entering the shell at 95 °C and leaving at 85 °C. The log mean temperature difference (°C) is  

QUESTION ID:122

Granulated sugar, having an average particle size of 500 pm, is milled to produce icing sugar having an average particle size of 25 pm The power requirement was 10 kW as obtained by Rittingefs law. If the same mill were to be used to produce fondant sugar having an average particle size of 20 pm at the same capacity, the power requirement (kW) would be 

QUESTION ID:123

One ton of soybean containing 18% oil, 35% protein, 27.1% carbohydrates, 9.4% of fibre and ash, and 10.5% moisture is crushed and pressed. The residual oil content in the pressed cake is 6%. Assuming that there is no loss of protein and water with oil, the amount of oil (kg) obtained from the crusher is 

QUESTION ID:124

Match the processing method in Group I with the operation carried out in Group II 

Group IGroup II
(P) Degumming(1) Crystallization of triacylglycerol by cooling to remove fat crystals
(Q) Deacidifying(2) Passing heated oil over charcoal
(R) Bleaching(3) Using alkaline solution to remove fatty acids
(S) Winterizing(4) Wetting with water to remove lecithin

QUESTION ID:125

The order of succession of microbes in the spoilage of milk, involving
(P) Lactobacillus,
(Q) protein digesting bacteria,
(R) Lactococcus lactis,
(5) yeasts and molds, is