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Previous Year Questions

TLS Online TPP Program

QUESTION ID:1

CO reacts readily with 

QUESTION ID:2

Molecules that are NOT isoelectronic to NO2+ ion are 

QUESTION ID:3

The extensive quantity among the following is 

QUESTION ID:4

The compound that gives characteristic foul smell upon heating with potassium hydroxide and chloroform is 

QUESTION ID:5

The correct order of stability in water is 

QUESTION ID:6

The pair of molecules having non-linear structures is 

QUESTION ID:7

The decreasing order of bond lengths for 02, B2. N2 and C2 is

QUESTION ID:8

The octahedral metal oxide with the highest CFSE value is 

QUESTION ID:9

Assuming independent non-interacting electrons. the first ionization energy of Helium atom is 

QUESTION ID:10

For a reaction A B products, the following data was obtained. 
Ao and Bo are initial concentrations of A and B, respectively. The overall order of the reaction is 

QUESTION ID:11

The EMF for the following cell at 298.15 K is
Ag(s) I Ag+(aq., 0.01 M) 11 Ag+(aq.. 1.0 M) I Ag(s)
(Standard reduction potential for Ag+ e Ag is -0.80 V) 

QUESTION ID:12

One gram of a. protein is dissolved in one liter of water. The resulting solution exerts an osmotic pressure of 1.4 Torr at 298 K. Assuming that the protein does not ionize in solution, the molecular weight of the protein is g mot'. (R = 0.082 L atm mol-1K-1) 

QUESTION ID:13

The type of nucleophilic substitution and the possible products for each of the reactions P and Q are 


QUESTION ID:14

If mono-chlorination occurs at every carbon in the following reaction. the number of isomers (stereo isomers + constitutional isomers) that one can have is 

QUESTION ID:15

The major product in the following reaction is 


QUESTION ID:16

The molecular weight of a protein as determined by native PAGE is 400 kDa. This protein when run on a non-reducing SDS-PAGE gave a band of 200 kDa, and on a reducing SDS-PAGE, gave a band of 100 kDa. The protein has 

QUESTION ID:17

Which one of the following techniques CANNOT be used to determine the sequence of a novel protein? 

QUESTION ID:18

Which type of polyacrylamide gel can be used for analyzing the four different proteins listed below?
Protein P: 60 kDa. pI 4
Protein Q: 45 kDa. pI 8
Protein R: 60 kDa, pI 6
Protein S: 45 kDa. pI 7.5 

QUESTION ID:19

The number of fragments generated when the peptide `ANDCQEGKFMLKPDTWRYVSFMRPA' is subjected to complete digestion with trypsin are 

QUESTION ID:20

Puromycin is a structural analog of

QUESTION ID:21

Which one of the enzymes is responsible for arsenic toxicity?

QUESTION ID:22

Which one is TRUE for Calvin cycle? 

QUESTION ID:23

Administration of primaquine causes severe hemolytic anemia because it

QUESTION ID:24

Which one of the following will NOT form lipid bilayer?

QUESTION ID:25

Which one of the following features is NOT appropriate for Fab fragment of IgG ?

QUESTION ID:26

The duration of DNA synthesis (S phase) in plant cells is 11h and the DNA is replicated at a rate of 100 bp/s/fork. A plant species has about 3.0x 1010 by DNA is genome. The number of bidirectional forks per genome required for replication will be

QUESTION ID:27

In a PCR reaction, with one double stranded DNA of 600 bp. nano gam of DNA produced after 40 cycles of amplification will be

QUESTION ID:28

A solution containing GTP has molar extinction coefficient of 1.55x 104 mol-1dm3cm-3 at a given wavelength. The concentration of GTP solution is 1.290x10-5 mol dm-3 The absorbance of GTP solution in 1 cm cuvette at the same wavelength will be   

QUESTION ID:29

Which one of the following is NOT TRUE for class I MHC protein?

QUESTION ID:30

In an enzyme catalyzed reaction, the initial reaction velocity is only one fourth of its maximum velocity. If the substrate concentration is 3.0 x 10-3 mM, the value of Km in micro molar (µM) will be .... 

QUESTION ID:31

Match the following enzymes in column I with then cofactors in Column II  

QUESTION ID:32

Match the molecule in column I with Column II

QUESTION ID:33

In an in vitro dehydrogenation reaction of succinate catalyzed by succinate dehydrogenase, malonate is added. Which one of the following curves represents the effect of malonate on the catalysis of succinate dehydrogenase?

QUESTION ID:34

Cardiotonic steroids have ability to strengthen heart muscle contraction due to the fact that these steroids 

QUESTION ID:35

A newly isolated circular plasmid gave two bands of 3.2 and 3 kb on digestion with EcoRI and two bands of 5.0 kb and 1.2 kb on digestion with BamHI. Double digestion with EcoRI and BamHI, yielded four bands of 2.6 kb, 2.4 kb, 0.8 kb and 0.4 kb. Digestion with Sall led to disruption of ampicillin resistance gene cassette. The correct restriction map is 

QUESTION ID:36

As per the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG II, 2003) classification. which of the following plant families comprises of only single genus with single species? 

QUESTION ID:37

A cavity, lysigenous in orgin and possessing volatile oil is, o C din the pericarp of one of the following plants. Identify the CORRECT answer. 

QUESTION ID:38

Among the following, which genetic material is naturally inherited through maternal inheritance in higher plants? 

QUESTION ID:39

A typical floral meristem differs from shoot apical meristem on the basis of 

QUESTION ID:40

Which of the following plant hormones is a carotenoid-cleavage product? 

QUESTION ID:41

Two of the vir operons of Ti plasmid in Agrobacterium tumefaciens are constitutively expressed. 

QUESTION ID:42

Which of the following fungi is an example of obligate biotrophic plant pathogen? 

QUESTION ID:43

The phenomenon where an organism lives at the expense of another organism by harming it but not killing, is called 

QUESTION ID:44

Which of the following is TRUE for K-strategist species? 

QUESTION ID:45

Identify the INCORRECT statement with relation to plant secondary metabolites. 

QUESTION ID:46

Choose the CORRECT set of matches between group I and group II in relation to nitrogen fixation and assimilation 

QUESTION ID:47

Two plant cells M and N are lying side by side making direct contact. "M" has osmotic potential of -10 bar and pressure potential of 4 bar. On the other hand. “N" has osmotic potential  of -12 bar and pressure potential of 5 bar. 
Based on these data, what would be the direction of movement of water between M and N? 

QUESTION ID:48

Two independent non-segregating recessive mutants (ml and m;) display similar defects in petal formation. When they were crossed with each other (ml x m2). all the Fl plants developed normal petals. In view of this observation, which of the following conclusions is CORRECT? 

QUESTION ID:49

In a hypothetical trihybrid cross of three loci (viz. A, B, C), all were inherited in a complete dominant manner over their recessive alleles a, b, c, respectively. When a test cross between Fl and parent `aabbcc' was performed, following genotypes of eight phenotypically distinct classes were observed with respective numbers 
The genetic distance (up to one decimal) between A and C loci will be ..... cM.

QUESTION ID:50

In a typical sexually reproducing angiosperm plant, if an endosperm cell contains 4.8x108 nucleotide pairs of DNA, then a microsporocyte of this plant will have x`108 nucleotide pairs of DNA. 

QUESTION ID:51

Identify the CORRECT matching between group I and group II in relation to ecology 



QUESTION ID:52

Choose the CORRECT set of matches between group I and group II in relation to plant genetic transformation methods. 

QUESTION ID:53

Match the pathogen, disease caused and the affected plant in the CORRECT combination. 

QUESTION ID:54

Choose the plant part. its use and the source species in CORRECT combination. 

QUESTION ID:55

Which TWO of the following reactions are INCORRECT in relation to C2 oxidative photosynthetic carbon cycle in land plants? 
P. 2 (Ribulose-1,5-biphosphate) + 2(CO2) —> 2 (phosphoglycolate) + 2 (3-phosphoglycerate) + 4H+
Q. Serine + a-ketoglutarate —> hydroxypyruvate + glutamine
R. 2 (Phosphoglycolate) + 2(H20) —> 2 (glycolate) + 2Pi
S. Hydroxypyruvate + NADH + H+—> glycerate + NAD+

QUESTION ID:56

Which one of the following is the end product of dissimilatory sulfate reduction by sulfate reducing bacteria? 

QUESTION ID:57

Which one of the following is the terminal electron acceptor in the given metabolic reaction catalyzed by methanogens? 

QUESTION ID:58

Microbes that have their optimal growth rate near 15 °C but can still grow at 0 °C to 20 °C are known as 

QUESTION ID:59

Which one of the following is NOT a contribution by Robert Koch? 

QUESTION ID:60

Unicellular eukaryotic organisms belong to which one of the following kingdoms of classification? 

QUESTION ID:61

Which one of the following is a contagious disease? 

QUESTION ID:62

The inner mitochondrial membrane comprises of a series of folds known as 

QUESTION ID:63

Which one of the following antibiotics is NOT produced by Streptomyces sp.?

QUESTION ID:64

Which one of the following statements is TRUE about MacConkey (MAC) agar medium? 

QUESTION ID:65

As an antiseptic, alcohol is effective against 

QUESTION ID:66

An antigen X was injected into a rabbit for the first time at time P. Then the rabbit was given a booster dose of X at time Q. Which one of the following figures accurately depicts the adaptive immune response by the rabbit against X? 

QUESTION ID:67

A bactericidal agent X is added after 3 hours of growth of a bacterial culture. Following the addition of X. the bacterial growth was measured using the standard plate count method till 24 hours. Which one of the following figures is the most accurate representation of the action of X? 

QUESTION ID:68

Match the diseases given in Group I with their causative agents from Group II. 

QUESTION ID:69

Match the enzymes given in 

QUESTION ID:70

Match the terms given in Group I with the descriptions from Group II. 

QUESTION ID:71

One-ml sample of a bacterial culture was serially diluted to 105 times, and 46 colonies were obtained after plating this diluted sample on an agar medium. The number of cells present per ml in the undiluted original sample were 

QUESTION ID:72

The transformation efficiency of competent cells prepared in a. laboratory is 10° CFU/µg of plasmid DNA. If 0.01 µg of this plasmid is used to transform these competent cells, the number of transformed bacteria in CFU after plating will be  

QUESTION ID:73

Assume that the average DNA content of a single microbial cell is 4 femtogram. A soil sample analyzed for its microbial community DNA is found to contain 0.32 gg DNA per gram of the soil. The number of microbial cells per milligram of the soil are  

QUESTION ID:74

Assume that a bacterial culture has a mean generation time of 2 hours. If the number of bacteria present after 24 hours of culture are 4.1 x 107, the initial number of bacteria present were  

QUESTION ID:75

The minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) of an antibiotic X against Clostridium tetani, Staphylococcus sp., Shigella sp., and Streptococcus sp. is 25, 15, 2 and 1 µg/ml, respectively. Assuming that the bioavailable concentration of X in an animal model is 20 µg/ml, which one of these bacteria may develop resistance against X in the animal model? 

QUESTION ID:76

The characteristic feature of deuterostomes is depicted by 

QUESTION ID:77

One of the most remarkable features of evolution is the formation of amnion and allantoin. This appeared for the "first time" in evolutionary time scale in 

QUESTION ID:78

A woman with blood group A gave birth to a baby with blood group AB. The blood group of the father would be 

QUESTION ID:79

The enzyme amylase can break alpha glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers. Hence, amylase can digest which one of the following carbohydrates? 

QUESTION ID:80

The metabolic pathway which is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration is 

QUESTION ID:81

A female "Spotted sand piper" courts males repeatedly. This behavior can be explained by the term 

QUESTION ID:82

Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species, which is a parasite having a. complex life cycle. The fusion between male and female gametocytes of Plasmodium happens inside

QUESTION ID:83

Aromatase inhibitors are often prescribed for post-menopausal women to treat estrogen receptor positive breast cancer patients, because these class of drugs

QUESTION ID:84

The covalent modification performed by kinases which regulate proteins in signaling pathways is 

QUESTION ID:85

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

QUESTION ID:86

A particular species is found to have 2n=16 chromosomes. The number of linkage groups in this species will be 

QUESTION ID:87

In the Meselson and Stahl experiment, E. con was grown in a medium containing 15NH4Cl. After 24 hours, E. coli were transferred to medium containing 14NH4Cl. After the fourth generation in medium containing 14NH4Cl, the ratio between hybrids (15N/14N) and light (14N/14 N) labeled DNA will be 1: n, where the value of n is 

QUESTION ID:88

The population data present in an island is as follows 
The allele frequency of A ( up to two decimals) will be 

QUESTION ID:89

A cell in G1 phase has 16 chromosomes. The total number of chromatids that would be found per cell during Metaphase II of meiosis are  

QUESTION ID:90

Upon activation of phospholipase C by ligand binding to G-protein coupled receptor. the Ca+2 concentration in cytosol will 

QUESTION ID:91

Match the following molecules in Group I with their function in Group II 

QUESTION ID:92

If a heavy chain of an antibody molecule weighs 65000 Daltons (Da) and a light chain weighs 25.000 Da, the approximate calculated weight of an antibody in Da will be 

QUESTION ID:93

MATCH the signaling pathways in Group I with their functions in Group II, during the process Group II of development

QUESTION ID:94

In a population which is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. the frequency of the recessive genotype of a certain trait is 0.09. The percentage of individuals with heterozygous genotype is % 

QUESTION ID:95

An enzyme preparation has activity of 2 Units per 20 RI, and protein concentration 0.4 mg/ml. The specific activity (Units/mg) of this enzyme will be 

QUESTION ID:96

Indicate the correct group that contains a monosaccharide, a disaccharide and a trisaccharide. 

QUESTION ID:97

In which of the following products. 'must' is used as the substrate for fermentation? 

QUESTION ID:98

Identify the foodborne illness which is not caused by bacteria. 

QUESTION ID:99

Nutrient composition of wheat flour changes with extent of extraction from whole wheat gain. Which of the following statements is true if the extraction rate increased from 50% to 90%? 

QUESTION ID:100

You have two samples of milk, one with 3.8% fat and another (Y) with 0.5% fat. In order to produce a milk with 3.5% fat. 100 ml of Y should be mixed with ml of X.

QUESTION ID:101

Match the items in column I with the items in column II in relation to food safety and standards. 

QUESTION ID:102

A 50% sucrose solution at 20 °C is flowing at a. rate of 3.5 m3/h through a pipe with an inside diameter of 0.0475 m and length of 12 m. The viscosity and the density of the solution are 15.43 cp and 1232 kg/m3, respectively. The Reynolds number of the flow is

QUESTION ID:103

In a pineapple juice, fibre particles having mean diameter of 160 Fun and density of 1075 kg/m3 are settling by gravity. If the density and viscosity of the juice are 1015 kg/m3 and 0.98 cp, respectively, terminal velocity of the fibre particles is minis

QUESTION ID:104

Power consumption in liquid mixing is proportional to

QUESTION ID:105

In dye-reduction test for estimation of viable microorganisms, the most commonly used dyes are methylene blue, triphenyl tetrazolium—chloride and  

QUESTION ID:106

Match the following items of group I with the items of group II in relation to the quality of fat

QUESTION ID:107

Match the following metabolic product (Column I) indicates the quality of food (Column II) 

QUESTION ID:108

Correlate the vitamins in column I with their role in promoting reaction/process in column II.

QUESTION ID:109

A pure strain with generation time of 60 min is used in a. fermentation process. Following inoculation (0 h), the strain takes 2 h for adaptation, 10 h to achieve maximum growth and 12 h to arrive at the point where the death rate is higher than the growth rate. If the inoculation load is 100 cells, the total population at the end of 10 h will be

QUESTION ID:110

Refer to the shear stress — shear rate plot shown in the figure below. Match the lines (Column 1) with appropriate Theological behavior (Column II)

QUESTION ID:111

Water flowing at a rate of 1 kg/min is heated from 12 to 80 °C with flue gas supplied at a rate of 3 kg/min. The temperature and specific heat of the flue gas are 180 °C and 1.05 kJ/kg.K, respectively. If specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg.K and the flow is parallel, then the logarithmic mean temperature difference will be °C. 

QUESTION ID:112

The Lineweaver-Burk plot of an enzymatic reaction shows Vmax of 160 micro mol/l.min and km of 60 micro mol/l. For a substrate concentration of 40 micro mol/l. the velocity of the reaction is estimated to be micro mol/lmin

QUESTION ID:113

A suspension containing 2 x 104 spores of organism A having a D121.1oc value of 1 5 min and 8 x 105 spores of organism B having a. D121.1°C value of 0.8 nun is heated at a constant temperature of 121.1 °C. The heating time needed to obtain a probability of spoilage '1 in 1000' is min.

QUESTION ID:114

In an evaporation process, a compressor picks up 0.05 M3 air in each revolution and compresses 500 kg of air per minute. If the specific volume of air is 0.9 m3/kg, then the compressor speed is rpm. 

QUESTION ID:115

For a soybean oil extraction system, solvent: soy ratio is maintained at 0.5:1 (w/w). Original seed contains 18% oil (w/w). If the meal (soy solid) after final desolventization has 0.01 kg oil per kg oil free meal, then the effectiveness of the solvent (kg oil/ kg solvent) in the extraction process is  

QUESTION ID:116

The event would have been successful if you able to come.

QUESTION ID:117

There was no doubt that their work was thorough. 
Which of the words below is closest in meaning to the underlined word above?

QUESTION ID:118

Four cards lie on a table. Each card has a number printed on one side and a colour on the other. The faces visible on the cards are 2. 3. red, and blue. Proposition: If a card has an even value on one side, then its opposite face is red. 
The cards which MUST be turned over to verify the above proposition are 

QUESTION ID:119

What is the value of x when

QUESTION ID:120

Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability that the product of the numbers appearing on the top faces of the dice is a perfect square is

QUESTION ID:121

Bhaichung was observing the pattern of people entering and leaving a car service center. There was a single window where customers were being served. He saw that people inevitably came out of the center in the order that they went in. However, the time they spent inside seemed to vary a lot: some people came out in a matter of minutes while for others it took; much longer. 
From this, what can one conclude?

QUESTION ID:122

A map shows the elevations of Darjeeling. Gangtok. Kalimpong. Pelling. and Siliguri. Kalimpong is at a lower elevation than Gangtok. Pelling is at a lower elevation than Gangtok. Pelling is at a higher elevation than Siliguri. Daijeeling is at a higher elevation than Gangtok. 
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the paragraph above?
i. Pelling is at a higher elevation than Kalimpong
ii. Kalimpong is at a lower elevation than Darjeeling
iii. Kalimpong is at a higher elevation than Siliguri
iv. Siliguri is at a lower elevation than Gangtok 

QUESTION ID:123

P. Q. R., S. T and U are seated around a circular table. R is seated two places to the right of Q. P is seated three places to the left of R. S is seated opposite U. If P and U now switch seats. which of the following must necessarily be true? 

QUESTION ID:124

Budhan covers a distance of 19 km in 2 hours by cycling one fourth of the time and walking the rest. The next day he cycles (at the same speed as before) for half the time and walks the rest (at the same speed as before) and covers 26 km in 2 hours. The speed in km/h at which Budhan walks is

QUESTION ID:125

The points in the graph below represent the halts of a lift for durations of 1 minute. over a period of 1 hour.

Which of the following statements are correct? 

i. The elevator never moves directly from any non-ground floor to another non-ground floor over the one hour period

ii. The elevator stays on the fourth floor for the longest duration over the one hour period 

QUESTION ID:126

Replum is characteristic of family