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Previous Year Questions

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QUESTION ID:1

The movie was funny and I _________.

QUESTION ID:2

𝑥 ∶ 𝑦 ∶ 𝑧 = 1/2; 1/3: 1/4 What is the value of  ?

QUESTION ID:3

Both the numerator and the denominator of 3/4 are increased by a positive integer, 𝑥, and those of 15/17 are decreased by the same integer. This operation results in the same value for both the fractions. What is the value of 𝑥?

QUESTION ID:4

A survey of 450 students about their subjects of interest resulted in the following outcome.
. 150 students are interested in Mathematics.
. 200 students are interested in Physics.
. 175 students are interested in Chemistry.
. 50 students are interested in Mathematics and Physics.
. 60 students are interested in Physics and Chemistry.
. 40 students are interested in Mathematics and Chemistry.
. 30 students are interested in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry.
. Remaining students are interested in Humanities.
Based on the above information, the number of students interested in Humanities is

QUESTION ID:5

For the picture shown above, which one of the following is the correct picture representing reflection with respect to the mirror shown as the dotted line?

QUESTION ID:6

In the last few years, several new shopping malls were opened in the city. The total number of visitors in the malls is impressive. However, the total revenue generated through sales in the shops in these malls is generally low. Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the information in the above passage?

QUESTION ID:7

In a partnership business the monthly investment by three friends for the first six months is in the ratio 3: 4: 5. After six months, they had to increase their monthly investments by 10%, 15% and 20%, respectively, of their initial monthly investment. The new investment ratio was kept constant for the next six months.
What is the ratio of their shares in the total profit (in the same order) at the end of the year such that the share is proportional to their individual total investment over the year?

QUESTION ID:8

Consider the following equations of straight lines:
Line L1: 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 = 5
Line L2: 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 8
Line L3: 4𝑥 − 6𝑦 = 5
Line L4: 6𝑥 − 9𝑦 = 6
Which one among the following is the correct statement?

QUESTION ID:9

Given below are two statements and four conclusions drawn based on the statements.
Statement 1: Some soaps are clean.
Statement 2: All clean objects are wet.
Conclusion I: Some clean objects are soaps.
Conclusion II: No clean object is a soap.
Conclusion III: Some wet objects are soaps.
Conclusion IV: All wet objects are soaps.
Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?

QUESTION ID:10

An ant walks in a straight line on a plane leaving behind a trace of its movement. The initial position of the ant is at point P facing east.
The ant first turns 72o anticlockwise at P, and then does the following two steps in sequence exactly FIVE times before halting.
1. moves forward for 10 cm.
2. turns 144o clockwise.
The pattern made by the trace left behind by the ant is

QUESTION ID:11

Consider a second order reaction, The concentration of A is represented as [A].
Which of the following is the CORRECT plot for determining the rate constant for the above reaction?

QUESTION ID:12

Which among the following has the least second ionization energy?

QUESTION ID:13

Which among the following metal ions has the highest enthalpy of hydration? (Assume the given metal ions have the same counter ion.)
Given: Atomic numbers of Ti, V, Cr and Mn are 22, 23, 24 and 25, respectively.

QUESTION ID:14

Among the following, the one having smallest bond angle is

QUESTION ID:15

Which of the following is the CORRECT statement about hexoses?

QUESTION ID:16

The bases present in DNA are

QUESTION ID:17

The CORRECT order of basicity for the following compounds is

QUESTION ID:18

Molar conductance of monobromoacetic acid at infinite dilution is calculated to be x × 10–4 S m2 mol–1 at 25 oC. The value of x is (round off to the nearest integer)
Given:

QUESTION ID:19

A sample of benzene, contaminated with a non-volatile and non-ionic solute, boils at 0.31°C higher than that of pure benzene. The molality of the solute in the
contaminated solution is ______ (round off to two decimal places).
Given: Gas constant = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1
Molecular weight of benzene is 78.11 g mol-1
Normal boiling point of benzene is 80.1°C
Enthalpy of vaporization of benzene is 30.76 kJ mol-1

QUESTION ID:20

Among the following statements about cobalt complexes, which is/are CORRECT?
Given: Atomic number of Co is 27

QUESTION ID:21

Consider the following reaction

The CORRECT statement(s) related to mono-chlorination at carbon-2 position is/are

QUESTION ID:22

Consider the following enzyme catalyzed reaction:

where E is enzyme, S is substrate, ES is enzyme-substrate complex and P is product. The CORRECT statement(s) for the above reaction is/are

QUESTION ID:23

Consider the following reaction:

The CORRECT pathway(s) involved in the reaction is/are

QUESTION ID:24

An aqueous solution of aspirin (HA) is prepared at pH 7.4. The ratio of concentration of A- and HA at equilibrium is ______ (round off to the nearest integer).
Given: Ka of aspirin is 3.98 × 10– 4

QUESTION ID:25

The total number of 3-centre-2-electron bonds in B4H10 is ______ (in integer).

QUESTION ID:26

The equilibrium constant for isomerization of 1-butene to trans-2-butene at 27 oC is ______ (round off to one decimal place).
Given: Gas constant = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1
ΔfGo of 1-butene = +71.39 kJ mol–1
ΔfGo of trans-2-butene = + 63.06 kJ mol–1

QUESTION ID:27

A 16 mW monochromatic light emits 4×1016 photons in 1 second. When this light incidents on a metal strip, photoelectrons are emitted. The wavelength of the emitted
photoelectrons (in Å) is ______ (round off to one decimal place).
Given: Work function of the metal = 2.0 eV
Charge of an electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C
Mass of an electron = 9.1 × 10-31 kg
Planck’s constant = 6.626 × 10–34 J s

QUESTION ID:28

Which of the immune cells listed below are agranular?
P. Eosinophils
Q. Mast cells
R. Monocytes
S. T-cells

QUESTION ID:29

Which one of the following enzymes is located in the outer mitochondrial membrane?

QUESTION ID:30

Which one of the following statements about the DNA polymerase III of E. coli is NOT correct?

QUESTION ID:31

Which one of the following compounds is NOT a translation inhibitor?

QUESTION ID:32

A dye was allowed to undergo migration on a chromatographic paper using a solvent. The dye, and the solvent-front migrated 5 and 20 𝑐𝑚, respectively, from the point of origin. The retention factor (rounded off to two places of decimals) for the dye is _____.

QUESTION ID:33

The 𝑝𝐾a values of the carboxylic and amino groups of an amino acid with a non-ionizable side chain are 2.17 and 9.13, respectively. The isoelectric point (rounded off to two places of decimals) of this amino acid is _____.

QUESTION ID:34

The number of ATP molecules required for the complete assimilation of one molecule of CO2 in Calvin cycle is _____.

QUESTION ID:35

The absorbance of a 5 × 10-4solution of tyrosine at 280 𝑛𝑚 wavelength is 0.75. The path length of the cuvette is 1 𝑐𝑚. The molar absorption coefficient at
the given wavelength in 𝑀-1CM-1, correct to the nearest integer, is _____.

QUESTION ID:36

Filamentous photosynthetic algae were placed on a microscopic slide and illuminated with light of different colors as illustrated.

The bacteria that are known to migrate towards the region of high 𝑂2 were also added uniformly on the slide. Which one of the following options illustrates the distribution of

QUESTION ID:37

Two RNAs shown below were used separately as templates in an in vitro translation system, which can generate proteins in all possible reading frames.
RNA1: 5' − (𝐴𝐺)n − 3'
RNA2: 5' − (𝐴𝐴𝐺)n − 3'
The 𝑅𝑁𝐴1 translated product contained Arg and Glu. The 𝑅𝑁𝐴2 translated product contained Arg, Glu, and Lys.
Which one of the following codons directs the incorporation of Arg?

QUESTION ID:38

Which of the following statements about endogenous synthesis of insulin are correct?
P. Insulin is synthesized as preproinsulin.
Q. Preproinsulin is converted to proinsulin.
R. Single-site cleavage of proinsulin eliminates C chain.
S. Mature insulin consists of disulphide-linked A and B chains.

QUESTION ID:39

Which one of the following enzymes converts testosterone to estradiol?

QUESTION ID:40

Purification of 6×His-tagged protein using Ni-NTA column is an example of ________

QUESTION ID:41

Which of the following carbohydrates has/have a 𝛽1 → 4 glycosidic linkage?

QUESTION ID:42

Which of the following statements about IgA is/are correct?

QUESTION ID:43

The standard free energy changes for conversion of phosphoenol pyruvate (𝑃𝐸𝑃) to pyruvate, and 𝐴𝑇𝑃 synthesis are shown below.

The starting concentrations of 𝑃𝐸𝑃, 𝐴𝐷𝑃, 𝑝𝑦𝑟𝑢𝑣𝑎𝑡𝑒, and 𝐴𝑇𝑃 are 25, 25, 50, and 50 𝑚𝑀, respectively. The value of universal gas constant (R) is 8.315 𝐽 ∙ 𝑚𝑜𝑙-1k-1The actual free energy change in 𝑘𝐽 ∙ 𝑚𝑜𝑙-1 for the reaction
𝑃𝐸𝑃 + 𝐴𝐷𝑃 → 𝑝𝑦𝑟𝑢𝑣𝑎𝑡𝑒 + 𝐴𝑇𝑃
carried out at 37 ℃ will be _____ (rounded off to one place of decimal).

QUESTION ID:44

The dissociation constant for a receptor-ligand pair is 0.25 × 10-7M. The ligand was added to a solution of the receptor such that the receptor was 50% saturated
at equilibrium. Assume that the receptor has one ligand binding site. The concentration of the free ligand at equilibrium in 𝑛𝑀, correct to the nearest integer, should be _____.

QUESTION ID:45

The half-maximal velocity of an enzyme catalyzed reaction was found at a substrate concentration of 0.5 × 10-6M. This enzyme follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics. In the presence of a competitive inhibitor, the half-maximal velocity was found at a substrate concentration of 1.5 × 10-6M. Given that the enzymeinhibitor pair has a dissociation constant of 2 × 10-6M the concentration of the competitive inhibitor in μ𝑀, rounded off to one place of decimal, was_____.

QUESTION ID:46

A forty-times diluted sample of ssRNA gave an 𝐴260 of 0.01. The concentration of the ssRNA before the dilution in μ𝑔/𝑚𝐿 was _____ (correct to the nearest integer).

QUESTION ID:47

In Angiosperms, normally ‘Exarch Xylem’ occurs in

QUESTION ID:48

‘Quiescent Center’ is present in

QUESTION ID:49

With reference to virulence (vir) region of nopaline type Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens, match Group-I (vir gene) and Group-II (coded protein) in CORRECT combination.

Group-IGroup-II
P. vir AI. Single strand T-DNA binding protein
Q. vir BII. Topoisomerase
R. vir EIII. Membrane protein, channel for T-DNA
S. vir DIV. Sensor protein, constitutive expression

QUESTION ID:50

Anomalous secondary growth is observed in

QUESTION ID:51

Which of the following plant diseases is/are caused by bacteria?

QUESTION ID:52

Phylogenetic system of classification is/are proposed by

QUESTION ID:53

Which of the following is/are part of marine ecosystem?

QUESTION ID:54

In NADP+-malic enzyme type C4 photosynthesis cycle, n molecule(s) of ATP is/are required for the assimilation of one molecule of CO2. The value of n is ________
(in integer).

QUESTION ID:55

An Arabidopsis thaliana mutant plant developed defective flowers with altered floral organ identity and patterning. In this mutant, the four floral whorls contain
Sepal-Sepal-Carpel-Carpel, from the periphery to the center of the flower. Based on the typical ABC model of floral organ patterning, which among the following are mutated in this plant?

QUESTION ID:56

Match the secondary metabolites in Group-I with types of secondary metabolites in Group-II in CORRECT order.

Group-IGroup-II
P. MyrceneI. Sesquiterpene
Q. β-Farnesene
II. Cyanogenic glycoside
R. AmygdalinIII. Flavone
S. NicotineIV. Alkaloid
T. LuteolinV. Monoterpene

QUESTION ID:57

Match Group-I (enzyme), Group-II (reaction catalyzed by the enzyme), and Group-III (subcellular localization of the enzyme and the associated metabolic process) in CORRECT combination.

Group-IGroup-IIGroup-III
P. PEP CarboxylaseI. 2 Glycolate + 2 O2​ = 2 Glyoxylate + 2 H2​O2a. Cytosol – C4​ cycle
Q. RubiscoII. Pyruvate + NAD+ + CoA = Acetyl - CoA + CO2 ​+ NADHb. Peroxisome – C2 cycle
R. Glycolate oxidaseIII. Phosphoenolpyruvate + HCO3− ​= Oxaloacetate  + Pic. Mitochondria – aerobic respiration
S. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

IV. 3 (Ribulose 1,5 - bisphosphate) + 3 CO2​ + 3 H2​O = 6 (3-phosphoglycerate) + 6 H+

d. Chloroplast – C3​ cycle

QUESTION ID:58

Match Group-I (selection agent) and Group-II (gene) in CORRECT combination.

Group-IGroup-II
P. KanamycinI. pmi
Q. HygromycinII. bar
R. PhosphinothricinIII. nptII
S. MannoseIV. ptxD
V. dhfr
VI. hpt

QUESTION ID:59

Match Group I (plant natural product), Group II (class) and Group III (source plant) in CORRECT combination.

QUESTION ID:60

Match Group I (plant disease), Group II (causal organism) and Group III (affected plant) in CORRECT combination.

Group-I                  Group-II                          Group-III
P. Karnal BuntI. Phytophthora infestansa. Rice
Q. ErgotII. Blumeria graminisb. Potato
R. Late blightIII. Neovossia indicac. Rye
S. Powdery mildewIV. Puccinia reconditad. Wheat
V. Claviceps purpureae. Barley
VI. Alternaria solanif. Brinjal

QUESTION ID:61

Make CORRECT match between Group-I and Group-II, in relation to interaction between two species.

Group-I            Group-II                                                                                                            
P. NeutralismI.neither can survive under natural condition without the other
Q. AllelopathyII. direct inhibition of one species by the other species using toxic compound
R. AmensalismIII. neither is affected by the association with the other
S. MutualismIV. one is inhibited and the other is not affected

QUESTION ID:62

Which of the following matches is/are CORRECT?

QUESTION ID:63

Which of the following is/are phanerogamic parasite(s)?

QUESTION ID:64

When a true breeding tall plant containing red flowers was crossed with the true breeding dwarf plant containing white flowers, all F1 plants were tall with red flowers. When the F1 plant was self-pollinated, considering independent assortment of plant height and flower colour traits, the calculated percentage probability of
dwarf plants bearing red flowers in the F2 generation is ________ percent (round off to 2 decimal places).

QUESTION ID:65

A hypothetical plant gene ADSH22 is encoded by the nuclear genome. The length of the mature mRNA for ADSH22 is 2150 nucleotides (nts). This mRNA has a 270 nts long 5′ UTR and 200 nts long 3′ UTR. Taking average molecular weight of an amino acid as 115 Dalton (Da), the calculated molecular weight of ADSH22 protein is ________ kDa (round off to 1 decimal place).

QUESTION ID:66

The terminal acceptor of electron during anaerobic respiration in Methanococcus is ______________.

QUESTION ID:67

Which one of the following mutagens convert DNA’s adenine to hypoxanthine?

QUESTION ID:68

Which one of the following leukocytes are present in the largest proportion in healthy human blood?

QUESTION ID:69

The site of photosynthesis in cyanobacteria is ____________.

QUESTION ID:70

The antimicrobial activity of vancomycin is due to the ____________.

QUESTION ID:71

Phenolics act as disinfectant by ____________

QUESTION ID:72

Which of the following methods are used for the identification of microorganisms?

QUESTION ID:73

Which of the following are present in Gram-negative bacteria?

QUESTION ID:74

Nonsense suppressor mutation is found in _________________.

QUESTION ID:75

Choose the correct match for structural components of bacteria to their function.

Structural componentFunction
(P) Flagella(i) prevent cell lysis
(Q) Cell wall(ii) chemotaxis
(R) Metachromatic granules(iii) storage for ATP
(S) Magnetosomes(iv) cell orientation

QUESTION ID:76

Match the pathogen with the appropriate disease.

PathogenDisease
(P) Streptococcus pyogenes(i) Scarlet fever
(Q) Brucella species(ii) Pott’s disease
(R) Mycobacterium tuberculosis(iii) Traveler’s diarrhea
(S) Escherichia coli(iv) Undulant fever

QUESTION ID:77

Match the correct mode of cell division with respective bacteria.
Bacteria
(P) Streptomyces species
(Q) Rhodopseudomonas acidophila
(R) Bacillus subtilis
(S) Nocardia species

QUESTION ID:78

The correct sequence of overall biochemical reaction which expresses the process of denitrification is ____

QUESTION ID:79

Which of the following diseases are caused by family of DNA viruses?

QUESTION ID:80

Which of the following Gram-positive cocci are found in biofilm of dental plaque?

QUESTION ID:81

Which of the following statements are TRUE for archaea?

QUESTION ID:82

If the plasmid given below is digested with restriction enzymes HindIII and EcoRI, considering complete digestion, how many DNA fragments will be released?

QUESTION ID:83

Escherichia coli growing under favorable conditions doubles in every 20 minutes. If the initial number of Escherichia coli cells is 100, what will be the logarithmic number of cells at 17th generation? (Answer up to 1 decimal place)

QUESTION ID:84

What will be value of the Numerical Aperture (NA), if half aperture angle is 58° and oil immersed objective is used for the process of light microscopy? (Answer up to 1 decimal place) Consider Sin 58° = 0.85 and refractive index of immersion oil used is = 1.50.

QUESTION ID:85

Which one of the following organic compounds is composed of only (i) a nitrogen containing base, (ii) a single five-carbon sugar, and (iii) a triphosphate?

QUESTION ID:86

Which one of the following animals develops adaptive predator avoidance morphology because of the presence of high predator number in its habitat?

QUESTION ID:87

To which class of Drosophila developmental genes does fushi tarazu (ftz) belong?

QUESTION ID:88

The action of which class of enzyme inhibitors can be reversed by adding an excess of substrate?

QUESTION ID:89

Mendel deduced the genetic principle of inheritance by experimenting on sweet pea plants. One of the experiments involved crossing plants with two contrasting characters, tall (dominant) and dwarf (recessive), which yielded all tall plants in the first generation. When the same genetic cross was independently repeated by a researcher, only short plants were obtained. Which one of the following can possibly explain the altered outcome?

QUESTION ID:90

Which of the following is/are responsible for reversible receptor-ligand interaction?

QUESTION ID:91

In the human body, which of the following is/are involved in processing of a foreign antigen?

QUESTION ID:92

Animals can be classified as ‘specialists’ or ‘generalists’ with respect to diet andhabitat selection. Which of the following organism/s belong/s to the specialist category?

QUESTION ID:93

Match the drug/chemicals listed in Column I with the developmental/physiological defects listed in Column II.

Column IColumn II
P. Veratrum alkaloids(i) Obesity
Q. Thalidomide(ii) Minamata syndrome
R. Methylmercury(iii) Cyclopia
S. Diethylstilbestrol(iv) Phocomelia

QUESTION ID:94

Match the animals listed in Column I with primary tissue or organ of residence in the host listed in Column II

Column I                             Column II                                               
P. Ascaris lumbricoides(i) Subcutaneous tissue in human
Q. Dracunculus medinensis(ii) Lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes
R. Enterobius vermicularis(iii) Small intestine
S. Wuchereria bancrofti(iv) Caecum or vermiform appendix

QUESTION ID:95

Match the cell types listed in Column I with their sources in Column II and the primary functional roles listed in Column III.

Column IColumn IIColumn III
P. Microglial cells(i) Lunga. Visual transduction
Q. Leydig cells(ii) Eyesb. Hormone secretion
R. ON cells(iii) Brainc. Phagocytosis
S. Pneumocytes(iv) Testisd. Gaseous exchange

QUESTION ID:96

Match the ecological concepts listed in Column I with their definitions listed in Column II.

Column IColumn II
P. Dominance hierarchies(iv) Preferential access to the food and mates in a group
Q. Territory(iii) Exclusion of competing individuals using agonistic behavior
R. Altruism(i) Giving up one’s own reproductive potential to benefit another individual
S. Kin selection(ii) Selection acting on related animals which affects fitness of an individual

QUESTION ID:97

Match the hormones listed in Column I with their primary source tissues in Column II and the primary target tissues listed in Column III

Column IColumn IIColumn III
P. Epinephrine(i) Hypothalamusa. Pituitary
Q. Prolactin(ii) Thyroidb. Heart
R. Calcitonin(iii) Pituitaryc. Bone
S. Thyrotropin releasing hormone(iv) Chromaffin tissued. Pigeon’s crop

QUESTION ID:98

2-Deoxyglucose (2-DG) inhibits the proliferation of cells and hence finds use as an anti-cancer agent. It is also used in COVID therapy, where it blocks hyperproliferation of virus-infected cells. Mechanistically, 2-DG blocks glycolysis by inhibiting the activities of which of the following enzyme/s?

QUESTION ID:99

According to Abbe’s equation on microscopy, the ability to resolve two entities inside a cell by light microscopy depends on which of the following factor/s?

QUESTION ID:100

Match the animal inactivity behaviors listed in Column I with representative animals in Column II and their definitions listed in Column III.
 
Column IColumn IIColumn III
P.Torpor(i)Australian burrowing frogsa.Prolonged period of inactivity without reducing body temperature
Q.Hibernation(ii)Polar Bearsb.Inactivity period which accompanies extended periods of dryness
R.Winter sleep(iii)Ground Squirrelsc.Decreased metabolism with lowered body temperature occurring in daily activity cycles
S.Aestivation(iv)Hummingbirdsd.Decreased metabolism and lower body temperature for weeks or months

QUESTION ID:101

If the vital capacity (VC) of an individual is 4900 ml, the tidal volume (TV) is 500 ml, and the inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is 3300 ml, the expiratory reserve volume (ERV) of the individual is ________ml. (in integer).

QUESTION ID:102

A typical food chain involves producers, herbivores, primary carnivores and secondary carnivores. Based on Lindeman’s law of trophic efficiency, if producers have 40 kJ of energy, the energy that will be stored in secondary carnivores is _____ kJ. (round off to two decimal places)

QUESTION ID:103

The average body length of Drosophila nasuta collected from Andaman and Nicobar Islands is 2 mm. From this population, a few males and females having a body length of 3 mm were selected and interbred. The average body length of the resultant progeny was 2.5 mm. The heritability (h2) of the body length in this population is ______. (round off to one decimal place)

QUESTION ID:104

Which among the given options truly depict the lines 1 and 2 in the figure below with respect to the effect of heat processing on food?

QUESTION ID:105

Homogenization of milk leads to disintegration of fat globules by

QUESTION ID:106

The lowest water activity (aw) supporting the growth of Staphylococcus aureus in food under aerobic condition is

QUESTION ID:107

Cultures used in industrial production of yogurt are

QUESTION ID:108

In a dairy plant, spray drying technology is used to produce whey powder. The rate of spray drying depends on

QUESTION ID:109

The parboiling of paddy results into

QUESTION ID:110

One hundred kg paddy is dried from 18% wet basis to 13% wet basis moisture content. The amount of water removed (in kg) from the paddy is _______ (round off to one decimal place).

QUESTION ID:111

In a canning industry, the total process time (F0) was calculated as 3 min. If each can contains 20 spores having decimal reduction time of 1.6 min, the probability of
spoilage would be ______ in 100 cans (round off to the nearest integer).

QUESTION ID:112

Match the edible oil refining stages given in Column I with their respective functions in Column II

Column IColumn II
P. Degumming1. Separation of waxes
Q. Neutralization2. Removal of pigments
R. Bleaching3. Removal of phosphatides
S. Winterization4. Removal of free fatty acids

QUESTION ID:113

Make the correct pair of food packaging technology given in Column I with operating principle or description in Column II.

QUESTION ID:114

Which of the following is not a caramel flavour producing compound?

QUESTION ID:115

Match the size reduction equipment in Column I with the method of operation in Column II.

Column IColumn II
P. Hammer mill1. Compression
Q. Burr mill2. Impact
R. Crushing rolls3. Cutting
S. Rotary knife4. Attrition

QUESTION ID:116

Most commonly used refrigerant in direct immersion freezing of food is

QUESTION ID:117

Which among the following are poly unsaturated essential fatty acids?

QUESTION ID:118

Which among the following statements are true with respect to protein denaturation?

QUESTION ID:119

Identify the correct pair(s) of milling equipment and the grain for which it is used.

QUESTION ID:120

Which among the following expression(s) is/are correct?

QUESTION ID:121

In a dairy processing plant, milk enters a 30 m long and 2 cm diameter tube at 60 0C and leaves at 57 0C. The total heat loss over the tube length is 381.15 W. The
specific heat capacity, density, and viscosity of milk are 3.85 kJ kg-1 K-1, 1020 kg m-3, and 1.20 cP, respectively. The Reynolds number for the flow is ______ (round off to the nearest integer).
Given: π = 3.14

QUESTION ID:122

The dry bulb temperature and relative humidity of air inside a storage chamber are 37 0C and 50%, respectively. The saturation pressure of water vapour at 37 0C and
barometric pressure are 6.28 kPa and 101.32 kPa, respectively. The humidity ratio of air inside the chamber is ______ kg water (kg dry air)-1 (round off to three decimal places).
Given: Molecular weight of water vapour and dry air are 18.02 g mol-1 and 28.97 g mol-1, respectively.